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Question 1:       Art

Write about this sculpture.

Statue of Hercules (Lansdowne Herakles), about A.D. 125, Roman

https://www.getty.edu/art/antiquities/

Follow instruction. (it said artwork from a museum visit, due to virus crisis we change to online observation which is the link i provide above)

Include this:

compare this sculpture with this below

  • –  post
  • –  facial expression
  • –  muscular
  • –  heroism

Statue of a Victorious Youth, 300–100 B.C., Greek. https://www.getty.edu/art/antiquities/

INSTRUCTION:

PURPOSE: to apply what you have learned from the course about formal elements to a single work of art. Skills:This assignment will help you hone the following skills:

  • Observation in visual analysis
  • Interpretation and application of observations to problem solving
  • Articulation of ideas using art historical terminology
  • Clear writing to express and single point

Knowledge:

  • Components of composition
  • How elements of design interact
  • The creative process in the visual arts

TASK: To complete this assignment you will:

  • Observe and note formal elements you see. Consult the list of formal elements and principles of composition below.
  • Build an argument that shows how each element you discuss contributes to the effect you are claiming the work has.
  • Keep in mind that formal elements never work alone
  • Consider how the artist uses each element on your list. Ask yourself if the artist uses that element in a consistent way (which has the effect of unifying the subjects represented), or if the artist is using that element to differentiate, and so to create a specific contrast, between two or more areas.
  • Do NOT arrive at a thesis (the claim that you are going to support) for your essay until you have finished making observations about patterns in the use of each formal element and have thought about how those observations “add up.”
  • It might be helpful to consider the element of emphasis first. Ask yourself: Does the art/object have one main point of emphasis? Or are there two or more points of equal emphasis? Alternatively, is there no point of emphasis? Your answer to these questions should help you determine where the artist wants to direct initially your attention. Make a note of it.
  • Compose a formal analysis, 750 words (approximately 3 pages, 12pt times new roman font, double spaced, 1-inch margins)
  • You may wish to organize your discussion of formal elements by principles of composition that may result from the use of the formal elements, see below.
  • Be concise. In your first paragraph, clearly state what you think is the work’s main idea or effect—in other words, how the artist is characterizing his or her subject (or what qualities of the subject the artist is revealing). The first paragraph is the only place where a discussion of subject matter belongs. In subsequent paragraphs, support this thesis with evidence of how the various formal elements of the work contribute to that specific effect or idea.
  • Focus just on those formal elements that have the most impact in your case. You should, however, address no fewer than three formal elements (items 1 through 7 below) in a substantial manner. It is a good idea to organize your paper so that you discuss one formal element per paragraph after your initial paragraph, which should state your thesis. If relevant to your analysis, you may use a principle of composition as a topic for organizing your discussion of several formal elements.
  • Make sure that each paragraph in which you consider a formal element shows how the artist’s use of that formal element contributes to the overall effect or idea you are claiming (in your thesis, or first paragraph) the artist has achieved.
  • Do not write in narrative format, describing your experience.
  • Format your paper
  • MUST be 750 words (12pt times new roman font, double spaced, 1-inch margins)

NOTES:

  • This is not a research assignment. You will not be rewarded, and could be penalized, for writing about irrelevant matters.
  • If the mechanics of writing is not your strength, please note that art history is a writing-based discipline. It is, therefore, recommended that, prior to handing in your assignment, you make time to visit the Learning Resource Center on the second floor of the University Library for assistance.
  • Plagiarism: Students will automatically fail the course and may be referred for further disciplinary action should the student be found plagiarizing. The 2016-17 University Catalogue, under “Student Conduct and Discipline: Academic Integrity,” at http://catalog.csupomona.edu/content.php?catoid=4&navoid=766#Academic_Integrity, defines plagiarism thus:

“Plagiarism, falsification, fabrication—Plagiarism, falsification, fabrication is intentionally or knowingly presenting words, ideas, or work of others as one’s own work. Plagiarism includes copying homework,

copying lab reports, copying computer programs, using a work or portion of a work written or created by another but not crediting the source, using one’s own work completed in a previous class for credit in another class without permission, paraphrasing another’s work without giving credit, and borrowing or using ideas without giving credit.”

*Note from the catalog’s definition of plagiarism that plagiarism may refer to copying the work of a fellow student. So, if you study with another student, make sure you do the actual assignment INDEPENDENTLY!

Formal Elements

*Refer to class notes to review various formal elements and how they work.

  1. Color (hue)
    a. color saturation

High saturation of color helps to create intensity. b. interaction of colors

This includes the impact of complementary and analogous colors.
*Note: Formal analysis does not involve symbolic interpretations of colors. In other words, do not make statements such as “yellow symbolizes optimism.” The formal effect of colors always

depends on their relationship to other colors.

  1. Value
    Low value = dark (black or tones of colors). High value = light (white or tints of colors).

Remember that contrast of value is the only compositional dynamic that creates emphasis in a painting.

  1. Line
    a. actual: can have character: thick, thin, curving, straight, etc.

They can also direct the eye and indicate movement.

Do not confuse line with brushwork.
b. implied: can indicate movement or they can simply ensure

that the viewer makes connections among certain objects in the painting.
c. axis: refers to the dominant implied line in a painting (horizontal vertical, or

diagonal). Remember that diagonal axis usually imply dynamism, movement.

  1. Scale (remember: in painting, there are two kinds of scale to consider)
    a. when speaking of the scale of the painting as an object, consider whether the painting creates,

for example, an intimate or a distant relationship between you, the viewer, and the subject.
b. When speaking of scale as the relative sizes of objects in the painting, consider the impact

of significant disparities of scale. Does the artist, for example, suggest that one object overwhelms, is more powerful, than another?

  1. Brushwork
    If it’s visible, brushwork shows how the artist laid down paint (spontaneously, smoothly,

erratically, roughly, etc.). This gives the depiction of the subject a particular energy.

  1. Medium (materials)
    Medium could be important if the choice of medium is unusual. If so, it
    may be used to emphasize particular physical properties (transparency, roughness, etc.) or

cultural associations (opulence, humbleness, etc.).

  1. Point of view
    How objects or figures are arranged in relation to you, the viewer, is an indication of the

perspective (literally and figuratively) that the artist wants us to have in relation to that subject.

Principles of composition
*not themselves formal elements, but are created by the use of formal elements.

  1. Emphasis (focal point).
    Note: This is a good one to discuss first, since it tells you whether or not the artist is communicating that a particular part of the composition is more important than other parts. Keep in mind that, in a painting, there may be one or multiple or no points of emphasis.
  2. Contrast (any element may be used contrastingly in a composition). Be sure to specify what sort of contrast you mean.
  3. Rhythm (repetition of line or shape—a form bounded by line—creates rhythm) 10. Unity (referring to compositional coherence)
    11. Balance (referring to the equal distribution of visual weights)
  4. Construction of space. Does the artist create spatial recession (depth) or flatness, or a combination of both? If you consider the construction of space in your essay, you should articulate the compositional cause(s) and expressive effect(s) of the spatial recession or flatness you find.

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Question 2:       Economics

 

Drawing diagrams and describing them on the topic of “Impact on AD/AS” (Macroeconomics.)

 

Impact on AD / AS:

Economic event Primary Impact on AD / AS
(draw a diagram)
Explanation (what caused the change, and make sure you say what happens to the price level and real GDP)
The Central Bank has announced an increase in interest rates.    
The price of oil worldwide is decreasing.    
The Rouble has fallen in value against many of the major currencies.    

 

Government has announced a new plan to build 3 new high-speed rail lines.

 

 

 

 

 

 

   
Average wage rates in the economy are rising.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

   
Consumer confidence surveys show that households expect a prolonged recession.  At the same time, firms also expect a prolonged recession.    
The discovery of new raw material sources

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

   
Foreign countries purchase an unusually large quantity of Russian lumber.

 

 

 

 

 

   
The vegetable growing areas of Russia experience an extended drought.

 

 

 

 

 

   

 

 

 

Question 3:       Health Care

 

In a well-constructed paragraph explain & describe the biases in this Case-Control study?

  1. Case-Control study: A researcher plans to investigate the efficacy of a new pancreatic cancer screening tool, using a Case-Control study design. She selects patients from 10 physicians’ offices, and places them into two groups. The Control group has no family history of pancreatic cancer. They receive one screening per year using the typical method. The Case group has a family history of pancreatic cancer. They receive two screenings per year, using the new technique.

 

 

Question 4:       History

 

INSTRUCTIONS:  Paper must be: Two to three pages in length; APA format; at least two references must be used- the text book does not count; include a reference page——–title page and abstract are not required.

 

This is the textbook that goes with the class.

Text: Racial and Ethnic Relations, Census Edition Author(s): Feagin, J., R., &

Feagin, C. B.

ISBN: 0-205-02499-8 ISBN-13: 978-0-205-02499-5

Edition / Copyright: 9TH 12 – Current Edition

Publisher: Pearson

 

Question: EXAM QUESTION:  Discuss how the Holocaust has impacted the Jewish people today and how it may impact future generations.  Specific examples. If you feel the Holocaust had no past or future impact support your stance with solid research.  What impact has the push to deny the Holocaust had on society?

 

 

 

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Question 5:       Business

 

This assignment has 2 parts which needs to be done separately. Part 1: You’ve developed a very popular, up-scale but reasonably priced, clothing fashion line for young people. You produce designs in a number of countries, manufacturing in low-cost locations, and with retail outlets in major U.S. and European cities. Demand is popping and you have access to plenty of production capacity and capital. Answer the following questions:(A) How should you organize the business outside of the U.S.? (B)Should you set-up reasonably independent companies, subsidiaries, in each foreign market?(C)What would that do and not do for you?(D)Or, do you want to impose a strict brand image, procedures, and central planning from headquarters, where your offices are?(E)What are the pros and cons of this approach?….

 

Instruction

Part2: Explain the First Mover Advantage and the six modes of entry into foreign markets. Identify a foreign market that you will be entering. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each? Identify the best market entry strategy that you will be using for the foreign market of your choice……NO MINIMUM WORDING

 

Question 6:       Biology

 

Format: Formal essay MLA, Times new roman, 12 pt, double spaced, 1000 words. Intro, body paragraphs for evidence, conclusion. – Topic: Compare and contrast the characters in “Boys and girls” by Alice Munro and “The Cask of Amontillado” by Edgar Allan Poe to demonstrate the different way Realism and romanticism portray characters. – Please include a works cited page with the two short stories and other articles and references to back up the claims. (At least minimum of 2 other references minus the short stories) – Make sure you read the short stories and understand the main characters in each of them before writing (Boy and Girls is realism and The Cask of Amontillado is Romanticism)

 

Question 7:       Management

 

Management Team Decision

PURPOSE – The purpose of this exercise is for your team to assess the importance of certain policies to an organizational culture and to weigh the effects of changing policies that account for the unique character of that organizational culture. This exercise also pushes you to consider how external issues (sociocultural, demographic) affect the internal environment of the firm.

As a team take a perspective (“for pets” or “against pets”) and discuss the reasons in support of that perspective. For example, a group of “for pets” would only discuss reasons to keep the pet policy.

DOG DAY BLUES

One of the reasons you accepted a management position at MicroTek several years ago was the company’s laidback culture. A loose organizational structure enables employees to move freely between projects, and the open office space encourages informal encounters and generates a feeling of teamwork. And among the very generous corporate perks is a policy allowing employees to bring their pets to work. It is not uncommon to see a small animal sitting in an employee’s in-box drinking from a hamster lick. Several employees bring their dogs, large and small, to the office.

As the company has grown, thanks in part to its informal culture, more and more people are taking advantage of the pet policy, and problems are arising. Food is swiped from desks, animals are rooting through trash bins, and dogs are marking territory on the partitions that surround their owners’ desks. Visiting customers often try to mask startled (at best) or disapproving (at worst) looks when they tour your facility for the first time—and even the second and third times. During a recent breakfast meeting, when a board member refused to share her bagel with the CEO’s dog, the dog relieved itself on her briefcase. At least one employee has complained of allergic reactions due to the high levels of pet dander in the office air, but rather than change the policy, you installed a high-power air cleaner.

Despite the challenges, you have resisted changing the pet policy because it symbolizes both the company’s relaxed culture and MicroTek’s commitment to its employees’ work–life balance. This afternoon, however, you were notified that your office does not meet the required indoor air quality standards. Apparently, the cleaner you installed can’t handle all the pet dander. To meet the standards, you’ll need an even more powerful air cleaner that costs between $100,000 and $200,000. That would be a significant investment in the pet policy! And who knows if it would solve the allergy problem. Is the policy worth the cost?

You ask yourself, “How committed am I to the pet policy?” Is the pet policy just trendy (or avant-garde), or does it say something deeper about your company?

For this Management Team Decision, assemble three or four students to act as the management team for MicroTek. Include both pet owners and people without pets to avoid any bias. Before you begin the exercise, have each team member privately write down answers to each of the following questions. By sharing your individual responses, you may be able to have a more varied and rounded discussion.

 

Questions

 

  1. Do you buy the expensive air cleaner or eliminate the pet policy? Why or why not?

 

  1. If you choose to stop allowing animals at the office, what effect, if any, do you think the change will have on the company’s culture?

 

  1. Can you think of a way to allow people to bring pets to work without upgrading the air cleaner or violating workplace air quality regulations?

 

 

Question 8:       Communication

 

The Power of Connection: Building a Personal Learning Network

Relationships are all there is. Everything in the universe only exists because it is in relationship to everything else. Nothing exists in isolation. We have to stop pretending we are individuals who can go it alone.
—Margaret Wheatley, Turning to One Another: Simple Conversations to Restore Hope to the Future

The rise of social media and its power to instantaneously connect people to others is a testament to just how interconnected the world has become. Social media has become an important way to form and maintain relationships. Many people use social media platforms such as Facebook and Twitter to keep in touch with family, friends, and colleagues. Businesses search for new ways to connect with current and future customers. How many people, however, have recognized the potential of social media as a powerful learning tool?

Forward-thinking educators have begun purposefully building online social networks, known as Personal Learning Networks (PLN)s, of colleagues and experts in the field. Rather than see social networks as an annoyance or way of wasting time, these educators have made them an invaluable means of personal and professional growth. Business professionals can benefit from following their lead. Creating a PLN often is a guide for professionals and committed lifelong learners to help build relationships with others from all over the world. With careful work and commitment to building and maintaining a PLN, the possibilities for connection are endless.

To prepare for this Assignment, review the materials in the Learning Resources and consider novel ways in which you might use technology to foster new connections and seek information and advice.

 

Learning resources:

  1. https://www.fractuslearning.com/2012/01/24/education-twitter-profiles/
  2. https://www.fractuslearning.com/2012/04/17/pln-twitter/
  3. https://technologyembedded.wordpress.com/2012/05/20/twitter-101/

 

 

TASK

Submit a 4- to 5-page paper in which you create the plan for your PLN. Your paper should include the following:

  • A description of what networks and tools you will use to create your PLN, including a brief rationale for each
  • Information you will present in your professional profile (which may be placed on one or more social media platforms), including specific text you will use to identify yourself and your interests for those who might be interested in following you or joining your PLN
  • A categorized, annotated list of at least 5people or groups that you might add to your PLN (through their Twitter feed, blog, LinkedIn page, etc.), including the following for each person or group:
    • A brief (1–2 paragraphs) rationale for why you would include the person or group in your PLN
    • A brief (1 paragraph) description of the process by which you found the person or group you added to your PLN, e.g., by browsing a group’s Twitter feed and then deciding to add it to your own PLN, by locating another person the group’s feed follows, by finding a group on Facebook and deciding to send a friend request to an individual within that group, etc.
  • Support your work with a minimum of two specific citations per page from this week’s Learning Resources and/or additional scholarly sources.

Be sure to use the APA Course Paper Template (6th Ed.) to complete this Assignment.Please Note: For each page of your paper, you must include a minimum of two APA-formatted scholarly citations.

 

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Question 9:       History

 

19th Century Europe was shaped by the ideas of liberalism, conservatism, nationalism and socialism.  Discuss this statement and provide specific examples to illustrate your points about these forces.

Your essay should be at least 1200 words and should include two citations from the text and two from the primary sources to be read for this assignment.  I don’t want any more citations than this, as I want to hear your ideas and words.  Choose compelling quotes from the text and the primary sources.

Required Course Textbook(s):

Making of the West, Value Edition, Combined Edition: 5th

  1. ISBN: 9781319065461
  2. Author: Hunt
  3. Publisher: MPS (Macmillan Publishers)
  4. Formats: PAPERBACK
  5. Copyright Year: 2017

Check the sites below for proper citation formatting.

http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/747/01/ (Links to an external site.)

And for APA:

http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/01/ (Links to an external site.)

*************************************************************************************

Primary sources to consider:

Nationalism

Germany

http://sourcebooks.fordham.edu/Halsall/mod/arndt-vaterland.asp (Links to an external site.)

Conservatism:  Divine Origins of Constitutions

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/mod/1810demaistre.html (Links to an external site.)

Scientific Socialism

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/mod/marx-summary.html

 

 

Question 10:              Biology

 

  1. A client’s spouse states “I’ve noticed that my spouse doesn’t sleep well anymore and sometimes can’t find the right words when we’re visiting.” The nurse should correctly respond:

 

  1. a) “Does anyone in your family have Alzheimer’s disease?”
  2. b) “How long have you noticed these changes?”
  3. c) “These are common changes associated with age.”
  4. d) “Do you think your spouse is depressed?”

 

Application

Learning Outcome 2

 

 

 

  1. A client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barre syndrome and the nursing diagnosis Spontaneous Ventilation,Impairedhas been identified. In planning care for this client, the nurse will prioritize the following interventions, with 1 being the most critical and 4 the least:

 

1) Careful airway suctioning to prevent infection

2) Client education regarding residual problems

3) Monitor arterial blood gases to identify changes.

4) Maintain hydration and caloric intake.

 

 

 

  1. A client comes to the clinic with complaints of blurred vision and muscle spasms that come and go, which have been occurring over the past several months. The client is scheduled for an MRI and lumbar puncture with examination of the CSF. A critical piece of the client history for the nurse to note is that:

 

  1. a) The client is from Canada.
  2. b) The client has a family history of epilepsy.
  3. c) The client has been depressed.
  4. d) The client’s father had Parkinson’s disease.

 

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  1. A nurse working in a fertility clinic reviews the health history of a client whose father had Huntington’s disease. What statement by the nurse would best address this client’s risk factors?

 

  1. a)      “Have you ever been tested for this disease?”
  2. b)      “What do you know about testing for this disease?”
  3. c)       “Are you sure you want to have children?”
  4. d)      “Your child has a 50% chance of getting this disease.”

 

 

 

  1. A home health nurse visits a client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease who lives at home with a spouse. In order to meet the needs of the spouse, the nurse suggests:

 

  1. a)      Making arrangements for the client to visit the local senior citizen’s center in the afternoon.
  2. b)      Providing the client a list of daily activities to complete.
  3. c)       Finding respite care to come into the home several days a week.
  4. d)      Finding placement in a long-term care facility.

 

 

 

  1. A client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease has lost 5 pounds over the past month. The best nursing intervention would be:

 

  1. a)      Recommend referral to a nutritionist.
  2. b)      Make sure the client is put on a mechanical soft diet.
  3. c)       Give the client food choices he can select.
  4. d)      Provide quick snacks throughout the day.

 

 

  1. A client complains of periods of confusion and forgetfulness at times, and reports clear thought process at most times of the day. The symptoms have been gradually worsening. The best response by the nurse is:

 

  1. a)      “You probably have nothing to worry about, it’s most likely stress-related.”
  2. b)      “Everybody has a few problems with memory as they get older.”
  3. c)       “Have you started any new medications since the symptoms began?”
  4. d)      “You should probably have an MRI of your brain.”

 

 

  1. A client states “My doctor said sometimes I would have an on/off problem with this medication—what does that mean?” The best response by the nurse is:

 

  1. a)      “There will be times when you are depressed (off) and when you are happy (on).”
  2. b)      “You will have to take breaks from this medicine by stopping (off) and starting it (on) again, so you don’t build up a tolerance to it.”
  3. c)       “The on times will be when your symptoms are under control, the off times are when you will have increased problems with symptom management.”
  4. d)      “I’m not a pharmacist, so I shouldn’t be answering this question.”

 

 

 

  1. A client with myasthenia gravis is taking pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Teaching about this medication should include immediately reporting:

 

  1. a)      Increased weakness.
  2. b)      Problems with increased drooling.
  3. c)       Orthostatic hypotension.
  4. d)      Headache.

 

 

 

  1. A client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease becomes very agitated in the evenings. Appropriate nursing interventions would include:

 

  1. a)      Use of anti-anxiety medications or tranquilizers.
  2. b)      Moving the client to an area of activity to provide distraction.
  3. c)       Playing soft music in the client’s room.
  4. d)      Recommending the client be moved to a more secure environment.

 

Learning Outcome 4

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 47

 

 

  1. When the nurse was assessing a client for neurological changes from a head       trauma, which eye assessments are included? Select all that apply.

 

  1.         Ptosis
  2. Extraocular movements
  3.        Accommodation
  4. Color of iris
  5. Nystagmus

 

 

  1. When teaching a community health class about eye safety, which statement by one of the participants would   reflect a need for additional teaching?

 

  1. “I will wear goggles whenever I work around equipment such as lawnmowers, saws, and trimmers.”
  2. “When I play sports, I should wear protective eyewear to minimize risks of eye injury.”
  3. “When working with chemicals, if a splash occurs, I should first call 911 and then go to the emergency facility.”
  4. “When working or playing in the outdoors, I should wear shades that have UV protection even if the day is cloudy.”

 

 

 

 

  1. The client was complaining of dizziness and disequilibrium with head      movements. The nurse understands which nursing diagnosis would be the top            priority based upon these findings?

 

  1.        Fluid Balance, Deficit
  2. Adjustment Impairment
  3. Coping, Ineffective
  4. Falls, Risk for

 

 

  1.            When the nurse is planning the health history questions to ask a client about     possible hearing changes that might have occurred due to frequent sinus         infections, which question would be appropriate? Select all that apply.

 

  1.        “Do you have any pain in your ears?”
  2. “Have you ever had drainage from your ears?”
  3. “Does anyone in your family have congenital deafness?”
  4. “Have you noticed a change in your hearing, such as muffling of sounds?”

 

 

 

  1. When the nurse is assessing for a possible conductive hearing loss, which            assessment would be the first one to perform?

 

  1.        Inspection of the external ear
  2. Weber test
  3. Rinne test
  4. Tympanogram

 

 

 

  1. The nurse suspects that a bone-conductive hearing loss is present in the client.                 Which diagnostic would best differentiate between bone conduction loss and air                conduction loss?

 

  1. Rinne test
  2. Weber test
  3.        Assessment of balance and body position
  4. Palpation of mastoid process

 

 

  1. When planning home management for a client who recently lost vision after eye trauma, which of the following would be most appropriate to evaluate the emotional status of the client?

 

  1. “Do you feel depressed about your vision loss?”
  2. “Tell me how your change in vision has affected how you feel about           yourself.”
  3. “Have you made arrangements for someone to help you around the house?”
  4. “You know; a lot of people do very well with little help once they get home.”

 

 

  1. When explaining a tonometer test results of 28 mm Hg to a client, the nurse would use which explanation to be most accurate? The tonometer measures the pressure in the:
  2. Posterior chamber of your eye, which is too low and requires medication to increase the pressure to prevent blindness from retinal damage.
  3. Inner ear, to evaluate the semicircular canals functions related to nerve damage, and 28 mm Hg is “within the normal range.”
  4. Pressure in the middle ear that builds up with Mastoiditis, and 28 mm Hg is very high, and needs to be treated with surgical insertion of tubes to drain the fluid behind the tympanic membrane.
  5. Anterior chamber of the eye that builds up from overproduction or decreased drainage of the aqueous humor, and could lead to possible retinal changes due to above-normal pressures, like yours, if not treated.

 

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****NOTE TEXT contradicts itself for two different norms are given on page 5 of chapter 47 and page 39 of chapter 48…. Please clarify which range is desired for consistency in text readings.

 

 

  1. When performing the caloric test, nystagmus develops in the left eye while        irrigating the right ear. The nurse evaluates the client further for which condition    that contributes to the results of the caloric test?

 

  1. Alcohol, CNS depression, or barbiturate use
  2. Increased anterior pressure in the left eye
  3. Nothing further, since nerves are intact in the inner ear
  4. Increased pressure from brain lesions

 

 

  1. When assessing a 75-year-old client, which findings would require immediate    action by the nurse? A statement about:

 

  1. Floaters being present at times.
  2. Additional light and “reading glasses” being needed more often.
  3. The development of a white circle around colored part of eye.
  4. Frequent falls from tripping over items in the floor.

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 48

 

  1. A young female who has a 2-year-old and a new baby has just lost all vision in one eye following a vehicle trauma. The client asks what she will do, since she has no help when she goes home. The nurse would choose which nursing diagnoses when planning care? Select all that apply.
  2. Post-Trauma Syndrome
  3. Grieving, Actual/Anticipatory
  4.    Family Processes, Interrupted
  5.    Self-Esteem, Situational Low
  6. Injury, Risk for

 

 

  1. Upon admission when orienting a client who has been blind since birth to the hospital room, which activity by the nurse would be appropriate? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Orient the client both verbally and physically to the layout of the room.
  2. Describe everything in detail about how the equipment works.
  3. Tell the client you will leave the light on 24 hours a day.
  4. Place signs to remind staff to not move equipment without telling the client.

 

 

 

  1. Which instructions would be appropriate for the nurse to give to a client with acute conjunctivitis from Staphylococcus? Select all that apply.

 

  1. You should wash your hands before cleansing the eye and giving eyedrops.
  2. You can rub your eyes with a clean, soft cloth for itching.
  3. You can soak your lids with warm saline to soften crusts and exudates.
  4. You should not share towels, make-up, or contact lens with anyone else.

 

 

 

  1. Following a severe corneal ulcer, the client had keratoplasty (corneal transplant). What nursing care should be included in the plan of care? The client should: (Select all that apply.)
  2.     Wear an eye-shield the first 24 hours and then at night until several weeks postoperatively as directed by healthcare provider.
  3. Be instructed to avoid lifting, sneezing, coughing or bending over at the waist.
  4. Report any change, such as increased pain, drainage, bleeding, floaters, and cloudiness noted.
  5. Be instructed on how to administer eyedrops and ointments in a sterile manner.
  6. Be educated on the need for mydriatics during the postoperative period.

 

 

 

  1. Before teaching about home management for clients with open-angled glaucoma, which order would be questioned by the nurse?
  2. Timolol (Timoptic), beta-adrenergic blocker, for a 60-year-old with congestive heart failure (CHF)
  3. Dorzolamide (Trusopt), a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, for a client with asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
  4. Acetazolamide (Diamox) for a 20-year-old male
  5. Brimonidine (Alphagan), an adrenergic agonist, for a healthy 40-year-old

 

 

  1. In a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse should assess for             which complications that might be present? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Retinitis pigmentosa with retinal atrophy
  2. Kaposi neoplasms of the external surfaces of the eyelid
  3.    Cotton-wool spots around the optic nerve
  4. Exudative macular degeneration
  5. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

 

 

  1. Following myringotomy for acute otitis media, which topic would be appropriate for teaching about home management by the nurse?

 

  1. Ear irrigations should be placed on the wall of the external canal, and not on the tympanic membrane.
  2. Air travel and sudden barometric shifts will not affect the surgical procedure.
  3. Sterile cotton-tipped swabs can be used to clean the ear drainage.
  4. Shampooing and swimming are not restricted after a couple of weeks.

 

 

  1. The client with otosclerosis would be expected to have which potential finding by the nurse during assessment?

 

  1. Rinne test results that bone conduction is equal or greater than air conduction
  2. Severe vertigo is present when questioned.
  3. Purulent drainage is observed or reported with cyanosis of the tympanic membrane.
  4. Diminished hearing is noted in the lower tones, such as a man’s speaking voice.

 

 

  1. A client with severe symptoms of tinnitus, vertigo, sensorineural hearing deficit,              nausea, and vomiting would have which nursing diagnosis as a first priority?

 

  1. Nutrition, Imbalanced, Less than Body Requirements
  2. Trauma, Risk for
  3. Disturbed Sleep Patterns
  4. Sensory Perception, Disturbed: hearing

 

 

 

  1. A client with a nursing diagnosis ofCommunication: Impaired, Verbal related to hearing deficit would expect which action in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Speak face-to-face, but do not overarticulate your words.
  2.    Offer alternative methods of communication, such as paper and pencil.
  3. Speak loudly and in a higher pitch for easier understanding of words.
  4. Restate in exactly the same words if not understood the first time.
  5. Do not use facial and hand gestures that are distracting while talking.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Chapter 49

 

 

  1. A client is scheduled to undergo a prostate biopsy. When providing education concerning postoperative care related to the procedure, which of the following should be included?

 

  1. Avoid strenuous activity for 24 hours.
  2. There may be discomfort for 24–48 hours after the procedure.
  3. The client can immediately return to his preprocedure activity level.
  4. The names of sexual contacts must be collected.

 

 

 

 

  1. A male client reports to the clinic with an open area on his penis. Which of the following questions will be most important to include in the data collection?

 

  1. “Have you had sexual intercourse recently?”
  2. “Do you think you have a disease?”
  3. “Are you promiscuous?”
  4. “When did you initially notice this open area?”

 

 

  1. While providing care to the parents of a baby boy who has the chromosomal makeup of XXY, which of the following should be included in the teaching plan?

 

  1. The boy will have an enlarged penis and scrotum.
  2. The boy will be at increased risk for the development of testicular cancer.
  3. The child will be sterile.
  4. The child might have altered development of secondary sex characteristics.

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is obtaining a health history on a client complaining of recent-onset impotence. During the interview, which of the following questions will be most beneficial in identifying a potential cause of the manifestation?

 

  1. “Does this occur often?”
  2. “How does your partner feel about this problem?”
  3. “For what diseases and disorders have you been treated?
  4. “Are you on any medications?

 

 

 

  1. A female client has reported to the clinic for an initial gynecological examination. The client reports feeling nervous. When beginning the interview, which of the following questions would be most appropriate?

 

  1. “How many sexual partners have you had?”
  2. “Are you OK?”
  3. “How often are you intimate with your partner?”
  4. “What concerns do you have about today’s examination?”

 

 

 

  1. A client is approximately 4 weeks pregnant. The client reports noting a scant amount of vaginal bleeding. The examination reveals the cervix is closed. Based upon your knowledge, which of the following hormones do you anticipate will be lower than expected for the client?

 

  1. Progesterone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Prostaglandin
  4. Luteinizing hormone

 

 

 

  1. A client is scheduled for a mammogram. Which of the following might adversely impact the testing?

 

  1. The use of deodorant
  2. The use of facial makeup
  3. The administration of medications used to increase bleeding times
  4. Eating breakfast the morning of the test

 

 

 

  1. When providing education to a client concerning breast self-examinations, the client asks what days are best to perform the examination. What information should be included in the response given to the client?

 

  1. It does not matter what day the examination is performed.
  2. It is best to perform the examination on the first day of the menstrual period.
  3. It is best to perform the examination in the days just prior to the menstrual period.
  4. The examination is best performed after the menstrual period.

 

 

  1. When obtaining the health history of a 60-year-old female, the client reports noting small red lesions on her vulva. Based upon your knowledge, which of these diagnoses is most likely correct?

 

  1. Herpes simplex
  2. Primary syphilis
  3. Secondary syphilis
  4. Vulvar carcinoma

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is teaching a client how to perform a testicular self-examination. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. Any painful lump should be reported.
  2. Tenderness of the scrotal sac contents should be reported.
  3. Most men have one testicle that is significantly larger than the other.
  4. It is best to do the examination upon arising on the designated day.

 

CHAPTER 51

 

  1. A 41-year-old client has reported to the clinic with clinical manifestations consistent with menopause. The client states that her menstrual periods have become irregular, with the last period occurring approximately four months ago. What information should be provided to the client concerning the use of contraceptives?

 

  1. Contraceptives should continue to be utilized.
  2. Contraceptives are no longer needed.
  3. Contraceptives will only be needed in the months after menstruation is experienced.
  4. Contraceptive use will only be needed for another two months.

 

 

  1. The client who has been experiencing the clinical manifestations associated with menopause voices an interest in using alternative and complementary therapies to manage them. What initial response by the nurse is indicated?

 

  1. “Those seldom work.”
  2. “Many women report success with these measures.”
  3. “What types of therapies are of interest to you?”
  4. “Have you discussed this with the physician?

 

 

  1. During the teaching session for a client who recently had a hysterectomy, the client states that she is nervous about taking the estrogen replacement therapy prescribed by her physician. She states that she is worried about developing breast cancer later in life. Which of the statements by the nurses will be most appropriate?

 

  1. “The risk of breast cancer is somewhat increased for women with a family history who opt to take estrogen replacement therapy.”
  2. “The risk of breast cancer is not increased for women who have had a hysterectomy and take estrogen replacement medications.”
  3. “Perhaps you should consider an estrogen–progestin combination therapy.”
  4. “Taking estrogen replacement is not required after a hysterectomy.”

 

 

 

 

  1. A 30-year-old woman reports increasing difficulty during the days preceding the onset of her menstrual cycle. Which of the following might assist in the management of her condition? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Increase dietary sugar intake to promote energy.
  2. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.
  3. Reduce caffeine.
  4. Utilize guided imagery.

 

  1. A client who has been experiencing premenstrual syndrome reports to the clinic with a diet diary she has kept over the past several weeks. Which of the following findings should be reviewed with the client, with a recommendation made for dietary modification?

 

  1. Daily intake of caffeine-free soda
  2. Daily intake of low-fat yogurt
  3. Foods rich in magnesium
  4. Daily intake of white bread

 

 

  1. A woman is scheduled to undergo a laparoscopic procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further education?

 

  1. “I can expect to go home a few hours after the procedure.”
  2. “I might experience some abdominal pain after the procedure.”
  3. “There might be some vaginal bleeding after the procedure.”
  4. “Shoulder pain should be reported, as it might signal a complication.”

 

 

 

  1. A 13-year-old female reports to the school nurse with concerns about her menstrual cycle. The client states that she has not yet started her period, and asks if this is normal. Which of the following should be included in the nurse’s response?

 

  1. The client should be referred to a gynecologist for a pelvic examination.
  2. The client should have started her period by now.
  3. It is not abnormal for the client to have not yet started her period.
  4. The client should be tested for hormonal imbalances.

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is collecting data during a routine clinic visit. The client reports she has experienced bleeding between her menstrual periods. What initial action by the nurse is most appropriate?

 

  1. Determine the timing of the bleeding episodes.
  2. Determine the amount of the bleeding episodes.
  3. Assess for the presence of sexually transmitted infections.
  4. Review the length of the client’s normal menstrual cycles.

 

 

  1. A client has been experiencing anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding. The client is 25 years of age, and is concerned about maintaining her fertility. Based upon your knowledge, which management technique likely would be employed first?

 

  1. Oral contraceptives
  2. Progestin therapy
  3. Therapeutic D and C
  4. Endometrial ablation

 

 

  1. A client is preparing to be discharged to home after a hysterectomy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the teaching session has been successful?

 

  1. “I will need to report temperature greater than 101 degrees.”
  2. “I might experience vaginal bleeding for about one week.”
  3. “I will need to report any hot flashes, as they indicate my hormone replacement therapy is not effective.”
  4. “I will still need to see my physician for gynecological examinations.”

 

 

 

Chapter 52

 

 

  1. A client recently diagnosed with herpes simplex II asks how to best manage the lesions. What information should be given to the client?

 

  1. The use of soap should be restricted.
  2. It is safe to use a solution of 50% rubbing alcohol and 50% water to clean the lesions.
  3. Wearing nylon panties will reduce discomfort.
  4. Gentle soap and water can be used to clean the lesions.

 

 

 

  1. A client recently treated for pelvic inflammatory disease asks how she can best prevent a recurrence of the disease. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. The physician will prescribe prophylactic antibiotic therapy.
  2. The use of condoms will be beneficial.
  3. Annual gynecological examinations should be scheduled.
  4. Douching after intercourse will assist in removing potential pathogens from the genital area.

 

 

  1. A client treated for pelvic inflammatory disease is preparing for discharge. During the teaching session, the use of tampons is discussed. Which of the following statements by the client indicate the understanding of the content provided? Select all that apply.

 

  1. “I will be able to wear tampons.”
  2. “The use of tampons is forever prohibited.”
  3. “Tampons must be changed at least every four hours.”
  4. “I should wear pads at night.”

 

 

  1. A pregnant client reports to the clinic and learns she has tested positive for herpes simplex. The nurse develops a plan of care. Which of the following nursing diagnoses has the highest priority?

 

  1. Injury, Risk for related to the disease process
  2. Knowledge, Deficient related to the diagnosis
  3. Anxiety related the diagnosis
  4. Family Processes, Interrupted related to the effects of the diagnosis on her relationship with her partner

 

 

 

  1. A client has been diagnosed with latent syphilis. During the counseling session, the client asks about transmitting the disease to his spouse. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. “You will need to abstain from sexual relations until treatment is completed.”
  2. “You will need to wear a condom.”
  3. “At this late stage, the disease is contained to only you.”
  4. “At this stage of the disease, transmission is by contact with blood.”

 

 

 

  1. During a gynecological examination and testing, a female client is diagnosed with a Chlamydial infection. The client denies any symptoms of the disease, and asks when she contracted the disease. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. The client has most likely had the infection for about 1–3 weeks.
  2. The infection has been in her body for less than 1 month, since no symptoms are present.
  3. The infection might have been in her body for an indefinite period of time.
  4. Symptoms typically begin a few months after the infection enters the body.

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is planning to teach a course about sexually transmitted infections. What information concerning genital warts should be included?

 

  1. Handwashing will aid in the reducing the spread of genital warts.
  2. Genital warts will result in cervical cancer for the majority of women who get them.
  3. Women who have certain types of genital warts should be vaccinated against other types.
  4. The risk for the development of penile cancer is high in men diagnosed with genital warts.

 

 

  1. A client asks which method of contraception will provide the greatest protection against sexually transmitted infections. What method can the nurse recommend?

 

  1. Oral contraceptives
  2. Male condoms
  3. Sponges
  4. Spermicides

 

 

  1. A client reports to the clinic with a painless, ulcerated area on her labia. Based upon your knowledge, what diagnosis do you anticipate?

 

  1. Herpes simplex II
  2. Syphilis
  3. Condylomata acuminata
  4. Gonorrhea

 

 

 

  1. A client with herpes simplex II is concerned about sexual relations. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. The infection can be transmitted only when the lesions present.
  2. The infection can be prevented with condom use.
  3. Sexual relations must be avoided during the prodromal period and for at least 10 days after the lesions are healed.
  4. Sexual activity is permissible once the lesions have dried out.

 

 

 

Question 11:     Literary Studies

 

Choose ONE of the following paired images and poems from the “Poetry and the Visual Arts” section of the textbook (NOTE: This is the section with the thicker, glossy pages in the center of the textbook; the pages have letters rather than numbers) Choice #1: American Gothic – Analyze the painting by Grant Wood and the poem by John Stone. In what sense can Stone’s poem be regarded as an analysis of the painting? Does Stone see Grant’s depiction of the two figures as a satire or a celebration? What symbolic elements are found in the painting? Choice #2: Girl Powdering Her Neck – Analyze the woodblock print by Kitagawa Utamaro and the poem by Cathy Song. What does Song’s poem add to the visual information provided in Utamaro’s woodcut? What is the relationship of the final three lines to the rest of the poem and what effect does it have on the reader? Choice #3: Vietnam Veterans Memorial Wall – Analyze the photograph of the memorial from the Library of Congress and the poem “Facing It” by Yusef Komunyakaa. What is the significance of the poem’s title and how are the speaker’s war experiences reflected in the war memorial? Does the speaker’s response to the memorial indicate that the conception and composition of the memorial were successful or unsuccessful as a public memorial? Remember you must: Adhere to MLA format The Bedford Handbook provides a guide (MLA Chapters 48 to 51) Paper should range between 1,300 and 1,500 words Upload your assignment to Turnitin

 

 

 

 Question 12:    General Question

 

5-page research essay in MLA format answering the question “Is the United States on the same trajectory as Italy in the spread of the coronavirus?” must have 3 sources minimum and a work cited page

 

Question 13:     Health Care

 

Development is best explained by a model that
a. concentrates on one aspect of development
b. uses behavior as its focus
c. includes biological, psychological, and social influences
d. restricts itself to the observable

 

Humans have a remarkable potential for change, but resiliency has
a. limitations
b. defined markers
c. unlimited capacity
d. known characteristics

 

A 10-year-old girl peeks in her older sister’s diary, but later feels guilty. She tells herself, “I shouldn’t have done that. It wasn’t right.” According to Freud, which moral component of the personality is responsible for her feelings about her behavior?
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Preconscious

 

What is Freud’s “pleasure principle”?
a. the notion that unconscious forces govern our behavior is the pleasure principle
b. childhood pleasures have a strong influence on adult personality
c. individuals act to gratify instinctual desires and to avoid pain
d. personality is shaped by how individuals indulge their sexual urges

 

Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development is based on
a. the notion that the personality develops early in childhood
b. the premise that humans interact with an ever-widening circle of people
c. the need to avoid developmental crises
d. the idea that early social experiences determine later ones

 

Which of the following crises in the life cycle is the cornerstone of Erikson’s theory?
a. Trust versus mistrust
b. autonomy versus shame and doubt
c. initiative versus guilt
d. identity formation versus identity diffusion

 

Which of the following statements refers to Piaget’s universalist constructivist theory?
a. humans passively assimilate their understanding of the world
b. humans construct reality through their understanding of the world
c. humans have inborn schemata that help them understand the world
d. humans construct reality by being acted on by the environment

 

What is Piaget’s definition of adaptation?
a. intelligence
b. assimilation and accommodation
c. ability to effectively negotiate environmental demands
d. all of the above

 

In his explanation of cognitive development, Vygotsky stressed
a. assimilation
b. social interactions
c. reinforcement
d. schema

 

Vygotsky believed language gradually becomes ___ and directs behavior
a. structured
b. pragmatic
c. internalized
d. reinforced

 

In Brofenbrenner’s model of human ecology, the school, the neighborhood, and peer group belong in which system?
a. microsystem
b. mesosystem
c. exosystem
d. macrosystem

 

The American cultural value placed on the primacy of the biological family is an example of a(n)
a. microsystem
b. mesosystem
c. exosystem
d. macrosystem

 

Maslow believed that our needs are best seen as a(n)
a. ellipse
b. hierarchy
c. interlocking circle
d. polygon

 

Using our abilities to the limits of our potential refers to
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. conditioning
d. self-actualization

 

The environment responds to human behavior and either reinforces it or eliminates it. This theory is known as
a. operant conditioning
b. classical conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. connectionism

 

The importance of modeling is emphasized in
a. operant conditioning
b. classical conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. connectionism

 

It is important to remember that different is not
a. unique
b. deficient
c. appreciated
d. diffuse

 

___ is a belief that interactions among all aspects of development require analysis
a. Piagetian psychology
b. operant conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. developmental contextualism

 

Which of the following is an example of between-group differences in gender research on language development?
a. Girls develop language more rapidly than boys.
b. Girls do better than boys on subtests of anagrams, synonyms, speech production, and word knowledge.
c. Although dyslexia is more common in boys, some girls develop dyslexia
d. Gender accounts for 1% of the variability in language development

 

Research on aggression supports which of the following statements?
a. Boys are more hostile than girls.
b. For men, physical aggression is about inflicting harm.
c. For women, physical aggression is about defending their social status
d. physical aggression is related to perceptions of social power.

 

Which of the following is not associated with homelessness?
a. hunger and poor nutrition
b. developmental delays
c. health problems
d. lowered intelligence

 

A major characteristic of successful schools in poor economic locations is
a. an emphasis on academic achievement
b. classroom television
c. building conditions
d. proximity to the center of the city

 

What are genes?
a. Long strands of DNA
b. the sequences in which nucleotide bases are arranged
c. multiple combinations of nucleotide bases
d. the functional units of DNA

 

Skin cells contain
a. 46 chromosomes
b. 23 chromosomes
c. 46 autosomes
d. 23 sex chromosomes

 

which process is responsible for the genetic variability among human organisms?
a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. fertilization
d. capacitation

 

Where does fertilization occur in the female?
a. uterus
b. vagina
c. fallopian tubes
d. ovaries

 

the critical period of organogenesis occurs doing
a. the embryonic period
b. the germinal period
c. the fetal period
d. at the time of conception

 

Research suggests that insufficient folic acid in the mother’s diet may contribute to the failure of the neural tube to close, resulting in spina bifida. At which point in prenatal development does the neural tube close?
a. fourth week
b. eighth week
c. fourth month
d. sixth month

 

the causes of infertility are:
a. unknown
b. male
c. female
d. male or female

 

estimates are that one in every __ American couples are infertile
a. two or three
b. three or four
c. five or six
d. seven or eight

 

a major concern for sperm banks is control of
a. disease
b. donor availability
c. confidential information
d. technological innovation

 

for all assisted reproductive technologies ____ is critical
a. location
b. climate
c. timing
d. contingency

 

genes make up ___% of DNA
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

 

the human genome project is an attempt to map
a. all human genes
b. cellular materials
c. nucleotides
d. cell divisions

 

an example of a single-gene genetic disorder is
a. down syndrome
b. turner syndrome
c. klinefelter syndrome
d. sickle-cell anemia

 

an example of a chromosomal disorder is
a. spina bifida
b. chronic disease syndrome
c. phenylketonuria
d. turner syndrome

 

how is prematurity defined?
a. infants are premature if born before 37 weeks, regardless of weight
b. infants are premature if they weigh less than 2500 g at birth, regardless of age
c. infants are premature if they weigh less than 1500 g and are born before 37 weeks
d. prematurity is based on the relationship between weight and gestational age

 

the organ system that is most critical to the premature infant’s outcome is
a. the heart
b. the lungs
c. the brain
d. the nervous system

 

Which characteristic makes regular use of alcohol during pregnancy a teratogen?
a. alcohol interferes with fetal cell division and growth throughout pregnancy
b. alcohol alters the development of the fetus’s central nervous system during the last trimester
c. women who abuse alcohol are less likely to be well nourished
d. all of the above are correct

 

what is the best-known cause of deafness in newborns?
a. cocaine use by the mother during pregnancy
b. mother’s contraction of rubella during the first trimester
c. mother’s exposure to radiation during the last trimester
d. mother’s exposure to cytomegalovirus (CMV)

 

when a natural mother retains input into the adoption process, it is called ___ adoption
a. selected
b. congruent
c. accommodated
d. open

 

Couples considering adoption should think carefully about the ___ of the child
a. weight
b. age
c. size
d. cognition

 

At what point after birth do typical infants double their birth weight?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months

 

you notice that a new mother feeds her baby boy by propping a bottle on a pillow next to him. why do you want to discourage this practice?
a. the baby will have difficulty regulating the flow of formula
b. the baby is not learning how to organize his behavior
c. the mother and the baby are not learning to read each other’s signals
d. all of the above are correct

 

you observe a baby lying on her abdomen, raising her head, shoulders, and upper abdomen while supporting herself with her forearms. about how old is this baby?
a. 6 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 3 months
d. 6 months

 

a new mother who is breastfeeding her baby asks you if her baby can see her. what is your answer?
a. no. babies cannot see clearly until they are about 6 weeks old
b. yes. babies have 20/20 vision at birth
c. no. visual acuity is about 20/100 at birth
d. yes. objects that are within close range, especially your face, are perfectly clear

 

apgar scores are recorded at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. what do they measure?
a. heart rate, respiratory effect, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and skin color
b. first and second periods of reactivity
c. behavioral states: sleeping, waking, and crying
d. gestational maturity, such as flexion of extremities, quality of skin, and development of eyes, ears, and genitals.

 

which of the following is an example of contingency seeking in newborns?
a. infants learn to adjust their rate of sucking by using the mother’s voice as a reward.
b. infants prefer complex patterns of black and white
c. newborns discriminate their mother’s voice from the voices of other women
d. infants turn their head to search for a sound

 

the final area of the brain to develop is the
a. occipital lobe
b. association area
c. sensory area
d. auditory area

 

nervous system development commences in a process called
a. neural induction
b. tubular processes
c. neural migration
d. neuronal balance

 

Human infants exhibit reflexes because
a. their nervous systems are not fully mature
b. some infant reflexes are building blocks for voluntary motor behavior
c. some reflexes are designed to protect them from potential harm
d. of all of the above

 

to elicit the babinski reflex, you stroke the sole of a baby’s foot, beginning at the heel and moving towards the toes. the toes flex, as if they are going to grab your finger. is this normal?
a. no. if the baby is younger than 1 year, the toes should fan out and extend
b. yes, if the baby is older than 1 year, the toes will flex.
c. both a and b are true
d. neither a nor b is true

 

According to piaget, what are the four accomplishments of the sensorimotor period?
a. rolling over, sitting up, crawling, and walking.
b. time, spatial relationships, cause and effect, and object permanence
c. visual acuity, binocular vision, depth perception, and spatial relationships
d. primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of secondary circular reactions, and tertiary circular reactions

 

you are watching a baby who is sitting up in her mother’s lap. the baby is playing with a box of animal crackers, by shaking it, hitting it on the arm of the chair, and patting the lid with her hand. what age range and what substage of piaget’s sensorimotor period is this baby in?
a. age 1-4 months, primary circular reactions
b. age 4-8 months, secondary circular reactions
c. age 8-12 months, coordination of secondary circular reactions
d. age 18-24 months, beginning of representational thought

 

When parents feel that other adults, including their own parents, are looking over their shoulder and telling them how to bring up their child, this phenomenon is called
a. ghosts in the nursery
b. generational interest
c. parental transference
d. social sharing

 

most children begin to speak their first words at an age of approximately
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months

 

which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. children instantly tune into their environment
b. children give clues to their personalities
c. children, from birth, engage in reciprocal interactions
d. all children are temperamentally similar at birth

 

Role refers to ___ about behavior
a. observations
b. insights
c. expectations
d. comments

 

The special bonding between an infant and usually the mother is called
a. detachment
b. attachment
c. relating
d. symmetry

 

 

The person most associated with the attachment movement is
a. sigmund freud
b. b. f. skinner
c. jean piaget
d. john bowlby

 

the three components of an emotion are feelings, internal changes, and
a. behavior
b. continuity
c. congruence
d. assimilation

 

The true social smile appears at an age of approximately
a. 4 weeks
b. 6 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 10 weeks

 

You are going down the stairs behind a little boy who is placing both feet on each step as he goes while holding the railing. about how old is he?
a. 3 years old
b. 4 years old
c. 5 years old
d. 6 years old

 

Which skill that is essential for reading readiness develops between ages 3 and 6?
a. using hands as tools
b. copying and tracing figures
c. visuomotor scanning
d. recognizing the letters of the alphabet

 

You are pouring juice for a 4-year-old and 10-year-old into two different glasses: one short and wide, the other tall and narrow. the 4-year-old insists on having the tall narrow glass despite assurances from the 10 year old that the two glasses have the same amount of juice. which term is used to describe the 4 year olds understanding of this situation?
a. centration
b. appearance reality
c. cause by association
d. difficulty with conversation

 

Which of the following is an example of a child’s difficulty with conversation during the preschool period?
a. thinks a ball of clay gets bigger when it is rolled into a snake
b. given two rows of m&ms with 10 candles in each row, will say the row more spread out has more
c. says the glass with the most juice is the taller one, even if the child just saw the juice poured from a shorter but wider glass
d. all of the above

 

montessori’s ideas concerning __ periods are important in planning preschool programs
a. lengthy
b. class
c. sensitive
d. daily

 

preschool educators are alert to match materials and methods to appropriate ages because of the theory put forth by
a. piaget
b. freud
c. skinner
d. pavlov

 

the rules of ___ describe how to put words together to form sentences
a. phonology
b. semantics
c. grammar
d. pragmatics

 

“daddy camed home” is an example of
a. overextension
b. mispronunciation
c. overregulation
d. delayed language

 

Parents who value compliance with their authority and set nonnegotiable standards for their children’s behavior are examples of ___ parenting, according to Baumrind
a. authoritative
b. authoritarian
c. permissive
d. neglectful

 

Which of the following factors contribute to how parents parent?
a. childhood experiences of parents
b. personality characteristics of children being parented
c. working environment of parents, especially fathers
d. all of the above

 

which of the following conditions is not necessarily associated with homelessness?
a. health problems
b. hunger
c. poor nutrition
d. low intelligence

 

Recent additions to the number of homeless are
a. mothers and young children
b. single fathers
c. individuals with alcohol problems
d. individuals with drug problems

 

One of the major adjustments a child may experience following the divorce of parents is to
a. siblings
b. transitions
c. relatives
d. synchronicity

 

Even after their divorced parents remarry, some children still believe their natural parents will reunite. this belief is called
a. hopeful planning
b. wishful thinking
c. reconciliation fantasies
d. psychic cognition

 

Erikson called it the period of initiative versus guilt; that is, children recognize that they make choices and are responsible for their behavior. plato referred to it as “a constitutional government within them.” freud thought that the superego, as “a garrison in the conquered city of the id,” is similar. to which developmental task of the preschool years are they referring?
a. agency
b. sense of self
c. mastery of aggression
d. self-control

 

Which of the following is an example of a 4 year old’s concept of self?
a. i am a better swimmer than my brother
b. people like me because i play fair
c. i like to swim
d. i am better at drawing than at coloring

 

By what age do children typically develop gender identity?
a. 18 months
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

 

preschoolers tend to engage in sex-typed behaviors, such as boys playing with trucks and girls playing with dolls, how do developmentalists explain this phenomenon?
a. males and females have inborn sex-typed tendencies
b. preschoolers are rewarded for exhibiting sex-typed behaviors
c. girls are more rigidly socialized to exhibit certain behaviors than are boys
d. preschoolers are developing concepts of gender constancy and role

 

The most common type of play during early childhood is ___ play
a. physical
b. unrestricted
c. social
d. pretend

 

Children play for fun, learning, and
a. emotional release
b. cognitive dissonance
c. physical alignment
d. social graces

 

by what age can children typically ride a two wheeled bicycle?
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 9 years
d. 11 years

  1. 7 years

 

Malnourished children in the united states tend to be obese, not thin, because
a. they consume a lot of junk food
b. they watch too much television
c. they eat too many packaged foods
d. all of the above

 

What did Piaget mean by concrete operations?
a. children’s thinking is perceptually bound
b. causal reasoning is based on association
c. children’s thinking is very matter of fact
d. children can do mentally what had to be done physically before.

 

Boys of about ages 9 to 10 love to collect and sort baseball cards. which characteristic of concrete thought contributes to this activity?
a. hierarchical classification skills
b. matrix classification skills
c. abstract thinking
d. set identity

 

sternberg’s theory is based on
a. context
b. gender
c. age
d. biology

Gardner’s theory of intelligence includes __ types of equal intelligence
a. two
b. four
c. six
d. eight

 

a well-known model of problem solving is
a. HOME
b. DUPE
c. NATO
d. SAC

 

Everyone should attempt to internally represent solutions to problems
a. true
b. false
c. uncertain

 

kohlberg used a method called
a. cognitive structuring
b. contextual determinism
c. moral dilemmas
d. contingencies of reinforcement

 

Gilligan believed that kohlberg’s work was too ___ oriented
a. age
b. culture
c. neutral
d. male

 

LEP refers to those students whose primary language is not
a. English
b. Spanish
c. French
d. Vietnamese

 

To work with LEP students, many school systems are trying to decide between ESL programs and
a. separate systems
b. bilingual education
c. native-born instructors
d. curricular insertion

 

by about what age do children develop reciprocity in their friendships?
a. 6 years
b. 8 years
c. 10 years
d. 12 years

 

Which of the following statements best describes children’s games during middle childhood?
a. children are inflexible about the rules of competition
b. rules help keep aggression in check
c. competition can foster social, mental, and physical development
d. all of the above are correct

 

Good schools are characterized by their emphasis on
a. building conditions
b. recreational facilities
c. amount of materials
d. academic success

  1. academic success

 

The author of an influential study of school effectiveness was
a. rutter
b. piaget
c. brunner
d. skinner

 

Creativity is also known as
a. critical thinking
b. convergent thinking
c. divergent thinking
d. vertical thinking

 

Among the characteristics of creativity are visualization, thinking processes, and
a. knowledge
b. contingency
c. laterality
d. symmetry

 

What is the sensitive period of the development of language?
a. up to 2 years old
b. up to 4 years old
c. up to 6 years old
 

Which triad of factors contributes to resilience in children at risk?
a. family discord, low socioeconomic status, poor school environment
b. cohesive family, easy-going personality, competent adults in community
c. mothers who work, absent fathers, good social skills
d. being in foster care, concerned case worker, visits with mother.

 

Developmental disabilities represent alterations in the typical developmental sequence of which three areas?
a. fine motor, gross motor, intelligence
b. problem solving, language, motor coordination
c. motor; cognitive, neurobehavior
d. neurobehavior, intelligence, gross motor

 

Which of the following characteristics describes children who are gifted?
a. above average IQ
b. high levels of creativity
c. high levels of commitment to task
d. all of the above

 

 

Question 14:     Nursing

 

Nursing/Community Health: Questions and Answers

Questions and Answers

  1. A nurse conducting a community health education program stresses that Lyme disease is caused by a _____________.
  2. Spirochete
  3. Virus
  4. Parasite
  5. Helminth

 

  1. When conducting a community education program related to Lyme disease, the nurse stresses that if left untreated, Lyme disease result in which of the following?
  2. Respiratory failure
  3. Acute renal failure
  4. Cardiac dysrhythmias
  5. Permanent skin lesions

 

  1. Maria brought her 10-year-old child to the clinic. She was concerned that the child could develop Lyme disease because a deer tick was found on the child. The nurse tells Maria that infection with Lyme disease is likely if the deer tick
  2. Was large
  3. Was attached to the child’s skin for at least 24 hours
  4. Caused bleeding
  5. Remained attached for at least 1 hour

 

  1. Systemic lupus erythematosus is
  2. An acute autoimmune disease
  3. The result of hyperactivity of killer T cells
  4. A chronic multisystem inflammatory disease
  5. More common in men aged 20 to 30 than in women in that age group

 

  1. The nurse conducting a health education program as part of a PTA meeting stresses that gastrointestinal infections are more likely to occur in people who
  2. Smoke
  3. Are lactose intolerant
  4. Take antacids
  5. Eat a spicy diet

 

  1. During an orientation session for new hires, the nurse educator stresses that some pathogens can survive on bed rails and tables for
  2. 30 minutes to an hour
  3. Weeks
  4. 5-20 minutes
  5. 2-3 months

 

  1. Which of the following statements about a fever is correct?
  2. A fever is generally harmful.
  3. Oral prednisone masks a fever.
  4. A fever suppresses the action of macrophages.
  5. A rectal fever of 99.6 °F in children indicates serious infection.

 

  1. During an in-service in a long-term care facility, the nurse educator stresses that in the elderly (select all that apply)
  2. Infection usually produces a fever above 101°F.
  3. Changes in mental status may indicate an infection.
  4. Fatigue is a possible sign of infection.
  5. A fever 2 degrees above baseline requires immediate attention.

 

  1. What is the most accurate test to detect HIV infection currently on the market?
  2. ELISA
  3. OraSure
  4. Western blot
  5. B-cell analysis

 

  1. Which of the following statements about HIV is true?
  2. HIV infects CD8 T cells.
  3. HIV uses reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA to DNA.
  4. HIV infections can be completely eradicated by the use of antivirals.
  5. HIV infection initially causes pronounced signs and symptoms.

 

  1. The role of histamine in the inflammatory process includes
  2. Initiating vasoconstriction to limit bleeding
  3. Coating pathogens for easier phagocytosis
  4. Promoting hyperthermia
  5. Increasing capillary permeability

 

  1. Which of the following statements about chronic inflammation is true?
  2. Chronic inflammation lasts 5 to 7 days.
  3. Chronic inflammation results in granuloma formation.
  4. Chronic inflammation results from viral infections.
  5. Chronic inflammation produces copious amounts of serous exudate.

 

  1. Granulocytes
  2. Produce antibodies
  3. Include killer T cells
  4. Contain enzymes capable of killing bacteria
  5. Arrive at the site of cell injury in approximately 24 hours

 

  1. Macrophages
  2. Are involved in debris cleanup at the inflammatory site
  3. Are responsible for producing allergic reactions
  4. Live approximately 120 days
  5. Are immature monocytes

 

  1. Which of the following statements about B cells is correct?
  2. B cells provide cell-mediated immunity.
  3. B cells produce antibodies.
  4. B cells release histamine.
  5. B cells live approximately 3 months.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about suppressor T cells is true?
  2. Suppressor T cells turn off antibody production.
  3. Suppressor T cells mature in the bone marrow.
  4. Suppressor T cells are the most numerous type of T cell.
  5. Suppressor T cells release lymphokines that destroy pathogen cell walls.

 

  1. The antibody classified as IgE is responsible for
  2. Passive immunity
  3. Protecting the lungs from infection
  4. Activating complement
  5. Allergic reactions

 

  1. Research has indicated that chemokine receptors (CCR5 and CXCR4)
  2. Are found on human immunodeficiency virus particles
  3. Allow the human immunodeficiency virus to enter CD4 cells
  4. Protect HIV-positive individuals from developing opportunistic infections
  5. Are responsible for neoplasm development

 

  1. The complement system
  2. Causes the release of histamine from mast cells
  3. Causes clot formation at the site of cell injury
  4. Is another name for T cells
  5. Includes bradykinin

 

Question 15:              Health Care

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

BASIC CONCEPTS

 

  1. What does the term “host” mean?

a.

The person infected by a virus.

b.

The type of virus known as a retrovirus.

c.

The type of virus known as a common virus.

d.

The type of infection that occurs only in immunosuppressed people.

 

 

 

  1. Why do most people become ill with a specific viral infection only once?

a.

Once a virus is killed by the body, it is gone from the earth forever.

b.

During a viral infection, the body changes the virus to be less virulent.

c.

Antiviral drugs change the viral DNA so it cannot infect the same person again.

d.

During a specific viral infection, the person’s immune system improves protection against that virus.

 

 

  1. Which statement about antiviral drugs is true?

a.

They are all most effective at killing viruses.

b.

They are all effective against any type of infection.

c.

They all work by slowing the replication of viruses.

d.

They are all only effective in people with strong immune systems.

 

 

 

  1. Which antiviral drug is only given by oral inhalation?

a.

Cyclovir (Zovirax)

b.

Zanamivir (Relenza)

c.

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

d.

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

 

 

 

  1. Which specific virus causes mononucleosis?

a.

Cytomegalovirus

b.

Hantavirus

c.

Epstein-Barr virus

d.

West Nile virus

 

 

 

  1. Which antiviral drug is most likely to have more severe central nervous system side effects, including worsening of glaucoma?

a.

Acyclovir

b.

Amantadine

c.

Valacyclovir

d.

Zanamavir

 

 

 

  1. Which antiviral drug is highly likely to cause birth defects when taken by a pregnant woman?

a.

Acyclovir

b.

Zanamivir

c.

Rimantadine

d.

Ribavirin

 

 

 

  1. What is the major difference between retroviruses and common viruses?

a.

Retroviruses cannot be killed by antiviral therapy, but common viruses can.

b.

A retrovirus usually can cause disease over and over again in the same person.

c.

A retrovirus carries the enzyme reverse transcriptase, and common viruses do not.

d.

Retroviruses will respond to antibacterial drugs as well as to all the antiviral drugs.

 

 

  1. Which class of antiretroviral drugs works by preventing new viral particles from leaving the infected cell?

a.

Entry inhibitors

b.

Fusion inhibitors

c.

Protease inhibitors

d.

Reverse-transcriptase inhibitors

 

 

 

  1. Which problem is a sign or symptom of an allergic or anaphylactic response to an antiviral drug?

a.

Nausea

b.

Vivid dreams

c.

Intolerance to fatty foods

d.

Swelling of the face or throat

 

 

 

  1. Which drug can only be given by subcutaneous injection?

a.

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

b.

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

c.

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

d.

Darunavir (Prezista)

 

 

 

  1. Which drug does not work on all strains of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and therefore the patient must be tested before using the drug to make sure it will work?

a.

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

b.

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

c.

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

d.

Raltegravis (Issentra)

 

 

 

  1. Which drug increases the risk for muscle weakness in older patients who are also taking a “statin” type of lipid-lowering drug?

a.

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

b.

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

c.

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

d.

Raltegravis (Issentra)

 

 

 

  1. What is the purpose of antiviral drug therapy?

a.

To make the patient immune to infection by viruses.

b.

To reduce infection by killing the virus causing disease.

c.

To reduce illness duration by controlling viral reproduction.

d.

To prevent opportunistic infections in immunosuppressed patients.

 

 

  1. Which statement about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is true?

a.

Everyone with AIDS has HIV infection but not everyone with HIV infection has AIDS.

b.

Everyone with HIV infection eventually dies of it because the disease cannot be cured.

c.

With successful antiretroviral therapy, HIV-infected patients become HIV-antibody negative.

d.

When HIV disease becomes AIDS, the infection is in the blood and treatment must be given intravenously.

 

 

 

  1. Which antiretroviral drug is now prescribed for preexposure prophylaxis to prevent human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection?

a.

Acyclovir

b.

Edurant

c.

Crixivan

d.

Truvada

 

 

 

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

 

  1. How are viral infections different from bacterial infections?

a.

Bacterial infections can be spread from one person to another, whereas viral infections cannot be spread directly.

b.

Bacterial infections can be cured by treatment with some anti-infective drugs, whereas viral infections are not cured by anti-infective therapy.

c.

Viruses only cause disease in a person who is immunocompromised, whereas bacteria can cause disease even among immunocompetent people.

d.

Viruses are the less mature form of a bacterium, so there is essentially no difference between viral infections and bacterial infections.

 

 

 

  1. What is the most important precaution to teach a patient who is prescribed any antiviral drug?

a.

“Take the drug exactly as prescribed and for as long as prescribed.”

b.

“Never take any antibacterial drugs while you are on antiviral therapy.”

c.

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily for the entire time you are taking this drug.”

d.

“Avoid unnecessary exposure to this drug by stopping it when you have no symptoms for 24 hours.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed intravenous (IV) acyclovir (Zovirax). Which question is most important to ask before giving the first dose of this drug?

a.

“Do you have a hearing problem or any trouble with your ears?”

b.

“Do you take medications for seizures?”

c.

“Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?”

d.

“Have you ever had asthma?”

 

 

 

  1. What is the most important precaution to teach a patient who is prescribed oral valacyclovir (Valtrex)?

a.

“Avoid coffee and other caffeinated beverages.”

b.

“Wear long sleeves and a hat when going outdoors.”

c.

“Take this drug 1 hour before or 4 hours after eating a full meal.”

d.

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily for the entire time you are taking this drug.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient who has been prescribed amantadine (Symmetrel) has all of the following health problems. For which problem should you contact the prescriber before giving the first dose?

a.

Asthma

b.

Influenza

c.

Glaucoma

d.

Diabetes mellitus

 

 

 

  1. A 2-year-old patient with respiratory syncytial virus is prescribed aerosolized ribavirin (Virazole). Which visitor should you ensure is not in the patient’s room during the aerosol treatments?

a.

16-year-old brother

b.

81-year-old grandmother

c.

32-year-old pregnant mother

d.

36-year-old father who has diabetes

 

 

 

  1. A patient who is taking interferon is also prescribed ribavirin (Virazole). Which laboratory blood test result for this patient do you report immediately to the prescriber?

a.

Red blood cells (RBCs) 2.2 million/mm3

b.

White blood cells (WBCs) 6000/mm3

c.

Sodium 134 mEq/L

d.

International normalized ratio (INR) 1.6

 

 

 

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  1. Which precaution about zanamivir (Relenza) therapy do you teach a patient who also uses a bronchodilator for asthma control?

a.

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily while using this drug.”

b.

“Use the bronchodilator 15 minutes before taking the zanamivir.”

c.

“Avoid taking the zanamivir within 2 hours of using the bronchodilator.”

d.

“Take your pulse daily while on this drug because when taken with a bronchodilator heart rhythm problems are common.”

 

 

 

  1. For what reason does adefovir dipivoxil have a black box warning?

a.

It induces type 2 diabetes mellitus.

b.

It increases the severity of hepatitis B symptoms.

c.

It is highly toxic to both the liver and the kidneys.

d.

It has a high likelihood of increasing the risk for birth defects and fetal damage.

 

 

 

  1. Which common side effects should you watch for when a patient is taking adefovir dipivoxil?

a.

Numbness and tingling in extremities

b.

Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain

c.

Dizziness and light-headedness

d.

Increased confusion

 

 

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Understanding        REF:    p. 142

 

  1. What specific precaution would you teach the family of a patient prescribed amantadine?

a.

“Be sure that the patient performs mouth care four to six times daily.”

b.

“Remind the patient that monthly follow-up lab tests will be needed.”

c.

“Contact the prescriber immediately for any worsening of depression or thoughts of suicide.”

d.

“Ensure that the patient takes in at least 1000 mL more fluids that he or she puts out.”

 

 

 

  1. How are retroviruses different from common viruses?

a.

Retroviruses respond to antibacterial drugs but common viruses do not.

b.

Retroviruses have a greater efficiency of infection than common viruses.

c.

Common viral infections can be cured while retroviral infections can only be controlled.

d.

Common viruses can infect anyone whereas retroviruses can only cause infection in an immunosuppressed host.

 

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed to begin highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). What is the most important question to ask this patient before beginning therapy?

a.

“Do you have any symptoms now of active infection?”

b.

“Is there any possibility that you are pregnant?”

c.

“Are you currently sexually active?”

d.

“What other drugs do you take?”

 

 

 

  1. A patient taking highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for a year has the following blood laboratory test values. Which value do you report to the prescriber immediately?

a.

White blood cell count 3500 cells/mm3

b.

Lactate dehydrogenase 990 IU/L

c.

Sodium 132 mEq/L

d.

Hematocrit 32%

 

 

 

  1. A patient has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease and is taking a “cocktail” consisting of protease inhibitors, nucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitors, and nonnucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitors. Which statement made by the patient indicates that more teaching about the drug therapy is needed?

a.

“Using three drugs at the same time enhances suppression of viral replication.”

b.

“There is no problem using these drugs during the last trimester of my pregnancy.”

c.

“Because this drug combination kills HIV, I do not need to worry about transmitting the virus.”

d.

“If the virus becomes resistant to this cocktail, another combination of drugs may be required to reduce my viral load.”

 

 

 

  1. Which test results indicate that a patient’s antiretroviral therapy is effective?

a.

White blood cell count 5000 cells/mm3

b.

Blood urea nitrogen level 15 mg/dL

c.

Blood positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies

d.

CD4+ to CD8+ ratio increased

 

 

  1. A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patient taking highly active antiretroviral therapy informs you that she is now pregnant. What advice regarding drug therapy do you give this patient?

a.

“Stop taking these drugs for your entire pregnancy.”

b.

“Stop taking these drugs for the first trimester and start again for the second and third trimesters.”

c.

“Continue to take these drugs throughout your pregnancy exactly as they have been prescribed.”

d.

“It will be necessary to double your dosages of these drugs to ensure your unborn baby is adequately protected.”

 

 

 

  1. What is the most important question to ask before giving the first dose of darunavir to a patient newly prescribed this drug?

a.

“Do you have a hearing problem or any trouble with your ears?”

b.

“Do you take medications for seizures?”

c.

“Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?”

d.

“Have you ever had asthma?”

 

 

 

  1. A child is prescribed emtricitabine (Emtriva) 120 mg orally. The drug on hand is emtricitabine suspension 10 mg/mL. How many milliliters do you prepare for a correct dose?

a.

2

b.

6

c.

12

d.

20

 

 

  1. A patient who is taking zidovudine (Retrovir) reports diarrhea. Which dietary change should you suggest for this patient?

a.

“Avoid fatty and fried foods.”

b.

“Increase your intake of fiber.”

c.

“Take an antacid 30 minutes before each meal.”

d.

“Restrict your intake of fluids to 1 L/day.”

 

 

  1. A patient who has been taking lamivudine (Epivir) for 6 months reports reduced sensation in the fingers and toes. What is your best action?

a.

Document the report as the only action.

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Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.

c.

Remind the patient to continue the drug as usual and take a multiple vitamin daily.

d.

Reassure the patient that this is an expected drug side effect and to use injury precautions.

 

 

 

  1. Which health problem must you be specifically alert for in pregnant women who are prescribed any nucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)?

a.

Headache

b.

Lactic acidosis

c.

Diabetes mellitus

d.

Nausea/vomiting

 

 

 

  1. A patient who has been taking efavirenz (Sustiva) reports a sore throat, fever, and blisters. What is your best action?

a.

Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.

b.

Document the report as the only action.

c.

Remind the patient that these are symptoms of opportunistic infection.

d.

Reassure the patient that these are common and expected side effects of the drug.

 

 

  1. Which food, drink, or herbal supplement do you warn a patient who is prescribed nevirapine (Viramune) to avoid?

a.

Caffeinated beverages

b.

Grapefruit juice

c.

St. John’s wort

d.

Dairy products

 

 

 

  1. How do protease inhibitor (PI) drugs prevent viral replication?

a.

They are counterfeit bases that prevent reverse transcriptase from synthesizing the DNA needed for viral replication.

b.

They inactivate the enzyme that allows the viral genetic material to be integrated into the human host’s cellular DNA.

c.

They prevent the production of proteins needed for viral particles to leave the cell and infect other cells.

d.

They prevent initial infection by blocking the receptor the virus uses to enter target cells.

 

 

 

  1. A patient who has been taking indinavir (Crixivan) for a year has just been told that the organism is now resistant to this drug. The patient expresses worry to you that this means the disease will now progress to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and death will soon follow. What is your best response?

a.

“Your health care provider can change this drug to the intravenous form, which prevents viral replication even in HIV that has developed drug resistance.”

b.

“Although the HIV is now resistant to this drug, other antiretroviral drugs are likely to be effective in controlling your disease.”

c.

“The HIV easily becomes drug resistant. That is why the drug combinations are switched so often.”

d.

“That is a possibility because these drugs do not kill the virus. It is best to be prepared.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient on HAART that includes neviripine (Viramune) has all of the following side effects. Which one should you report to the prescriber immediately?

a.

Nausea

b.

2 lb weight loss

c.

Clay-colored stools

d.

Dizziness on standing

 

 

 

  1. A pediatric patient is prescribed nelfinavir (Viracept) 450 mg orally. The available drug is 50 mg/scoop. How many level scoops do you measure into the patient’s pudding to administer the correct dose?

a.

9 scoops

b.

6 scoops

c.

3 scoops

d.

2 scoops

 

 

 

  1. Which precaution is most important to teach an older patient who is prescribed atazanavir (Reyataz)?

a.

“Be sure to take this drug at least 1 hour before or 4 hours after taking an antacid.”

b.

“Weigh yourself daily and notify your prescriber if you gain more than 2 lb in 1 week.”

c.

“Check your pulse for a full minute daily and notify your prescriber if it becomes irregular or slow.”

d.

“Check your calves daily for swelling or redness. If these symptoms appear, go to the emergency department immediately.”

 

 

 

  1. Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)?

a.

“After the drug is mixed, store it away from light.”

b.

“Use sterile technique to draw up and inject the drug.”

c.

“Do not take this drug if there is any possibility that you are pregnant.”

d.

“Mix the drug with tap water, then rinse the drug’s original container and add that fluid to the drug mixture.”

 

 

 

  1. A 40-year-old patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) asks why the new drug maraviroc (Selzentry) is not being prescribed for her. What is your best response?

a.

“This drug is very expensive and your insurance may not cover it.”

b.

“This drug can cause birth defects and should not be prescribed for anyone who is pregnant or might become pregnant.”

c.

“This drug is very toxic to the heart and lungs. It is prescribed only for patients who are young and have no other health problems.”

d.

“This drug is not effective against all HIV subtypes and the HIV causing your infection does not have the target for this drug.”

 

 

 

  1. Which precaution is most important to teach older adults who are prescribed maraviroc (Selzentry)?

a.

“If an injection site infection occurs, do not reuse that site until the skin has healed completely.”

b.

“Take the drug with food or milk to reduce the likelihood of GI side effects.”

c.

“Change positions slowly when moving from a sitting to a standing position.”

d.

“Store the drug at room temperature.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient prescribed raltegravir (Isentress) reports all of the following problems or changes since starting this drug. Which problem or change do you report to the prescriber?

a.

Abdominal cramps and bloating

b.

Muscle aches and weakness

c.

Urinating more at night

d.

Loss of taste for sweets

 

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  1. What precaution is most important to teach a patient newly prescribed to take Truvada?

a.

“Continue to use safer sex practices.”

b.

“Avoid caffeine and any fatty or fried foods.”

c.

“Be sure to drink at least 3 L of fluids daily.”

d.

“If you develop muscle or joint aches, notify your prescriber immediately.”

 

 

 

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

 

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

 

  1. Which antiretroviral drugs have greater effectiveness when administered with ritonavir? (select all that apply)

a.

Edurant (rilpivirine)

b.

Emtriva (emtricitabine)

c.

Invirase (saquinavir)

d.

Lexiva (fosamprenavir)

e.

Prezista (darunavir)

f.

Reyataz (atazanavir)

g.

Tivicay (dolutegravir)

h.

Ziagen (abacavir)

 

 

 

  1. Which patient outcomes are major goals of antiretroviral therapy? (select all that apply)

a.

Prevention of opportunistic infections

b.

Conversion to an HIV-negative antibody status

c.

Reduction of the number of viral particles in the patient’s blood

d.

Increase in CD4+ cells

e.

Decrease in CD8+ cells

f.

Prevention of disease spread

 

 

 

COMPLETION

 

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

 

  1. A child who is HIV positive and weighs 40 lb is prescribed to receive atazanavir (Reyataz) at a dose of 7 mg/kg. The drug on hand is a premixed oral suspension of 50 mg/60 mL. How many milliliters will you prepare as the correct dose?

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed to receive 300 mg of ribavirin by oral suspension. The drug on hand is ribavirin oral suspension with a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will you prepare as the correct dose?

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed 45 mg of enfuvirtide by subcutaneous injection. The available drug is a premixed solution of enfuvirtide with a concentration of 90 mg/mL.

 

Question 16:     Business Management

 

Chapter 9   Foundations of Group Behavior

 

1) Which of the following is true with regard to groups?

  1. A) A group is characterized by the independence of its members.
  2. B) A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.
  3. C) A group influences our emotional reactions.
  4. D) An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.
  5. E) The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.

 

2) Which of the following is true regarding formal groups?

  1. A) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social contact.
  2. B) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members.
  3. C) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior.

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  1. D) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make up a formal group.
  2. E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals.

 

3) An informal group is characterized by the ________.

  1. A) stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization
  2. B) predetermined designation of tasks of members.
  3. C) pursuit of particular organizational goals.
  4. D) fulfillment of the need for social contact
  5. E) creation of timelines and rationale

 

4) Which of the following differentiates between formal and informal groups?

  1. A) The timeline of reference for formal groups is greater than that for informal groups.
  2. B) The impact of formal groups on organizational performance is lesser than that of informal groups.
  3. C) Formal groups pursue the goal of social contact, while informal groups have definite organizational goals to attain.
  4. D) Formal groups are typically smaller in size when compared to informal groups.
  5. E) Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

.

 

5) Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of, is the territory of the ________ theory.

  1. A) social exchange
  2. B) expectancy
  3. C) social identity
  4. D) reinforcement
  5. E) equity

 

6) Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory?

  1. A) It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the group in the event of any offenses or failures.
  2. B) It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group because their self-esteem is tied into the group’s performance.
  3. C) It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more defined and concrete in the course of their lives.
  4. D) It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how members of an in-group view members of an out-group.
  5. E) It proposes that members of an in-group are viewed as being homogenous, while members of an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous.

 

7) ________ is defined as the tendency to see members of the group of which we are a part of as better than other people.

  1. A) In-group homogeneity
  2. B) Xenocentrism
  3. C) In-group favoritism
  4. D) Black sheep effect
  5. E) Hindsight bias

8) At Milton farms, where a large part of the management comes from the same sociocultural background, many employees of diverse ethical or cultural origins are hired only to ensure legal compliance with laws relating to diversity at the workplace. The company’s day-to-day functioning leaves much to be desired in terms of promoting diversity. Recently, the owner’s cousin was promoted to the post of a branch manager while three suitable candidates hailing from a different cultures were blatantly overlooked. This is an example of ________.

  1. A) social loafing
  2. B) in-group favoritism
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) contrast bias
  5. E) social exchange

 

9) Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would witness him stealing. However, one of the customer attendants watched him steal the money and reported it to the manager the next day, following which Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them saying “you guys are all the same.” This scenario depicts ________.

  1. A) social loafing
  2. B) in-group favoritism
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) contrast bias
  5. E) social exchange

10) Similarity is a characteristic under the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

  1. A) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
  2. B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater group identification as well
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own

11) In the context of the social identity theory, distinctiveness refers to the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  2. B) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  3. C) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  4. D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

 

12) Status is a characteristic under the social identity theory that reflects the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  2. B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

13) Uncertainty reduction is a dimension of the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  2. B) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

14) Which of the following represents the second stage in the five-stage group development model?

  1. A) adjourning
  2. B) performing
  3. C) storming
  4. D) forming
  5. E) norming

15) Which of the following stages of the five-stage group development model is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership?

  1. A) introduction
  2. B) storming
  3. C) forming
  4. D) evolution
  5. E) norming

16) The second stage of the five-stage group development model is characterized by ________.

  1. A) uncertainty about the purpose, structure, and leadership of the group
  2. B) cohesiveness and close relationships among members of the group
  3. C) strong feelings of group identity among members of the group
  4. D) intragroup conflict within the group
  5. E) pride in the accomplishments of the group

 

17) By the end of the stage of ________, a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership within the group is established.

  1. A) norming
  2. B) storming
  3. C) forming
  4. D) adjourning
  5. E) performing

 

18) During the third stage of group development ________.

  1. A) conflicts over leadership are common
  2. B) the group demonstrates cohesiveness
  3. C) intragroup conflicts occur
  4. D) members resist the constraints the group places on them
  5. E) groups disband

19) Which of the following statements is true regarding the norming stage of group development?

  1. A) According to the five-stage group development model, this is the second stage in the group development model.
  2. B) This stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership.
  3. C) During this stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.
  4. D) During this stage, the group develops a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior.
  5. E) During this stage the group completes the task at hand.

 

20) When the group energy is focused on the task at hand and the group is fully functional, it is said to be in the stage of ________.

  1. A) storming
  2. B) norming
  3. C) inertia
  4. D) forming
  5. E) performing

21) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the performing stage?

  1. A) The performing stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership.
  2. B) During the performing stage there is conflict over who will control the group.
  3. C) The performing stage involves members trying out different behaviors in order to understand which behaviors the group considers acceptable.
  4. D) For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in development.
  5. E) During the performing stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.

 

22) Which of the following is true with regard to the five-stage group development model?

  1. A) All permanent groups pass through the five stages of this model of group development successively.
  2. B) For temporary work teams, the performing stage is the last stage of group development.
  3. C) The model assumes that employees are functioning at their most effective level from the first stage.
  4. D) A positive social focus may aid a group in reaching the performing stage more rapidly.
  5. E) Groups proceed through the stages of group development in similar speed and timelines.

 

23) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the punctuated-equilibrium model of group development?

  1. A) It applies to all permanent work groups.
  2. B) It follows the five stages of forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
  3. C) It does not consider the changes in patterns of group activities in response to deadlines and time constraints.
  4. D) It involves the two strategies of groupthink and group shift to break out of the phases of inertia.
  5. E) It characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes.

 

24) Tabby Tolman is a project coordinator at Tristar Solutions. Whenever a new project comes her way, she holds a project meeting and follows it up with repeated meetings to address any concerns the team may have and to monitor their progress. However, with the peak of the business season arriving, she has been holding just one project initiation meeting for every project to save on time. She has become increasingly worried about the team’s progress with no inputs coming from the members and she has had no time to check with them. With two weeks left to go for a high priority project of a month’s duration, she has now begun to see some work coming through and is relieved. This development reflects that the group is at the stage of ________.

  1. A) forming
  2. B) inertia following the first meeting
  3. C) second phase of inertia before the group’s last meeting
  4. D) storming
  5. E) transition following the halfway mark in the timeline

25) The first phase of group development for temporary groups involves ________.

  1. A) the phase of inertia before transition
  2. B) the determination of the group’s direction
  3. C) the transition to plan the major changes
  4. D) a period of accelerated activity
  5. E) the adoption of new perspectives

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26) The determination of the behavioral patterns and assumptions through which the group approaches the project is a function of the ________ phase in the punctuated-equilibrium model.

  1. A) performing
  2. B) inertia
  3. C) equilibrium
  4. D) transition
  5. E) first meeting

 

27) Which of the following represents the major determinants of group development and functioning as depicted by the punctuated-equilibrium model?

  1. A) better perspectives and patterns
  2. B) group solidarity and collectivist goals
  3. C) promotion of diversity
  4. D) deadlines and time constraints
  5. E) role perception and expectation

 

28) Role perception is defined as ________.

  1. A) the way others believe we should act in a given context
  2. B) our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation
  3. C) the existence of roles that are at variance with one another
  4. D) the socially defined position or rank given to group members by others
  5. E) the degree to which members are motivated to stay in the group.

 

29) Janice Cooper has recently joined a hospital as a part of the internship program prescribed by the nursing school she attends. Janice, who was inspired to take up this profession by the story of Florence Nightingale, had very strong ideals about how she should behave as a nurse. She felt that as a nurse, she must be gentle, pleasant, and caring at all times so she could serve her patients well, and she often went to great lengths as an intern by putting in extra hours at the hospital and so on. The scenario reflects Janice’s ________.

  1. A) role fuzziness
  2. B) role ambiguity
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) role perception
  5. E) role status

 

30) Role ________ is defined as the way others believe you should act in a given context.

  1. A) fuzziness
  2. B) expectation
  3. C) conflict
  4. D) perception
  5. E) enhancement

 

31) Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, refrain from demonstrating favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. Which of the following terms best represents these beliefs?

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) similarity
  3. C) role expectation
  4. D) uncertainty reduction
  5. E) dispersion of responsibility

32) When ________, the result is role conflict.

  1. A) compliance with one role aids our performance in another role
  2. B) compliance with the group is an attempt to understand who we are and how we fit into the world
  3. C) compliance with the group is marked by a tendency to notice and emphasize those aspects of the group that are distinctive
  4. D) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another
  5. E) compliance with the group is strengthened by members who have similar values and characteristics

 

33) Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Michael would like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In this situation, Michael is most likely to experience ________.

  1. A) role conflict
  2. B) social loafing
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) role fuzziness
  5. E) group shift

.

 

34) Which of the following represents the acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members?

  1. A) status
  2. B) norms
  3. C) dyads
  4. D) goals
  5. E) cliques

 

35)  Which of the following is an example of performance norms?

  1. A) dress codes
  2. B) rules in informal groups
  3. C) assignment of difficult jobs, pay, and equipment
  4. D) distribution of pay
  5. E) the manner in which a job must be done

 

36) The ________ norms dictate behavior such as with whom group members eat lunch and friendships on and off the job.

  1. A) appearance
  2. B) social arrangement
  3. C) performance
  4. D) reference
  5. E) organizational

 

37) A local government work crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew the dirtiest jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew tend to do little except draw their pay. Which of the following classes of norms encompasses arrangements like this?

  1. A) performance norms
  2. B) appearance norms
  3. C) resource allocation norms
  4. D) reference norms
  5. E) leisure norms

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38) ________ refers to the adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group.

  1. A) Deviance
  2. B) Conflict
  3. C) Divergence
  4. D) Conformity
  5. E) Appearance

 

39) The important groups to which an individual belongs or hopes to belong are known as ________ groups.

  1. A) interacting
  2. B) reference
  3. C) organizational
  4. D) control
  5. E) nominal

 

40) Jonas Wilkes has struggled for many years with tight finances at home. Throughout school and college, he worked really hard, earned the best grades, and prepared himself for a better life. By a better life, he meant a house in the uptown Wellington Road and a membership in the Diamond District Club where he envisions himself playing golf on weekends. The residents of Wellington Road and the members of Diamond District Club serve as a ________ for him.

  1. A) nominal group
  2. B) organizational group
  3. C) control group
  4. D) intervention group
  5. E) reference group

41) Which of the following terms best represents voluntary actions that violate significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threaten the well-being of the organization or its members?

  1. A) undue hardship
  2. B) deviant workplace behavior
  3. C) antidiscrimination and retaliation
  4. D) progressive discipline
  5. E) wrongful termination

 

42) Which of the following is true with regard to deviant workplace behavior?

  1. A) It is involuntary in nature.
  2. B) Widespread deviant workplace behavior depends on the accepted norms of the group.
  3. C) It has a negligible adverse impact on organization as it is accepted by some employees.
  4. D) Research on deviance at the workplace has shown that employees operating individually engage in more deviant behaviors than those who function as a part of groups.
  5. E) Leaving work early is an example of a property-related deviant workplace behavior.

43) Status refers to the ________.

  1. A) impact that support of group norms has on workplace civility
  2. B) adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group
  3. C) socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others
  4. D) existence of roles that are at variance with one another
  5. E) acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members

44) According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status?

  1. A) control over the resources needed by the group
  2. B) contribution to goals
  3. C) ability to conform to group norms
  4. D) personality
  5. E) talent

 

45) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on conformity pressure?

  1. A) High-status individuals are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members.
  2. B) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in low-status jobs.
  3. C) Lower-status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their high-status peers.
  4. D) Groups exert equal conformity pressure on all individuals regardless of their status.
  5. E) As compared to high-status members, low-status members are given a wider range of discretion as long as their activities aren’t severely detrimental to group goal achievement.

 

46) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of size of the group has on the performance of the group?

  1. A) The size of the group does not affect the group’s overall behavior.
  2. B) Evidence indicates that larger groups are faster at completing tasks than smaller ones.
  3. C) As compared to smaller groups, larger groups are better in problem solving.
  4. D) If the goal of the group is fact-finding then smaller groups are more effective than larger groups.
  5. E) Evidence indicates that individuals perform better in larger groups than in smaller ones.

 

47) Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when working collectively?

  1. A) groupthink
  2. B) collective efficacy
  3. C) social loafing
  4. D) group shift
  5. E) social facilitation

.

 

48) When faced with a number of tight deadlines, Mandy Moore often delegates work collectively. Recently she chose some fairly experienced employees to work on a high-priority project. She was heartened to see that the selected group of employees was having numerous meetings and working hard. However, when she went to check on their progress at the halfway mark in the project schedule, she was shocked to see how little the team had done in the past three weeks. This scenario reflects ________.

  1. A) groupthink
  2. B) collective efficacy
  3. C) social loafing
  4. D) group shift
  5. E) in-group favoritism

49) Which of the following is a contributing factor with regard to social loafing?

  1. A) difficult task assignments
  2. B) high collective efficacy
  3. C) severe time constraints
  4. D) dispersion of responsibility
  5. E) heavy workload

50) Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing?

  1. A) increasing the rewards the group is given if it succeeds
  2. B) increasing the amount by which the group’s progress is monitored
  3. C) ensuring that individual contributions to the group’s outcome are identified
  4. D) increasing the size of the group
  5. E) increasing the group’s workload

 

51) Which of the following is true with regard to social loafing? 

  1. A) Social loafing decreases when rewards are added for collective performance of the group.

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  1. B) Social loafing reflects the drastic rise in employee performance when they work collectively.
  2. C) Social loafing involves the cumulative rise in productivity when teams increase in size.
  3. D) Social loafing is a result of the emphasis on individual outcomes over shared outcomes.
  4. E) Social loafing is witnessed less in collectivist cultures where people take pride in group performance.

 

52) ICE is a non-profit organization that runs awareness campaigns and research programs that provide data to initiate the process of legislative changes on various aspects of the environment like forest cover, nuclear fuel, endangered species and others. The ICE operates through networks of grass-root level researchers who are grouped into flexible project teams whose roles and duties change with each new project. The ICE believes its employees to be like family and an informal environment pervades its functioning without any compromises being made in the efficiency. Recently, the project manager of the rainwater harvesting pilot project in the suburbs has been informed of two delays in the project. When the third extension request came to him, he looked into the matter by speaking individually with the five team members. Which of the following complaints by the team members, if true, would indicate the presence of social loafing in the team?

  1. A) A team member complained that the residents of the suburb in which they were working were uncooperative and did not accept their most cordial requests for helping in data collection.
  2. B) Nancy, one of the new team members, reported that she felt the team was not cohesive enough.
  3. C) Two of the most experienced employees on the team reported having to shoulder a disproportionate amount of the current workload and asked for an internal transfer.
  4. D) The scarcity of funds was one of the major concerns that all the team members mentioned.
  5. E) The team members were dissatisfied with the compensation package as they felt they were putting in a lot of work and being paid relatively less.

 

53) ________ refers to the degree to which members are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group.

  1. A) Assertiveness
  2. B) Social dominance
  3. C) Authoritativeness
  4. D) Cohesiveness
  5. E) Diversity

54) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and performance norms on group productivity?

  1. A) When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high.
  2. B) The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of the group.
  3. C) If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high.
  4. D) If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low.
  5. E) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.

 

55) ________ is defined as the extent to which members of a group are similar to, or different from, one another.

  1. A) Homogeneity
  2. B) Diversity
  3. C) Conformity
  4. D) Civility
  5. E) Universality

56) Which of the following is an advantage of group decision making when compared to individual decision making?

  1. A) increased ambiguous responsibility
  2. B) increased conformity pressures
  3. C) increased diversity of views
  4. D) increased dispersion of accountability
  5. E) increased pace of decision making

 

57) When ________ is of importance in decision making, group decisions are preferred to individual decisions.

  1. A) acceptance of solution
  2. B) speed
  3. C) efficiency
  4. D) clear responsibility
  5. E) legitimacy

Answer:  A

 

58) Group decision making has a disadvantage in the area of ________, when compared to individual decision making.

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) creativity
  3. C) acceptance of final solutions
  4. D) speed
  5. E) accuracy

 

59) ________ is defined as a phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides the realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action.

  1. A) Group shift
  2. B) Social loafing
  3. C) In-group favoritism
  4. D) Cyber loafing
  5. E) Groupthink

60) Sonia Soans is corporate trainer. One of her favorite ways to start a training program is to present a case study and encourage members to think of the case in depth and discuss it amongst each other. Using the results of the activity she understands the baseline measures of the group’s functioning. During one of her recent sessions, she observed that the group came to a consensus very quickly. However, when asked to present their views, the team members were not too confident and appeared to be under an illusion of unanimity. From the scenario, we can say that this group experienced ________.

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

Explanation:  D) Groupthink relates to norms and describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.

 

61) Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager so as to minimize groupthink?

  1. A) increasing the group size
  2. B) encouraging group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity
  3. C) preventing all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of ideas at the beginning
  4. D) asking the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative rather than the negatives
  5. E) seeking input from employees before the group leader presents his opinions

 

62) In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called ________.

  1. A) social desirability bias
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) halo effect
  4. D) social loafing
  5. E) in-group favoritism

 

63) Group shift is seen when ________.

  1. A) group members view themselves in better light when compared to members of the out-group
  2. B) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution
  3. C) group members notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
  4. D) group members tend to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) group members fail to express alternative opinions and deviant views under the influence of the norm for consensus.

 

64) The HR department at Bailey Services is considering offering telecommuting as an option to some experienced employees. At a meeting to formalize the move, the heads of the different departments met with Laura Watson, the HR manager. Laura, who thought this meeting would be a short one, was proven wrong when all the members, who had previously agreed that telecommuting would work in their company, began coming up with divergent views. By the end, two divisions claimed having major concerns about allowing employees to telecommute, and those in favor of it were equally vocal. This scenario depicts the operation of ________.

  1. A) conformity
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

65) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome, and even profitably use, this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of group shift in Mark’s opinions during the meeting?

  1. A) Mark felt that Eu Air should suspend some of its less profitable flights in the short run in favor of the routes that have greater demand among consumers.
  2. B) Mark proposed that this was an opportunity for Eu Air to use its brand name effectively and diversify into other products and services.
  3. C) Mark agreed with Joe’s opinion that providing the best service possible, even if it meant incurring a loss in the short run, would be the best strategy.
  4. D) Mark proposed that the prices be hiked and additional customer service measures be included so costumers have the best experience flying with Eu Air.    
  5. E) Mark encouraged the top-management team to consider laying off surplus employees and rightsizing Eu Air to enhance its efficiency and lower costs.

66) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Mark experienced group shift in the meeting?

  1. A) Mark felt that implementing a price rise was necessary to recover the costs in operating the flights.
  2. B) Mark stated that the company should increase operations but at lower fares so they can regain control over the market share.
  3. C) Mark believed that most of their clientele was not price sensitive.
  4. D) Mark was of the opinion that oil suppliers were going to pressure them even more in the future and the company had to resort to alternatives like bio fuels.
  5. E) Mark recommended that the company should establish a fuel hedging contract with its key suppliers to ensure protection from fuel price rises.

.

67) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of group shift in Joe’s opinions during the meeting?

  1. A) Joe proposed that the company should invite price quotes from new suppliers to reduce their dependence on their current fuel suppliers.
  2. B) Joe determined that the best strategy would be to slash prices and minimize all fringes that are used for customer service.
  3. C) Joe convinced the top management team to decrease the capacity of the flights.
  4. D) Joe recommended that the prices for business class fares be increased as they represent a less price sensitive group of customers.
  5. E) Joe claimed that aviation fuel was their second largest expense and this was the time to contemplate obtaining a few futures contracts with suppliers.

68) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Joe experienced group shift during the meeting?

  1. A) Joe stated that the company should cut expenditures on other areas like marketing and advertising instead of hiking fares to retain their current profit margins.
  2. B) Joe stated that hiking prices would lead to losing market share to the low-cost airlines which already controlled half the market.
  3. C) Joe stated that precise methods of fuel filling and consumption must be implemented to efficiently use their current supply of fuel.
  4. D) Joe suggested adding a fuel surcharge to all tickets for commercial flights with immediate effect.
  5. E) Joe proposed the usage of direct and higher altitude routes that would curtail fuel consumption.

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69) Groupthink is most commonly seen in the group decision-making approach using ________.

  1. A) reference groups
  2. B) nominal groups
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) interacting groups
  5. E) electronic meeting groups

 

70) Like many other marketing strategy specialists, Mark Fritz relies heavily on creativity and originality. Members of his team are selected on the basis of their ability to think divergently, and Mark often conducts activities to ensure that this ability is developed. For instance, before any new project, Mark invites his team to sit together and churn out possible ideas about the new product, its theme, and ways in which it can be projected best in the market. These sessions usually provide him with a bank of potential ideas from which the team selects some strong concepts and develops them into a campaign. To encourage freedom in these sessions, Mark has a no-evaluation policy. This is an example of ________.

  1. A) in-group favoritism
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

 

71) Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming?

  1. A) Brainstorming encourages criticizing an idea as early as possible.
  2. B) Brainstorming overcomes the problem of “production blocking.”
  3. C) Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity.
  4. D) Research consistently shows that a group in a brainstorming session generates more ideas than an individual working alone.
  5. E) Brainstorming fails to develop group cohesiveness.

 

72) A group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion is the ________ technique.

  1. A) reference groups
  2. B) nominal groups
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) interacting groups
  5. E) in-group

 

73) Bonnie Patterson is a manager for seven years at Wayne and Watson, a legal consultancy firm. A good part of her work day involves holding meetings and she likes to get work on a time-bound schedule. For this reason, members of her team receive the agenda at the beginning of the meeting, followed by some time to contemplate over the issue at hand individually. Subsequently, the team members present their ideas one after the another, the group discusses them together, and lastly, a ranking is done to choose the most favored idea. This represents the ________ approach of group decision making.

  1. A) interacting
  2. B) reference group
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) nominal group
  5. E) groupthink

 

74) Hubert Gray needs an instruction manual developed for his new product. This is the last step of the project and he has severe budget constraints. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to write the manual on fairly short notice. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Hubert consider?

  1. A) nominal and electronic
  2. B) brainstorming
  3. C) brainstorming and electronic
  4. D) electronic and interacting
  5. E) interacting and brainstorming

 

75) ABL is one of the largest consumer goods companies in the country and it recently held its annual conference where members of all regional divisions were invited. Since the company is vast and rarely finds all its employees together in such a manner, it used this opportunity to present to them certain new ideas they had regarding various aspects of their functioning. Large meetings with each regional team were held to provide them with information about the proposed changes and to obtain their anonymous votes through computers. This helped the company speed up the decision-making process and consolidate the results immediately. Which of the following group decision techniques did ABL use here?

  1. A) heuristics and algorithm approach
  2. B) nominal groups approach
  3. C) electronic meeting approach
  4. D) reference groups approach
  5. E) brainstorming

 

Question 17:              Finance

 

 

  1. If a stock has a beta of 0.78 would its required rate of return be higher or lower than the required return for the average stock on the market? Why? Would it be more or less risky than holding a fund that replicated the S&P 500 Index ? Why?

 

 

 

  1. The nominal risk free rate (RRF) equals 0.55%. The market risk premium is equal to 6.0%. The Beta of Harrah’s Inc. is 1.33. Use the CAPM to calculate the required rate of return for Hershey stock (Rs)?

 

 

  1. If you are a risk-averse investor and you decide to hold a single stock, which stock would you prefer? Use the Coefficient of Variation (CV) to determine your answer. Explain your final choice.

 

  1. A stock with an expected return of 20% and a standard deviation equal to 10%.
  2. A stock with an expected return of 7% and a standard deviation equal to 3%.
  3. A stock with an expected return of 16% and a standard deviation equal to 16%

 

 

  1. Assume you have a portfolio with the stocks and their information:
Stock Total $ invested Beta Expected Return Portfolio weight
DuPont $125,000 1.00 12%  
McDonald’s Corp $150,000 0.55 8.6%  
Ford $600,000 1.33 11%  

 

 

  1. a) Calculate Beta of the Portfolio.
  2. b) Calculate the Expected return for the portfolio using the CAPM and the beta value for the portfolio. Assume the market risk premium (Rm – Rrf) equals 6% and the Risk free rate (Rrf) equals the rate on a 2 year treasury 1.25%.
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Question 18:              Finance

 

SHOW YOUR WORK.

  1. Assume you own 10 shares of Johnson and Johnson. You paid $43/sh. You sold the stock one year later for $40/share. During the year you held the stock, you earned no Dividends. What was your total dollar return? What was your percentage return?

 

  1. Assume a share of preferred stock pays a constant dividend of $1.25. If the required return is 6.5%, what is the expected price of this preferred stock?

 

  1. A share of common stock will pay a dividend of $2.00 at the end of this year so D1= $2.00. If the expected long-run constant growth rate for this stock is 4 percent, and if investors require an 6 percent rate of return (Rs=6%), what is the expected price of the stock?

 

 

  1. Martian stock is expected to grow at 8% in year 1, 9% in year 2 and 6% in year 3.It is then expected to grow at a constant rate of 3% in the years that follow. The required rate of return (Rs) equals 9%. The company just aid a Dividend of $1.55 at the end of last year so (D=$1.55. What is the expected price of this stock? If the stock was selling on the market for $45, would you buy it based on your calculations? Explain your answer.

 

Question 19:     General Question

 

Instruction

James shows up to work approximately five minutes late this morning, walks silently (but quickly) down the hallway and begins to punch in at the time clock located by the front desk. Sarah, the front desk manager, says, “Good morning, James,” but James ignores her, punches in, and heads into the shop to his workplace. Sarah rolls her eyes, picks up the phone, and dials the on-duty manager to alert her that James just arrived and should be reaching his desk any moment. The message should take the form of an email; however, you will submit your assignment to the online course shell. The professional email message must adhere to the following requirements: 1. Content: Address the communication issue from the scenario. Request a face-to-face meeting to discuss the issue (at a specific time). Concentrate on the facts of the situation and avoid using overly emotional language. Assume your recipient is learning about the situation for the first time through your communication. 2. Format: Use a descriptive subject line or heading. Include an appropriate and professional greeting / salutation. Use email form including: To:, From:, Subject:, and Signature. 3. Clarity / Mechanics: Focus on clarity, writing mechanics, and professional language/style requirements. Run spell/grammar check before submitting. 4. Your assignment must: This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details. 5. Submitting your assignment: Submit your assignment through the online course shell only. 6. The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: Plan, create, and evaluate professional documents. Deliver professional information to various audiences using appropriate tone, style, and format. Analyze professional communication examples to assist in revision.

 

Question 20:     Law

 

 

The book review essay should include all the following – each roman numeral represents a required heading for the paper:

 

  1. Title Page – Include name, date, and course information.

 

  1. Introduction – one-page maximum
  2. Summary of the work

 

  • Family Experience – a minimum of four pages in length.
  1. In the book, Dave referred to his mother as both ‘mother’ and

‘mom’. What prompted the change? Support with at least two

specific examples from the work.

  1. Why do you suppose Dave was the object of his abuse by his

mother? Provide a specific example from the text to support your work.

  1. Describe the relationship between Dave and his father. Support

with at least two specific examples from the work.

  1. In what ways did Dave not feel a sense of belonging in his family?

Support with at least two specific examples from the book.

  1. What do you suppose was Dave’s worst experience of abuse? Provide a specific example from the book.
  2. Why do you suppose Dave continued to fight?

 

  1. Contribution to the field of Victimology – one-page minimum
  2. Purpose of the work – how does it increase awareness about Dave’s experience.
  3. How does this work contribute to Victimology?

 

  1. Conclusion – Summary of your thoughts – one-page maximum

 

  1. Reference Page – Pelzer book and any supporting readings included in the book review.

 

The book review essay must be typed, double-spaced, Times New

Roman 12 fonts, with 1″ margins all around. You must include a

title page.

 

Question 21:     Economics

 

A snack food chain runs a promotion in which shoppers are told that 1 in 4 kid’s meals include a prize. A father buys 2 kid’s meals and neither has a prize. The father concludes that because neither has a prize the chain is being deceptive.

What are the null and alternative hypothesis?

 

Describe a Type I error in this context.

 

 

Describe a Type II error.

 

 

A retailer maintains a website that it sues to attract shoppers. The average purchase amount is $80. The retailor is evaluating a new website that would, it hopes, encourage shoppers to spend more. Let µ represent the average amount spent per customer at its redesigned website. Mark each statement as True or False.

The appropriate null hypothesis for testing the profitability of the new designs is µ = $80.

 

The appropriate alternative hypothesis for testing the profitability of the new design is  µ > $80.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The makers of Mini-Oats Cereal have an automated packaging machine that can be set at any targeted fill level between 12 and 32 ounces. Every box of cereal is not expected to contain exactly the targeted weight but the average of all boxed filled should. At the end of every shift, 16 boxes are selected a random and the mean and standard deviation of the sample are computed. Based on these sample results, the production control manager determines whether the filling machine needs to be readjusted or whether it remains all right to operate. Use α = 0.05 and assume the population is normally distributed.

Establish the appropriate null and alternative hypothesis to be tested for boxes that are supposed to have an average of 24 ounces.

 

 

 

 

At the end of a particular shift during which the machine was filling 24 ounce boxes, the sample mean of 16 boxes was 24.32 ounces with a standard deviation of 0.70 ounces. Assist the production control manager in determining if the machine is achieving its targeted average.

 

Question 22:              Law

 

The research paper will be based on a recent case before the courts. You must identify the case and how it relates to the topics covered in this course. You must use the proper citation for the case you selected, as well as the APA style for your entire paper. The paper must be a minimum of five pages (not counting the cover and reference pages), double spaced, 12-point font. Your thesis must be concise, explaining your position. I am interested in why you chose a particular case to analyze The case is Florida v. Jardines and the topic is the fourth amendment against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause

 

Question 23:              Religious Studies

 

The Journey Paper Instructions

  1. Go somewhere (the park, the lake, etc.), any place that you won’t be disturbed or distracted.

For Step 1, write out your prayer. Be transparent, honest, and thoughtful in your prayer. Pray specifically toward the purpose of discovering and uncovering thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.

  1. You are encouraged to press through and go deeper into yourself to find the hidden meanings of your emotions, thoughts and self-statements.
  2. Follow the remaining steps: (Use a present situation, not one from the past that you have already worked through.)

Step 2: Describe the unpleasant situation that disturbs you.

Step 3: List any destructive behaviors stemming from the unpleasant situation.

Step 4: Describe how others responded to your behaviors and how relationships were affected.

Step 5: What are the negative and harmful emotions you feel in regard to the situation? (You may feel several emotions. Write them all down.).

Step 6: Ask yourself the following questions:

  1. What is the worst thing about this situation?
  2. How does this situation affect me personally?
  3. What is the basis, the essence of the problem?
  4. What is the main thing in this problem that makes me feel so bad?
  5. Exactly what is it that feels so bad about this?
  6. What is the worst of this feeling?

Step 7: Move even deeper through your emotions toward your deepest felt sense, and record all your feelings.

Step 8: (1) Examine your thoughts. Ask, “What am I telling myself?” (2) Ask, “Why am I feeling this way?” (Realize that there is a strong possibility that the reason you feel as you do is that you are taking the situation personally.)

Step 9: Ask, “In the list of strongholds, what is the faulty thinking regarding my security and my worth as a person that causes me to take this situation so personally?” Once you have detected the faulty thinking, how can it be rejected and corrected?

Step 10: First, forgive anyone who may have created the situation, and thank God you that you can learn and grow as a result of it. Second, now that you have detected the basic fallacy in your thinking regarding the problem situation, reject the fallacy. See your textbook for the “how to”.

  1. List at least two specific scriptures that are especially meaningful to you that can be used to reprogram and renew your mind.
  2. Paper requirements.
  • Written in paragraph (narrative form), covering all of the above.
  • 5-7 full pages >1″ margin, top, bottom, left, right.
  • Times New Roman, 12 point font.
  • Double Spaced
  • Cover Sheet, must meet APA style standards. (See the library or internet if you are unfamiliar with this style.)

 

Question 24:     Health Care

 

MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University

MN551 Week 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Week 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University

 

Question 25:     Science

 

Instruction

Topic: The Effect of COVID-19 on the Climate Elaborate on the topic, describe and give insights. Please follow the Rubic structure when writing the paper. Please be creative!

 

Question 26:     Business Management

 

Write a small paragraph about one particular company that used business risk plan that made them overcome business threat or risk. It has to a real example and how they did overcome it

 

Question 27:     History    

 

Instructions: – Your response should be in essay format. Write as much as possible telling me who, what, why, where, and how. Use complete sentences and multiple paragraphs (3 – 5) . 1. Discuss the experiences of Mexican and Mexican Americans during the Great Depression. What was so unique about their experiences and how did they compare to other ethno racial groups throughout the country? What did the federal government do specifically to this community and? What was the purpose of the government’s action? Be detailed and provide examples 2. Describe the Mexican Revolution of 1910. Who were the leaders of the revolutionary groups and who were they opposing? What was the cause or causes of this war? What was the position regarding this conflict? What was the outcome of this war and what did that mean for the relationship between the and Mexico? Provide details and list examples to supplement your response.

 

Question 28:              Psychology

 

Chapters 11, 3, 4, 5

Chapter 11

  1. With which of Maslow’s claims do contemporary researchers find fault?

 

  1. Which of the following behaviors is explained by set-point theory?

a

  1. What does research on the effects of testosterone on sexual desire reveal?

 

  1. Callie was excellent at darts, so when she challenged her friend Erik to a game, she gave

him the opportunity to pick how far a    way he stood from the dartboard. Consider the

study by Atkinson and Litwin (1960) described in the text in which people high and low

in the need to achieve and to avoid failure got to stand wherever they wanted relative to

a target. If Erik was high in the need to achieve and low in the need to avoid failure,

where would he choose to stand?

 

  1. Imagine you wanted to motivate your younger brother to do a good job keeping his

room tidy. One way to do so might be to increase his sense of autonomy. Which of the

following could help you achieve that end?

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  1. According to research described in the text, which of the following statements is false?

 

  1. Which of the following words is most synonymous with ​personal agency​?

 

  1. Considering the specificity, level of challenge, and proximity of the following goal

statements, which would be most motivating?

 

  1. You’ve just failed a math exam. Considering Carol Dweck’s research on mindsets, which

of the following thoughts could keep you from becoming discouraged about your future

math performance?

  1. Which of the following is true of autonomy?

 

  1. Sophia and Bella joined the local orchestra and had their first performance. During

practice, they performed equally well, but on the day of the show, Bella made several

mistakes, whereas Sophia played better than she ever had. Considering Zajonc’s work

on social facilitation, which of the following could best explain this difference?

 

  1. According to research described in the text, what do grades measure?
  2. Which of the following motives and motivational orientations is categorized as an

approach motivation?

 

 

  1. What is the key function of the behavioral inhibition system?

 

  1. Cocaine increases the activity of which of the following chemicals in the reward center of

the brain?

 

Chapter 3

  1. The hippocampus of London taxi drivers is larger than that of the average driver. What

feature of the brain does this best illustrate?

 

  1. The effects of Phineas Gage’s accident on his intellect and personality illustrated which

of the following about the brain?

  1. Which part of MacLean’s triune brain is responsible for regulating bodily functions

critical to survival?

 

  1. Damage to which of the following areas would cause your movements to become

uncoordinated, even clumsy?

 

  1. Of the following, which structure of the limbic system would be most active if you were

to walk into your most challenging class and notice students clearing their desks, as if

preparing to take a test (one for which you aren’t prepared!)?

 

  1. On which of the following properties of the body does fMRI capitalize to produce

images?

 

  1. Damage to which of the following lobes would make it difficult for you to touch your

finger to your nose with your eyes closed?

  1. The rich interconnections between _____ lobes and other areas of the brain enable us to

possess uniquely human capabilities, including the ability to think about ourselves and

consider how others view us.

  1. This area of the frontal lobes enables you to concentrate on taking this self-test, while

simultaneously blocking out irrelevant stimuli.

 

  1. That we’re able to coordinate complex activities is due largely to the fact that the brain is

 

  1. Which of the following was ​not​a finding in research comparing brain activation among

English and Chinese speakers doing arithmetic?

 

  1. Which particular structure of the neuron can be as long as a meter (a little over 3 feet),

allowing neurons to send information across relatively long distances?

 

  1. The incredible speed with which action potentials are able to rush down the length of an

axon is enhanced by which of the following structures?

  1. When used by neurons in the spinal cord, this neurotransmitter controls muscles, and

when used by neurons in the brain, it regulates memory.

  1. Unexplained weight gain would most likely be related to a decrease in the functioning of

which of the following glands?

 

Chapter 4

  1. Research by Turkheimer and colleagues (2003) indicated that genes had a small

influence on intelligence in poor environments but a large effect in high-SES

environments. What does this suggest about the relative effects of nurture and nature?

  1. Among cultures that encourage the drinking of milk, nature selects for the gene that

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enables members of that culture to digest lactose. Among cultures for which milk is not

important, few people possess this gene. These facts support which of the following

ideas about the relation between biology and culture?

  1. Which of the following traits is likely to be the most heritable?
  2. If the only difference between MZ and DZ twin pairs is their genetic similarity, then the

difference in the degree to which the two twin types resemble each other

psychologically must be caused by

  1. Based on research by Bouchard and colleagues (1990) on the psychological similarity of

twins raised apart, we would estimate that the correlation for twins raised apart on the

trait of conscientiousness would be approximately

  1. Based on twin studies, we know that the heritability of personality traits is not 1.00. This

leaves room for what other kind of influences?

 

  1. Heritability studies indicate that variations in genes do account, in part, for variations in

personality. Which of the following would be reasonable to conclude based on this

finding?

  1. Using the metaphor of books to describe your body’s cells, what part of the book

represents DNA?

  1. In molecular genetic methods, sometimes researchers know exactly what allele they are

interested in. At other times, they conduct a(n) ________ to identify the genetic basis of a

behavior of interest.

  1. Recent advances in molecular genetic analyses of monozygotic twins indicate that

identical twins

  1. The process of natural selection isincompatible​with which of the following ideas? ​
  2. Which of the following patterns of preferences for mates should we expect to observe,

according to evolutionary psychologists?

  1. Which of the following wouldnot​be supportive of the mental-modules hypothesis? ​
  2. In an interesting illustration of culture’s influence on biology, researchers found that

among people living in the Caucasus Mountains, there was little genetic diversity

because of the

  1. Although shared family environments account for none of the variability in sexual

orientation, one theory is that variations in which of the following types of environment

may be influential?

 

 

Question 29:              Linguistics

 

  1. Phonetics is one of the linguistic subfields dealing with human speech sounds; it isconcentrated on what three aspects of speech sounds?

 

 

  1. a) How they are articulated, how they pattern, and how humans hear them
  2. b) How they are articulated, their physical properties, and how humans perceive them
  3. c) How they are articulated, their physical properties, and how they pattern
  4. d) None of the above

 

 

  1. What aspect of articulation is responsible for voice (for sounds that are voiced)?

 

 

a)The tongue, specifically, the tongue dorsum

  1. b) The tongue, specifically, the tongue tip
  2. c) The tongue, specifically the tongue blade
  3. d) The pharynx
  4. c) The vocal folds
  5. d) both (a) and (c)
  6. e) Both (c) and (d)
  7. f) None of the above

 

  1. Which of the following English sounds are voiced?

a.[s] and [t]

b.[k] and [f]

c.[m] and [v]

d.[j] and [g]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (c) and (d)

 

  1. Which of the following contains only sounds that are made with the tongue dorsum (i.e., the back of the tongue)?

a.[b], [d], [h], [k]

b.[v], [z], [g], [p]

c.[g], [k]

d.[t], [d]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (b) and (c)

g.None of the above

 

 

  1. Which of the following contains only sounds that are made at the velar place of articulation?

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a.[b], [d], [h], [k]

b.[v], [z], [g], [p]

c.[g], [k]

d.[t], [d]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (b) and (c)

g.None of the above

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The articulatory difference between the vowels in “bid” and “bed” is that

 

 

  1. a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
  2. b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
  3. c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
  4. d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
  5. e) both (a) and (b)
  6. f) both (b) and (c)
  7. g) none of the above

 

  1. The articulatory difference between the vowels in “Luke” and “look” is that

 

 

  1. a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
  2. b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
  3. c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
  4. d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
  5. e) both (a) and (b)
  6. f) both (b) and (c)
  7. g) none of the above

 

 

  1. The articulatory difference between the vowels in “beat” and “boot” is that

 

 

  1. a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
  2. b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
  3. c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
  4. d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
  5. e) both (a) and (b)
  6. f) both (b) and (c)
  7. g) none of the above

 

 

 

  1. Phonology is another linguistic subfield that deals with human speech sounds; it is concentrated on aspect of speech sounds?

 

 

  1. a) How they are articulated
  2. b) Their physical properties
  3. c) Their perception by human listeners
  4. d) Their patterning
  5. e) None of the above

 

 

  1. Which of the following are minimal pairs?

a.“boot” and “beat”

b.“cash” and “dash”

c.“crawl” and “drawl”

d.“treat” and “dream”

e.“tip” and “tips”

f.“go” and “went”

 

g.“fish” and “fishing”

h.both (a) and (b)

i.both (b) and (c)

j.(a), (b), and (c)

k.(e), (f), and (g)

l.None of the above

 

 

  1. Which of the following words contains a consonant cluster?

 

 

  1. a) “traps”
  2. b) “tea”
  3. c) “bowl”
  4. d) “though”

 

 

  1. How many morphemes does the word “fish” contain?

 

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

  1. None of the above

 

 

  1. How many morphemes does the word “fishing” contain?

 

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

  1. None of the above

 

  1. How many morphemes does the word “fishcakes” contain?

 

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

e.None of the above

 

 

  1. The word “fishcake” is an example of what word formation process?

 

 

  1. a) blending
  2. b) coinage
  3. c) compounding
  4. d) clipping
  5. e) backformation
  6. f) None of the above

 

  1. Describe why the sentence “I saw the man with a telescope” is ambiguous, and say what the two possible meanings are.

 

 

 

  1. Describe why “acquisition” is a better term than “learning” to describe the development of language in a child.

 

 

 

  1. Watch the 55-minute documentary “The Human Language Series: Acquiring Language”. Then, discuss what is meant when linguists say that language is“innate”. This understanding of the nature of human language started with Noam Chomsky in the 1950s, and it is now central to all of linguistics.

 

Your response should be at least 100 words. You can find the video on YouTube here:

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=j_KlekPZZ6k

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Question 30:     Other

 

Full 10-page criminology paper based on rational theory and how it affects the location, Chicago. Crimes, prevention, solutions, and etc.

 

Question 31: Other

 

Directions:

  1. Using this document, please insert your name in the space above.

 

  1. The midterm will consist of 2 essays and 1 long answer question. You will have a choice of 2 questions for each of the 2 essays. Your answers must be based on material from the course readings, so please make sure to reference your readings when applicable. Your midterm is designed to measure your understanding of the reading and your ability to work with the ideas presented by the authors in the response to the questions.

 

YOU MAY NOT CONSULT WITH ANYONE ABOUT ANY ASPECT OF THE EXAM. However, questions about clarity should be submitted via “Got Questions” on Blackboard. You may not consult web sources that are not part of the course materials while you are answering the exam.

 

  1. When you have completed your exam, please sign (electronically) the statement below that indicates that this is entirely your own work.

 

  1. Essay 1 (Length: 2 ½ to 3 ½ pgs; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
    1. Discuss the punitive criminal justice policies implemented at the end of the 20th century and their impact on the criminal justice system (including law enforcement, the courts, and corrections).

Or

    1.  Discuss the impact of public opinion, punitiveness, politics and the news media on the criminal justice system.

 

  1. Essay 2 (Length: 2 ½  to 3 ½ pgs; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
    1. Discuss the relationship between politics and criminal justice policy.

Or

    1. Select a controversial criminal justice issue and use the policy community framework to outline the participants, networks and relationships that will likely influence the policy-making process.

 

  1. The Long Answer (Length: 2 ½; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
    1. Briefly describe the first six stages of planned change (analyzing the problem, setting goals and objectives, designing the program, developing an action plan, monitoring program implementation and evaluating outcomes). What are the major questions we need to ask at each stage?

 

 

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Question 1: Health Care

DPH 655 Environmental Health Law Assignment
This is an individual assignment whereby you will identify a US law related to environmental health policy and explore its history and purpose. The paper should be 3 pages’ double spaced, 12 pt Times New Roman font, 1 inch margins. You should make sure your paper answers the questions below. Use professional voice. You should include scholarly citations in your paper (no Wikipedia, web MD, or the like). Answer the questions in paragraph form (do not simply list the questions and answer them).
1. What is the full name of the law?
2. What is the common name that the law is known by?
3. When was the law passed?
4. Describe any significant amendments.
5. What event or circumstances prompted the law’s passing?
6. What is the law’s impact on the environment? That is did it function as it was intended to?
7. In plain language, describe what the law does. Don’t get bogged down in the provisions and sections, highlight and summarize the main point of the law in your own words.
8. What is the state of the law today? Is it working as intended? Is it playing a key role in current environmental issues? Has it been involved in any interesting legal or policy battles? If so, describe that.
Use your own words. Cite references in APA style. Theowl@Purdue is a wonderful resource for proper APA citation. Papers will be analyzed for plagiarism through TurnItIn.
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Question 2: English

Norovirus in Vermont
PART I. OUTBREAK DETECTION

On the morning of February 5, the mother of a young child called the Vermont Department of Health (VDH) to report a possible foodborne outbreak. The woman’s child, age 5 years, and two neighborhood children, ages 7 and 10 years, had become ill with vomiting and diarrhea within 12 hours of each other. The child aged 5-years had become so sick that her mother had taken her to the emergency department at the local hospital.
The mother reported that her child initially complained of nausea around 10:00 a.m. on Monday, February 2. The nausea was followed by vomiting and multiple episodes of diarrhea. The child was unable to eat or drink anything without vomiting. Toward evening, the child became listless. The woman took the child to the emergency department where she was noted to be dehydrated and that she had a fever. Stool and blood specimens were collected, and the child was treated with intravenous fluids and released.
The mother called the emergency department the following day to receive the test results for her child. A nurse told her that preliminary stool culture results were “negative for the usual bacteria.”
The two neighborhood children had had similar symptoms (i.e., nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever) but had not become as ill as the woman’s child. Their symptoms started a few hours earlier than her child’s. Both had returned to school the day after becoming ill.
The three children usually did not play together but had attended a birthday party on the morning of Sunday, February 1. The mother was concerned about homemade ice cream that was served at the party because she had heard it had been prepared using raw eggs.
After confirming the mother’s information with the emergency department physician, VDH staff called the mother who had organized the February 1 birthday party. The woman reported that her own child was well (except for a cold). Other parents had called her, however, saying that their children had become ill with vomiting and diarrhea.
The woman reported that her son’s birthday party had occurred at a private indoor swim club in Essex, Vermont, close to Burlington. Approximately 30 children and adults were in attendance. The children ranged in age from 5 to 10 years. Not all of the children attended the same school.
Cake, ice cream, and canned drinks had been served at the party. All refreshments had been commercially prepared. The ice cream had not contained raw eggs.
The majority of children had played in the pool at the swim club before presents were opened and cake and ice cream were served. Two children who later became ill had left the party before cake and ice cream were served to attend another birthday party.
The mother provided a list of party attendees, indicating which ones she knew had been ill, and their telephone numbers. She also provided the name and telephone number for the swim club manager.
PART II. HYPOTHESIS GENERATION
VDH investigators notified the district health department of the problem and then contacted the manager of the private swim club. The manager stated that he was dealing with a “problem” and refused to talk with health department investigators. He suggested that they leave their telephone number and he would call them back if he had time.
After VDH investigators stated the reason for their call and reassured the swim club manager that the health department needed to investigate the reported illnesses so that the source could be found and actions could be taken to prevent others from becoming ill, the manager spoke with investigators.
The manager had not heard about the illnesses associated with the February 1 birthday party, but had received reports of illness among other persons who had used the pool during the weekend. Rumors were circulating that participants in the infant-mother swim class (that last met on Saturday, January 31) were sick with “stomach flu.”

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The manager provided VDH investigators with the names and contact information for persons who had complained to him about being ill and for members of the infant-mother swim class.
VDH investigators, with the assistance of district health department staff, contacted households of persons who had visited the swim club and reported illness since January 27 to VDH, the mother organizing the February 1 birthday party, or the swim club manager. Investigators asked about specific symptoms, the date of illness onset, and the most recent date the ill person had visited the swim club.

On the basis of these calls, 21 persons were identified as having attended the swim club and having reported being ill (Table 1). Signs and symptoms included vomiting (90%), nausea (81%), abdominal cramps (67%), diarrhea (48%), fever (48%), and headache (43%). Symptoms began a median of 30 hours (range: 8−62 hours) after visiting the swim club.

During the calls, multiple parents, who had been at the pool on January 31 noted that the water in the pool had been cloudy. One parent had reported the pool’s condition to the lifeguard and was told that the cloudiness resulted from chemicals added to the water. The parent later saw another swim club staff member collecting water from the pool for testing. No one reported having seen a fecal incident or vomiting while they were at the pool.
On the basis of the initial findings, VDH investigators believed that the gastrointestinal illness was consistent with norovirus infection. They hypothesized that the virus was spread by exposure to the pool at the private swim club on Saturday, January 31, or Sunday, February 1. The district health department arranged collection of stool specimens from 10 patients for norovirus testing at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), using reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR).

PART III. ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES AND WATER QUALITY INVESTIGATION
On the afternoon of February 5, VDH environmental health investigators undertook a comprehensive evaluation of the private swim club associated with the gastroenteritis outbreak. Investigators met with the swim club manager, the pool operator, and staff on duty during the outbreak period.
The goal of the evaluation was to gain a thorough understanding of the design features of the swim club and its operations so that investigators could explore the suspected source of the outbreak and assess factors that might have contributed to its occurrence.

VDH environmental health investigators learned the following information about the swim club and its operations. The club actually had two indoor swimming pools: a smaller activity pool and a lap pool. The smaller activity pool had been used for the February 1 birthday party and the infant-mother swimming class. The club also had a hot tub, men’s and women’s locker rooms, a sauna, and a party room where food was served for private events (Figure 2).

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The lap pool, activity pool, and hot tub were situated close to each other (Figure 2). The men’s and women’s locker rooms were adjacent to the pools. Each locker room had a diaper-changing station. Hand-washing signs were posted throughout the club.

The swim club was popular for children’s parties because the activity pool had a slide. Swim classes were also held at the club; classes for children and infants-mothers were held in the activity pool. The club did not have a snack bar. Food for private parties was brought in by event organizers. Pool staff did not help prepare or distribute food for these special events.
Municipal public water was used to fill the pools. The water in the three pools circulated separately for treatment, moving first through a hair and lint strainer (where the larger debris in the water was removed) and then to a pump. From the pump, the water was forced through a rapid sand filter, where it was then disinfected. After disinfection, the water was heated and returned to the pool through a series of inlets in the pool wall.
Water recirculated continuously in all three pools. State law required turnover rates of 6 hours for the lap pool, 2 hours for the activity pool, and 1 hour for the hot tub. Flow meters measured the flow rate for filtration of the water from each pool.
Liquid sodium hypochlorite was used to disinfect the pools at the swim club. An automated disinfectant feeder was attached to the filtration system, helping to mix the disinfectant with the water. A device operating in conjunction with the disinfectant feeder automatically adjusted the pH of filtered and chlorinated water.
Pool operations at the private swim club were performed by lifeguards. However, they received no standardized training or certification in pool maintenance but took instructions from the pool operator who serviced the pool equipment and made decisions regarding water treatment. Staff reported that they tested the water from each pool twice daily; but no records of the results were maintained.

Because no records of water chemistry were maintained at the swim club, aquatic staff were asked to recall water conditions during the weekend and the quantity, time, and type of chemical solutions they had added to each pool. Staff were also asked about any unusual occurrences (e.g., fecal incidents, vomiting, or deviations from normal operating procedures).
On Friday, January 30, no abnormalities in pool water appearance were noted by staff, and testing of water from all three pools was reported as being “normal”. Staff had reported a marked cloudiness of the water in the activity pool on Saturday and that patrons had complained about the cloudiness. No action was taken, despite complaints from patrons concerning water quality, because the pool operator was off-duty.
The cloudiness of the activity pool persisted through Sunday morning, February 1. Chlorine and pH readings taken by staff at that time were “below acceptable standards.” The pool operator was called, and staff were instructed to superchlorinate the pool with several cups of 65% calcium hypochlorite granules.

On Monday morning, the pool operator returned to duty at the swim club and tested a water sample from the activity pool. The sample revealed a total chlorine of 1.5 parts per million (ppm), a free available chlorine of 0.5 ppm, and a pH of 6.8.

Upon his return to the swim club, the pool operator found a kink in the chemical feed pump tube that supplied sodium hypochlorite to the activity pool water. The kink was repaired and the pool was super chlorinated again Monday night (February 2). The pool operator reported that the chlorine and pH were within normal limits when tested Tuesday morning, February 3. These findings were confirmed by VDH investigators.

The swim club did not have standard operating procedures detailing how to respond to abnormal pool chemistries; how to handle water quality complaints; or how to respond to fecal incidents, vomiting, or problems when the pool operator was off-duty. Because aquatic staff turnover at the pool was high, the swim club manager believed that the pool operator should make decisions about pool problems on a case-by-case basis.

PART IV. EPIDEMIOLOGIC STUDY TO TEST THE HYPOTHESIS
After the environmental health assessment of the private swim club, VDH investigators conducted an epidemiologic study to confirm suspicions regarding the source of the outbreak and to identify risk factors for infection.
The swim club manager estimated that 250 persons had visited the club from Friday, January 30−Monday, February 2. Pool attendance records and contact information were available for swim club members. The club manager also provided contact names for group events held at the pool during this time period.
VDH investigators decided to undertake a cohort study because the outbreak was confined to a well-defined group of persons (i.e., those individuals who had visited the pool during January 30–February 2) and the exposure of interest was known. A cohort study also permitted investigators to identify all cases and calculate attack rates.
Investigators planned to contact swim club members who had been at the club during the outbreak period and persons who had attended the special events during that weekend. Each person (or his or her parent) was to be asked about recent gastrointestinal illnesses; onset of symptoms; specific swimming pool exposures; food and water consumption while at the swim club; use of locker rooms, showers, and toilets; and whether they witnessed anyone vomiting or any fecal incidents at the pool. A VDH epidemiologist developed a questionnaire to collect the information.

VDH and district health department staff members were trained to administer the questionnaire by telephone for the cohort study. Interviews were conducted during February 12−22. Information was collected for 189 (74%) of the 255 persons who had visited the swim club during the period of interest.
A case was defined as vomiting or diarrhea (i.e., three or more loose stools within a 24-hour period) in a person who had gone to the swim club during the outbreak period and who experienced symptoms within 72 hours of visiting the facility. Investigators calculated attack rates and relative risks for different exposures at the club and set a P value of 0.05 as the cut-off for statistical significance.
Fifty-two (33%) of the 160 persons who either swam in or accompanied children who swam in the activity pool met the case definition. Only one (4%) of the 28 persons who only used other parts of the facility (e.g., lap pool, hot tub, or locker rooms) met the case definition. Because of these findings, further analyses were restricted to the 157 persons who either swam in or accompanied children who swam in the activity pool and who provided investigators complete information.
Attack rates were 0% (0/21) for persons who used the activity pool on January 30; 57% (25/44) for persons who used the pool on January 31; 29% (22/75) for persons who used the pool on February 1; and 12% (2/17) for persons who used the pool on February 2. Six persons, including three who were ill, had exposures to the pool on multiple days. Attack rates also varied by other exposures in and around the activity pool (Table 2).

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In the cohort study, going into the activity pool at the private swim club was significantly associated with illness. Among persons who went into the activity pool, getting water in the mouth and getting splashed in the face were significantly associated with illness. Neither swimming (versus wading) nor using the slide was associated with illness.

Use of the locker rooms or showers at the swim club was not significantly associated with illness. However, eating and drinking at the swim club were significantly associated with illness.

Eating and drinking at the facility accounted for only 18 (35%) of the 52 cases of gastrointestinal illness. Furthermore, investigators noted that persons who ate and drank at the facility were largely limited to children attending the birthday party on the morning of February 1, when the water in the activity pool was highly suspect in terms of maintenance failures and contamination.

When analyses were stratified by date of exposure to the swim club, persons eating at the facility or drinking at the facility were at no greater risk for illness than other persons attending the club on the same day. In addition, multivariate logistic regression analysis identified the date of attendance at the facility and getting water in the mouth were the only factors significantly associated with illness. Investigators concluded that food and drinks were not independent risk factors for illness.

PART V. CONTROL AND PREVENTION MEASURES
The cohort study confirmed suspicions that the outbreak was spread by exposure to water in the activity pool at the private swim club and likely resulted from a fecal incident in the pool when the chlorinator was not functioning properly.

Five of 10 stool specimens collected from ill persons and submitted to CDC tested positive for norovirus by RT-PCR testing. The nucleotide sequences of the amplified RT-PCR products were identical, indicating a single contamination event at the activity pool.
The chlorinator was fixed and, at the time of the pool evaluation, pool chlorine and pH were consistent with recommended national standards.

VDH investigators believed that a lack of pool staff training, inadequate record-keeping, and lack of standard operating procedures contributed to the outbreak. Consequently, VDH investigators recommended that all pool staff at the club be trained in water testing and basic pool maintenance and that the pool operator remain onsite or be readily available for consultation during weekends, when pool usage was usually highest. Investigators also recommended that the club keep records of routine pool chemistries and pool maintenance.

In addition, investigators recommended that the swim club develop written standard operating procedures and emergency response plans detailing how water-quality complaints should be handled, the correct response, and lines of communication to the pool operator. In particular, VDH investigators recommended the development of a fecal incident response policy.

VDH investigators helped the swim club manager and pool operator develop a written policy for responding to fecal incidents. As part of the policy, staff were to document each fecal incident by recording the date and time of the event, whether it involved a formed or diarrheal stool, and the free chlorine levels and pH at the time the event was detected.

Pool management distributed the fecal incident response policy to all swim club staff and held special classes to review the approach to a fecal incident. New staff members received the policy and viewed a short video about the steps necessary to respond to a fecal incident.
After the investigation, members of the private swim club voiced concern about the adequacy of actions taken to prevent future waterborne outbreaks at the club. The club manager asked VDH staff to meet with interested club members.

EPILOGUE

The number of recreational water-associated outbreaks in the United States has increased substantially since 1978 when CDC first began collecting reports.3 The increase has been caused by outbreaks of gastroenteritis (Figure 3) and likely results from a combination of factors, including the emergence of chlorine-resistant pathogens (e.g., Cryptosporidium), increased participation in aquatic activities by the public, and an increased number and variety of aquatic venues.

Source: CDC Waterborne Disease and Outbreak Surveillance System
During 2005−2006, a total of 78 recreational water-associated outbreaks were reported in the United States, resulting in 4,412 cases of illness. Fifty-eight (74%) of the outbreaks occurred at treated water venues, resulting in 94% of the cases of illness.
As experienced in Vermont, problems contributing to outbreaks associated with treated recreational water in 2005-2006 include low disinfectant levels, inadequate water-quality monitoring, breakdowns of equipment and lengthy detection times, inadequately trained aquatic staff, and unclear chains of communication for resolving problems. Unfortunately, these problems are not limited to facilities associated with waterborne outbreaks. In a study of pool inspections at six sites across the United States, over half of all pools had at least one violation. Water-chemistry violations comprised 38.7% of total violations, followed by violations of the filtration and recirculation system (38.6%), and policy and management violations (22.7%). Approximately 8% of pools were closed immediately because of public health concerns.4

Prevention of outbreaks in treated recreational water venues is likely to be accomplished only through concerted efforts by pool operators, the public, and public health professionals.

• Pool operators should employ multiple mechanisms to prevent contamination of pools and transmission of pathogenic agents, including effective facility design and pool maintenance. Operators should implement diarrhea-exclusion policies and disinfection guidelines after fecal incidents. In addition, staff should be trained to perform pool operations, enforce policies, and educate young bathers and their parents about healthy swimming practices.

• The public should follow basic guidelines for healthy swimming. They should avoid swallowing water and stay out of the pool when they have diarrhea. Because fecal shedding of pathogens is common, bathers should use appropriate hygienic measures around pools (e.g., showering before swimming, taking children on frequent bathroom breaks, and changing diapers in the bathroom instead of at the poolside). Pool policies and design should support these efforts by the public. Increased public awareness of pool safety issues and action can promote better maintenance of pools by operators.

• Public health professionals should lead prevention efforts that include surveillance, health education, epidemiologic and laboratory studies, and environmental health research. Public health professionals should (1) require and improve training for pool inspectors, (2) update pool codes to stay current with changing pool designs and needs, and (3) lead efforts to educate aquatic staff and the public. They should also work with industry representatives in developing easier, more effective methods for treating pool water. In addition, because the majority of gastrointestinal illnesses can be spread by water, food, person-to-person contact, and animal-to-person contact, investigators should keep an open mind when investigating such cases and consider all possible sources of transmission during the investigation of an outbreak.

Improved pool operator and public education combined with more effective methods of water treatment should increase swimming safety and reduce the risk for waterborne diseases associated with recreational water facilities.

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REFERENCES
1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). An outbreak of norovirus gastroenteritis at a swimming club—Vermont, 2004. MMWR Morb Mort Wkly Rep 2004; 53:793−5. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/mm5334a5.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.

2. Podewils LJ, Blevins L, Hagenbuch M, et al. Outbreak of norovirus illness associated with a swimming pool. Epidemiol Infect 2007; 135:827−33.

3. Yoder JS, Hlavsa M, Craun GF, et al. Surveillance for waterborne disease and outbreaks associated with recreational water use and other aquatic facility-associated health events—United States, 2005–2006. MMWR Surveill Sum 2008;57(No. SS-09);1−29. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/ss5709a1.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.

4. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Surveillance data from swimming pool inspections—selected states and counties, United States, May−September 2002. MMWR Morb Mort Wkly Rep 2003; 52:513−16. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/mm5222a1.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.
1. Describe the event.
2. Which individuals experienced the event?
3. When did they experience the event?
4. Where are the individuals who have experienced the event?
5. What environmental factors are associated with the event?
6. Given the differences in resources, how well were available resources used?
7. Evaluate the process; describe how you would have done things differently given the location, resources, and particular event.
8. Going forward, what screening mechanisms should be put in place to detect these conditions early?

Question 3: English

Instruction
To begin this assignment, you will examine the case study, “Missed Pickup Means a Missed Opportunity for 30 Seeking a Fellowship,” provided in this week’s resources. Then, to complete this Assignment, review the Learning Resources below, and respond to the following bullets in a 3- to 5-page paper, which will include 2 Appendices. Begin your paper with an introduction and then provide a summary of the case study (Missed Pickup). Prepare a needs assessment to analyze both employees’ skill levels identified in the scenario. Based on the needs assessment, prepare an analysis of what should have happened, and what actually did happen, in the scenario. Based on the needs assessment, evaluate the appropriateness among possible choices of action (strategies), including discipline, development, improvement, or termination for the two employees. As a Human Resources professional, create a performance improvement plan for each employee that outlines the following: Expected behaviors; Metrics for improvement; Required action steps; Consequences for not meeting the plan’s expected outcomes; Their manager’s role. Prepare instructions for the manager on how to conduct a meeting with each employee about improvements and consequences. Your Assignment must include 3–5 references to support your thinking. USE THE TEMPLATE BELOW, MUST USE SUPPORTING EVIDENCE, USE RESOURCES BELOW https://www.shrm.org/ResourcesAndTools/hr-topics/employee-relations/Pages/performance-improvement-plans.aspx https://www.thebalancecareers.com/performance-improvement-plan-contents-and-sample-form-1918850

U.S.
Missed Pickup Means a Missed
Opportunity for 30 Seeking a Fellowship
By DEAN E. MURPHY FEB. 5, 2004
A missed courier pickup, an honest clerk and an unyielding federal bureaucracy have conspired to deny 30 college students here the chance to compete for a prestigious Fulbright research grant.
”It seems surreal to me,” said Mary Ann Mason, dean of the graduate division at the University of California, Berkeley. ”It is an unnecessary, foolish, tragic incident.”
The students, all enrolled in doctoral studies, got the news on Tuesday night from the university’s chancellor, Robert M. Berdahl, that their applications were disqualified because they were late. Dr. Berdahl had earlier flown to Washington in a failed bid to persuade education officials in the Bush administration to change their minds.
”For these students to lose out on the opportunity to compete for the Fulbright award in this way is outrageous,” Dr. Berdahl said. ”No one could have imagined the Department of Education could have reacted the way it did.”
The department, which administers the Fulbright-Hays Doctoral Dissertation Research Abroad Fellowship Program, rejected the applications because they were not mailed by the Oct. 20 deadline, according to a letter to Dr. Berdahl from Sally L.
Stroup, an assistant secretary of education.
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On that day, the applications were in an envelope at the university’s Sproul Hall for pickup by Federal Express. But the courier did not come until the next morning because of a ”software glitch,” said Sandra Munoz, a FedEx spokeswoman.
The company provided the university with two letters acknowledging the mix-up and accepting blame for the late delivery. It also backdated the shipment’s air bill to reflect the intended Oct. 20 pickup date.
”We realize how serious this is, and the inconvenience we are causing everyone,” Ms. Munoz said. ”We certainly apologize.”
Late in the day on Oct. 20, an employee with the university’s graduate division sent an explanation by e-mail to the Education Department, which told the university to send the applications with the explanation from FedEx, university officials said.
For months, the university officials assumed the problem had been worked out. But the e-mail exchange, Dr. Mason said, came back to haunt them. It was cited last month by lawyers for the department as grounds for rejecting the applications, she said. Since the air bill had been backdated, the correspondence was apparently the only evidence that the applications had not been sent on time.
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”The final terrible remark of the lawyers was, ‘If you hadn’t e-mailed Washington, we would have let it go because we wouldn’t have known there was a problem,’ ” Dr. Mason said.
The implicit message, she said, was, ”Honesty is not the best policy.”
A spokeswoman for the Department of Education did not respond to several telephone messages seeking comment. In a statement released Wednesday, Assistant Secretary Stroup defended the decision.
”Although we are very sorry for UC Berkeley’s graduate students who had hopes of Fulbright-Hays doctoral fellowships, the facts are indisputable: UC Berkeley was negligent in failing to mail its application on time, despite the fact that for years the
university has applied for this program each fall,” she said.
”When it became apparent that Federal Express would not arrive in time, a simple trip to the post office would have ensured that the university’s application met the deadline,” she said. ”Sixty other institutions met the application deadline.”
Last year, 15 of the 30 applicants from Berkeley were awarded Fulbright fellowships, ranging from $20,000 to $64,000.
In retrospect, the officials said, it would have been prudent to take the package to a nearby FedEx office or the post office, but no one had envisioned a delivery error would have such consequences. Now, officials are looking to FedEx to bring about some sort of happy ending.
Dr. Mason said lawyers for the university were ”talking with FedEx about sharing some responsibility.” She said one idea was that FedEx would provide some doctoral research grant money.
Ms. Munoz said FedEx was eager to resolve the situation.
”Obviously,” she said, ”our goal is always 100 percent customer satisfaction.”
Jason Seawright, one of the applicants, said that while he would appreciate any help, it would be hard for any other grant to match the résumé-building force of a Fulbright.
”In addition to the money, this is something that opens doors in your career,” he said. ”Right, I’ll put that on my résumé: the FedEx fellowship.”
© 2016 The New York Times Company

Title of Your Paper, Centered, and Using Both Upper and Lowercase Letters
Your Name Here
Walden University

Instructor’s Name
Course Title and Number
Date:

Center the Title of Your Paper Here
Please regard this APA document as providing a template for most of your written paper assignments. If you read this essay carefully and print a copy for your use, it will be a great help as you create your assignments. We ask you to write most of your written paper assignments in with opening and closing paragraphs, a clear purpose that is accomplished in the course of the essay, and logically organized paragraphs that develop your ideas. Please notice what this introductory paragraph accomplishes. As you construct your introductory paragraph, remember to engage the reader and to express the purpose you hope to fulfill in the paper. In addition, the introduction may offer a roadmap or a plan for the paper as a whole.
This template generally follows APA formatting, but there are exceptions. A number of features appropriate for a long manuscript or for a dissertation are not necessary for relatively brief assignments. For example, you do not need an abstract for every assignment.
Throughout your paper, consider the way a paragraph looks on the page. The indentation and length of a paragraph convey a message to the reader, suggesting a brief or extensively developed unity of an idea. Two naturally emphatic places in any paragraph are the opening sentence and the closing sentence. Take advantage of these positions in a paragraph; use them for emphasis and for guiding your reader.
The opening sentence of any paragraph provides a natural opportunity to direct the reader from one idea to another. The sentence may function as a combination topic and transition device, suggesting to the reader where this particular section is headed. You may also use single words or phrases to connect your ideas to one another. Think of transitional expressions such as the following as glue or signposts: also, in addition, moreover, therefore, similarly, in contrast, although, or however. (You will find many more transitional expressions and the punctuation they require in any grammar book or on the Walden Writing Center website). It is your responsibility to demonstrate for the reader the relationship between one idea and another so that the reader never has to guess at the logical organization of your ideas.
Another way that you might wish to indicate organization to your reader is the use of headings. However, in your written paper assignments, no headings are required. If your paper exceeds five pages, or if you think that headings will help to convey the organization and clarity of a particularly complex paper, consult the Walden Writing Center for the correct formatting of the various levels of headings. Remember that headings alone will not accomplish what your writing should accomplish. In other words, your heading may announce “Conclusion,” but if a number of paragraphs introducing new ideas follow that heading, it is rather like a false advertisement and will confuse the reader.
Because this is a graduate program, your writing is expected to reflect Standard Edited English. That is, it is to be grammatically correct, formal, written English intended for silent reading. We do not usually speak in (or listen to) Standard Edited English; in our oral dialect, we naturally use contractions, slang, repetition, and all kinds of interpersonal oral signals to one another. In a rather formal writing context, however, none of those elements of speech are particularly useful or appropriate. In particular, APA style does not allow for the use of contractions (e.g., write it is instead of it’s) or informal slang (e.g., use learners or students instead of kids). Admittedly, the writing that you are submitting for a grade in your master’s courses is more formal than that to which you may be accustomed. Take the time to read your writing aloud; to consult a grammar source regarding some stylistic elements you might have forgotten over the years; to avoid contractions and the use of underlining; and to be sure that your sentences are clear to your reader. Write in your authentic voice but in your most intelligent and interesting voice as well. Imagine what questions your reader might ask you, and then provide your reader with well-developed, detailed, specific ideas rather than vague generalizations.
One essential way to develop your ideas is to ground them in the course materials you have been reading or in additional sources that you discover in the course of your studies. When you refer to the author of a required reading or to a statement by an expert on a video, you are offering a context for your idea that stems from the published research by experts in your field. Conversely, if your thinking remains vague and general and you do not ground your ideas in published references, your ideas are likely to be underdeveloped. Let your readers know that you have read (or viewed) and learned from the writings of education experts by either paraphrasing their ideas or quoting their language and following either the quote or a paraphrase with an in-text citation. For example, if you wanted to quote an extensive passage from Gardner’s The Unschooled Mind, the block quotation format as outlined would be:
We are able to know the world through language, logical-mathematical analysis, special representation, musical thinking, the use of the body to solve problems or to make things, an understanding of other individuals, and an understanding of ourselves. Where individuals differ is in the strength of these intelligences—the so-called profile of intelligences—and in the ways in which such intelligences are invoked and combined to carry out different tasks, solve diverse problems, and progress in various domains. (Gardner, 2004, p. 12)
Note that the block quotation as shown above is double-spaced. When you end your quotation, make sure the next paragraph transitions from that information so your reader can follow you. You might additionally want to include other theorists’ ideas to substantiate the above information. You can insert shorter quotations (fewer than 40 words) by using the format in the following sentence: Knowles (1998), an authority on adult learning theory, most likely described (use past tense for reporting research) adults as “motivated to learn to the extent that they perceive that learning will help them perform tasks or deal with problems that they confront in their life situations” (p. 67). The reader may be so intrigued with this allusion to Knowles’s idea that he or she may wish to follow up by consulting the same reference.
Note that if you are citing information from Laureate multimedia files, you will cite as (Laureate Education, 2016). The year may change depending on the multimedia file. The complete bibliographic information for the cited reference is available in the reference list for your reader to further investigate if he or she chooses. Full guidelines for citing Laureate multimedia files in current APA format appear on the Writing Center website at http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm. It is important to know that APA formatting does not support quoting directly from multimedia files. If you use any multimedia as support for your thinking, you must paraphrase and include the cited reference.
A third option open to you is to cite a fellow student’s discussion posting or other shared course work in your assignments to substantiate your own perspective. Citing other students is a way to use all resources available to you, and it demonstrates your willingness to give credit to your online colleagues. For example, in a critical analysis of a source, you might remark that a fellow student named Alex Jones identified an author’s study as “interesting but lacking in practical application to the classroom” (Jones, 2012) to indicate how your views harmonized with those of other classmates. Information on how to cite discussion posts and other more unique references in APA are found at the Writing Center’s citations web page.
Now, glance back over this essay to note that it is a well-developed piece of writing and not merely a five-paragraph, perfunctory essay. Notice the transitional expressions that allow your mind to move smoothly from one idea to the next. Not all paragraphs are the same length, suggesting that the author is able to develop ideas in various ways. Try to determine what single topic unifies each paragraph. Ask yourself, “What question does this paragraph attempt to answer?” All sentences do not look or sound alike either: Some are brief and direct, while others are more complex and flowing. With practice and a bit of extra time, you can create an assignment that not only looks professional but also conveys your ideas powerfully and earns you the grade you seek.
Some program tools can assist you in creating documents with a professional appearance. The MS Word Troubleshooting site can be a helpful resource. If you have Office 365, go to Tools and then Spelling and Grammar down at the bottom of the box. Alternatively, you may use another resource to check your documents by going to Review and then select Spelling and Grammar. When a green squiggle line (indicating potential grammatical error) or a red squiggle line (indicating potential spelling error) appears, right click on the line and you will get a message about the possible error. However, remember that this is just a computer program and therefore not as wise as the judgment of the author who has consulted a grammar or usage dictionary. You might also consider using Grammar, a more comprehensive, free grammar revision tool available through the Walden Writing Center website.
Finally, just before submitting your work to your faculty member, ask yourself, “Have I fully addressed the complete assignment?” Then in your concluding paragraph, end your essay, rather like the last gesture of tying the ribbon on a present. Some writers close an essay with a concise summary of key ideas because there is no need for unnecessary repetition in a brief essay as in the following sentence. In this essay, we have identified, modeled, and directed you to the key requirements. Others like to offer an idea that takes the reader beyond the implications of this particular treatment of the topic. However, you choose to close your essay, do close the door firmly, thereby giving the reader a satisfying sense of completion.
References
Note: For additional information regarding APA formatting, consult

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http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm.

Fisher, D. (2004). Setting the “opportunity to read” standard: Resuscitating the SSR program in an urban high school. Journal of Adolescent and Adult Literacy, 48, 138-150. doi:10.1598/JAAL.48.2.5 When a DOI is available for documents you retrieve from a library database, such as EBSCOHost or ProQuest, use the DOI. Often, the DOI is printed directly on the first page of the article. Never use the URL from the library database because it is a password-protected site.
Frey, N., & Allen, A. (2008). Retelling informational text to improve reports of information. The California Reader, 41(2), 12-15. Retrieved from http://www.californiareads.org/california_reader.htm When no DOI is available, use the home page of the journal and “retrieved from” even though you obtained the article from a database (e.g., ProQuest) or other electronic source. You may need to use a search engine (e.g., Google or Yahoo) to find the homepage. If you used a copy on paper, there is no need to include a DOI or journal homepage.
Gardner, H. (1999). Intelligence reframed: Multiple intelligences for the 21st century. New York, NY: Basic Books.
Gardner, H. (2004). The unschooled mind: How children think and how schools should teach. New York, NY: Basic Books.
Knowles, M. (1998). The adult learner. Woburn, MA: Butterworth-Heinemann.
Swan, D. (2006, September 22). Learning styles. Message posted to EDUC 6610 discussion board, Week 3.

Appendix: Guidelines for Formatting Multimedia Files

Note: Walden’s guidelines for citing multimedia files can be found here:
http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm.

Across the courses, the in-text citation is (Laureate Education, date)
Note: The publishing date for multimedia files are found in the Course Syllabus under Course Materials. This is the date you will use in the in-text citation and in the reference entry.

1. If you are using the Multimedia file, the correct formatting is:
Laureate Education. (Producer). (2015). Voices from the field: The 21st century
[Multimedia file]. Baltimore, MD: Author

Note: Use the actual word Author; do not substitute the author’s name. Also, the title of the program is in italics.
2. How do you tell if the multimedia file is in a series or a single source?
Multimedia files that are part of a series will usually be listed as Part 1, Part 2, or Program 1, Program 2, etc. Some multimedia files are clearly labeled as being excerpts from a series.
3. If you are viewing the multimedia files in the Resource section of 6610, the correct reference entry is:
Laureate Education. (Producer). (year). Name of program [Multimedia file]. Baltimore, MD Author.
Note: Use the actual word Author; do not substitute the author’s name. Also, the title of the program is in italics.

Note: Use the above for stand-alone multimedia that are (a), not part of a series and (b), are viewed via a media. The title of the multimedia file is in italics. In the case of a multimedia file that is part of a series, the individual program is not in italics, but the series title is italicized instead.

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Question 4: Business

conduct an Internet search on the following topics: “History of Hospitals” “Hospitals of the Early Christian Era” “Hospitals in the Renaissance” “Medieval Hospitals” “Health Care and Hospitals in the Twenty-first Century” Utilizing the above information, develop an outline that identify the key turning points in the historical development of the hospital concept, including the evolution of ethical and legal issues related to health care. The outline should be in the form of bulleted information – sentences or paragraphs are not needed. Then, consider and briefly explain the following in preparation of your outline: How the development of the hospital has been a difficult process, legally and ethically. How time and public enlightenment were necessary to overcome major barriers of ignorance and prejudice. Support your outline with a minimum of three scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-pages, not including title and reference pages

Question 5: Health Care

Write 12 pages, APA format and include a cover page, reference page, and any applicable tables or appendices. Research proposal should have a nursing theoretical foundation

Your research proposal must include the following sections: Background and rationale for the study Review of the relevant literature Design and methodology You must include the following components: Section One: Introduction The research proposal should: Start with a statement of the problem and objective for the study, which articulates the main objectives that the study desires to achieve. Include a description of the theoretical framework to be utilized and a rationale for choosing a framework. Describe the significance and relevance of the problem. Why is this particular study needed? How will findings contribute to the field of advanced practice nursing? Why is this research needed? Section Two: Literature Review The literature review should: Be a synthesis of the major concepts from recently published research findings. Be organized by themes and not just a report about what each author discovered in his or her research findings. Identify no fewer than six relevant research articles. Synthesize the literature in relation to where the study fits within the context of the proposed study. Section Three: Design and Methodology In this section, what is to be done, and who, what, how, and where are all to be included in your proposal. The methods should be relevant to the question that is to be answered as a result of the research study. There should be information included about the study design, the setting and sample, data collection methods, and data collection analysis procedures. Ethical considerations should also be addressed in this area. Limitations and a plan for communicating the research findings should also be included in this section. All critical elements of design and methods should be detailed, including: Definitions of the variables Identification of the population and sample Procedures for sampling Processes for obtaining consent to do the study Informed consent form to be given to research participants Data collection procedures A clearly stated method of data analysis An explanation on why your data analysis method is appropriate for your research Issues related to validity and reliability Ethical considerations (including plans for the protection of human subjects as appropriate)

Question 6: English

Write a 3-4 page extra credit essay of how digital media has affected individual and cultural understanding of and relationship to food.

Digital Project: Food Culture
For this optional, extra credit assignment, you will be tasked with researching food and food culture via various digital channels and using your findings to carve out your own role in the world of digital food culture. The purpose of this assignment is for you to explore how digital media has affected individual and cultural understanding of and relationship to food.
The assignment will be in 3 parts, each of which has its own point value (listed below).
Part 1: For the first part of this assignment, you will do what I like to call “light research” (i.e., informal, without need for MLA formatted citations) on food culture in digital media. In your research, you will spend some time looking through at least three of the following channels: food magazines (online), food blogs (websites), food “influencers” (Instagram, YouTube, etc.), and food television (Netflix, cable, etc.). Make a list of the shows, influencers, magazines, and/or blogs you come across, highlighting specific details about each. Consider making a list/chart/etc. to outline these similarities/differences you see.
Part 2: After you do your research, you will construct an explanation of your findings that is 1-2 pages in length (roughly 300-500 words). This will be a coherent response that utilizes complete sentences and appropriate academic language. Your response will detail what research you did and, more specifically, what factors stood out in your research. Such factors include but are not limited to: the similarities/differences in presentation, major themes, significant flaws, etc. You will, essentially, explain and expand upon the notes you took throughout the research portion (Part 1). Don’t forget to draw conclusions about what this all means!
Part 3: Finally, after you’ve (1) done your research and (2) drawn up conclusions about your research, you will (3) consider what role you play in all of this. In a short response of 100-150 words (a few sentences), you will identify the role you play in the realm of digital food culture. Are you a creator, viewer, or something else? Why/how? To what extent? Identify and explain why and how you play the role you do, and any other relevant details about your engagement with digital food culture.
Again, this is an optional, extra credit assignment. Adhere to the rules above, but have fun with it! Find below the point values for each portion of the assignment:
1. Part 1: 20 points possible
2. Part 2: 25 points possible
3. Part 3: 5 points possible
4. Total: 50 points possible
Question 7: Mathematics

Sample Final Exam 1 Part A
James is taking a computer science course. The mark breakdown is as follows:
• Midterm Exam 1 – 20% • Midterm Exam 2 – 30% • Final Exam – 50%
All exams are out of 100 marks. James received scores of 70 on Midterm Exam 1 and 60 on Midterm Exam 2. To receive a final grade of B+ in the course, a student requires a final grade of 75% or higher. What is the minimum score James must get on the final exam in order to receive a final grade of B+?
(A) 78 (B) 83 (C) 86 (D) 90 (E) 95
A researcher is studying how the height of children during early adolescence is affected by milk consumption. She plots the heights (in inches) and the milk consumption (in cups per day) for a sample of children and wants to fit a least squares regression line to the data. She calculates the following for this sample of children:
• The correlation between milk consumption and height is 0.4.
• The mean milk consumption is 4.0 cups per day.
• The mean height is 60.0 inches.
• The standard deviation of milk consumption is 1.5 cups per day. • The standard deviation of heights is 3.0 inches.
What is the predicted height of a child who consumes 5 cups of milk per day?
(A) 60.4 inches (B) 60.8 inches (C) 61.2 inches (D) 61.6 inches (E) 62.0 inches
3. A biologist is studying the mercury levels in fish from three different lakes in the area. She selects random samples of ten fish from each lake. The sample of 30 fish is a:
(A) stratified sample.
(B) simple random sample. (C) convenience sample. (D) multistage sample.
(E) systematic sample.
4. The head of the Department of Mathematics would like to determine whether student performance in an introductory math course differs depending on the professor of the course and the time of day the course is offered. Two math professors, Dr. Smith and Dr. Johnson, are each teaching two sections of the same introductory math course this semester. Dr. Smith teaches sections A01 (at 9:30 a.m.) and A03 (at 1:30 p.m.) and Dr. Johnson teaches sections A02 (at 9:30 a.m.) and A04 (at 1:30 p.m.). At the end of the semester, the department head will compare the average grades of the students in the four sections.
This is an example of:
(A) a completely randomized design with four treatments.
(B) a randomized block design with two blocks and two treatments. (C) a randomized block design with four blocks and four treatments. (D) a matched pairs design with two treatments.
(E) an observational study.
2

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The next two questions (5 and 6) refer to the following:
The following five games are scheduled to be played at the World Curling Championships one morning. The values in parentheses are the probabilities of each team winning their respective game.
Game 1: Game 2: Game 3: Game 4: Game 5:
Finland (0.43) USA (0.28) Japan (0.11) Denmark (0.33) France (0.18)
vs. Germany (0.57) vs. Switzerland (0.72) vs. Canada (0.89)
vs. Sweden (0.67)
vs. Scotland (0.82)
The outcome of interest is the set of winners for each of the five games. How many outcomes are contained in the appropriate sample space?
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 25 (D) 32 (E) 64
In a sports game, the “favourite” is the team with the higher probability of winning and the “underdog” is the team that is less likely to win. What is the probability that at least one underdog wins their game?
(A) 0.93 (B) 0.74 (C) 0.80 (D) 0.67 (E) 0.59
The next five questions (7 to 11) refer to the following:
Suppose we have the following facts about customers buying alcohol at the Liquor Mart:
• 55% buy wine (W).
• 40% buy beer (B).
• 22% buy wine and beer.
• 6% buy wine and vodka (V ).
• 5% buy beer and vodka.
• 50% buy beer or vodka.
• 2% buy wine and beer and vodka.
7. If we randomly select a customer, what is the probability the customer buys vodka? (A) 0.10 (B) 0.15 (C) 0.19 (D) 0.25 (E) 0.28
3
8. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Events W and B are independent.
(B) Events W and B are mutually exclusive. (C) Events W and V are independent.
(D) Events W and V are mutually exclusive. (E) Events B and V are independent.
If we randomly select a customer, what is the probability the customer buys only wine? (A) 0.14 (B) 0.17 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.29 (E) 0.34
In a random sample of 17 customers, what is the probability that exactly 10 of them buy wine?
(A) 0.1153 (B) 0.1367 (C) 0.1495 (D) 0.1629 (E) 0.1841
In a random sample of 300 customers, what is the approximate probability that less than 38% of them buy beer?
(A) 0.0808 (B) 0.1492 (C) 0.1736 (D) 0.2389 (E) 0.2929
In a particular election, 40% of voters voted for the NDP, 35% voted for the Liberals and 25% voted for the Conservatives. If we take a random sample of two voters, what is the probability that they voted for different parties?
(A) 0.765 (B) 0.345 (C) 0.525 (D) 0.655 (E) 0.485
There are four patients on the neonatal ward of a local hospital who are monitored by two nurses. Suppose the probability (at any one time) of a patient requiring attention by a nurse is 0.3. Assuming the patients behave independently, what is the probability at any one time that there will not be enough nurses to attend to all patients who need them? (i.e., what is the probability that at least three patients require attention at the same time?)
(A) 0.0756 (B) 0.1104 (C) 0.0837 (D) 0.0463 (E) 0.2646
4
14. The yearly rainfall in Vancouver, B.C. follows a normal distribution with standard
deviation 172 mm. In 20% of years, the city gets over 1200 mm of rain. What is the mean annual rainfall in Vancouver (in mm)?
(A) 1055.5 (B) 1165.6 (C) 982.6 (D) 1344.5 (E) 1234.4 The next two questions (15 and 16) refer to the following:
The time X taken by a cashier in a grocery store express lane to complete a transaction follows a normal distribution with mean 90 seconds and standard deviation 20 seconds.
What is the first quartile of the distribution of X (in seconds)?
(A) 73.8 (B) 85.0 (C) 69.4 (D) 81.2 (E) 76.6
What is the probability that the average service time for the next three customers is between 80 and 100 seconds?
(A) 0.6156
(B) 0.4893
(C) 0.7212
(D) 0.5559
(E) impossible to calculate with the information given
5
The next two questions (17 and 18) refer to the following:
The amount X spent (in $) by customers in the grocery store express lane follows some
right-skewed distribution with mean $24 and standard deviation $15.
17. What is the probability that the average amount spent by the next three customers is more than $20?
(A) 0.4619
(B) 0.6772
(C) 0.8186
(D) 0.7673
(E) impossible to calculate with the information given
What is the approximate probability that the next 40 customers spend less than $1,000 in total?
(A) 0.5199 (B) 0.6064 (C) 0.6628 (D) 0.5784 (E) 0.6331
An economist calculates that, in order to estimate the true mean amount spent per year by Canadians on Christmas presents to within $60 with 95% confidence, she requires a sample of 90 Canadians. What sample size would be required to estimate the true mean amount spent per year by Canadians on Christmas presents to within $20 with 95% confidence?
(A) 10 (B) 30 (C) 156 (D) 270 (E) 810
The breaking strength of yarn used in the production of woven carpet material is normally distributed with standard deviation 2.4 psi. A random sample of 4 specimens of yarn from a production run is measured for breaking strength, and a confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (128.609, 134.191). What is the confidence level for this interval?
(A) 0.90 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.96 (D) 0.98 (E) 0.99
6
21. A variable X is described by a semi-circular density curve with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.4, as shown below:
We take a simple random sample of 100 individuals from the semi-circular distribution and calculate the sample mean x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.004. (B) semi-circular with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.04.
(C) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.4. (D) semi-circular with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.004.
(E) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.04.
22. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to examine whether there is evidence that the true mean amount spent on textbooks by U of M students in one semester is greater than $400. A random sample of 50 students is selected and the mean amount spent on textbooks for one semester is calculated to be $430. Assume the population standard deviation is known to be $165. What is the P-value for the appropriate hypothesis test?
(A) 0.0985 (B) 0.0409 (C) 0.0764 (D) 0.1112 (E) 0.0630
7
23. A man accused of committing a crime is taking a polygraph (lie detector) test. The polygraph is essentially testing the hypotheses
H0: The man is telling the truth. vs. Ha: The man is lying.
Suppose we use a 5% level of significance. Based on the man’s responses to the questions
asked, the polygraph determines a P-value of 0.08. We conclude that:
(A) there is insufficient evidence that the man is telling the truth. (B) there is sufficient evidence that the man is telling the truth. (C) there is insufficient evidence that the man is lying.
(D) the probability that the man is lying is 0.08.
(E) the probability that the man is telling the truth is 0.08.
A statistician conducted a test of H0: μ = 10 vs. Ha: μ > 10 for the mean μ of some normally distributed variable X. Based on the gathered data, the statistician calculated a sample mean of x ̄ = 12 and concluded that H0 could be rejected at the 5% level of significance. Using the same data, which of the following statements must be true?
AtestofH0: μ=10vs. Ha: μ>10atthe1%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
AtestofH0: μ=9vs. Ha: μ>9atthe5%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
AtestofH0: μ=10vs. Ha: μ̸=10atthe5%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II (E) II and III
A sample of 30 vehicles is outfitted with snow tires. The vehicles travel 80 km/h in winter driving conditions and apply the brakes. The sample mean and standard deviation of stopping distances for these 30 vehicles are calculated to be 162 metres and 35 metres, respectively. We would like to test whether the true mean stopping distance differs from 150 metres. At the 1% level of significance, we should:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.02 and 0.025.
(B) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.025 and 0.05. (C) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.025 and 0.05.
(D) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.05 and 0.10.
8
The next two questions (26 and 27) refer to the following:
Researchers are studying the impact of alcohol consumption on a person’s ability to perform a simple task. Five subjects complete a small puzzle while sober, and then again after drinking three glasses of wine. The times (in seconds) are shown below, as well as some summary statistics:
Subject Sober (S) After Wine (AW)
1
2
3
4
5 mean 169.2 198.6
std. dev. 55.9 72.5
109 132 248 155 202 141 128 290 174 260
Diff.(d=S−AW) −32 4 −42 −19 −58 −29.4 23.5
Assume that all necessary normality conditions are satisfied. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean time to complete a puzzle is longer after consuming three glasses of wine.
26. What are the hypotheses for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd <0
(B) H0: μS =μAW vs.Ha: μS >μAW (C) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d <0
(D) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd >0
(E) H0: X ̄S = X ̄AW vs. Ha: X ̄S < X ̄AW
27. The P-value of the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.01 and 0.02. (B) between 0.02 and 0.025. (C) between 0.025 and 0.05. (D) between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) between 0.10 and 0.15.
28. You want to estimate the proportion of Canadians who would support a merger of the federal NDP and Liberal parties to within 0.035 with 92% confidence. What sample size is required?
(A) 625 (B) 784 (C) 466 (D) 816 (E) 553
9
We would like to estimate the true proportion p of Manitobans who are bilingual (fluent in two languages). We take a random sample of 200 Manitobans and find that 42 of them are bilingual. What is the margin of error for a 95% confidence interval for p?
(A) 0.0565 (B) 0.0353 (C) 0.0693 (D) 0.0288 (E) 0.0404
The Acme Car Company claims that less than 8% of its new cars have a manufacturing defect. A quality control inspector randomly selects 300 new cars and finds that 15 have a defect. He conducts a hypothesis test to examine the significance of the car company’s claim. What is the P-value of the appropriate hypothesis test?
(A) 0.0359 (B) 0.0485 (C) 0.0162 (D) 0.0571 (E) 0.0274
10
Sample Final Exam 1 Part B
The shower flow rates (in L/min) for a sample of 30 houses are ordered and shown below:
2.2 2.8 3.8 4.2 4.6 5.0 5.7 6.0 6.2 6.2 6.5 6.5 6.7 6.8 7.0 7.2 7.3 7.4 7.4 7.6 7.7 7.9 8.0 8.1 8.5 8.6 8.7 8.8 8.8 11.4
(a) Find the five-number summary for this data set.
(b) Construct an outlier boxplot for this data set. Show any necessary calculations. What is the shape of the distribution, excluding outliers?
We would like to examine how the age X of a certain model of car affects its selling price Y . The age (in years) and price (in $) for a sample of 10 cars of the same make and model are recorded from the classified ads in the newspaper one weekend. The least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = 18, 600 − 1, 700x. It is also determined that 81% of the variation in a car’s price can be accounted for by its regression on age.
(a) Provide an interpretation of the slope of the least squares regression line in this example.
(b) What is the value of the correlation between age and price for these cars?
(c) One car in the sample is 5 years old and has a price of $15,500. Calculate the value of the residual for this car.
Three hats each contain ten coins. Hat 1 contains two gold coins, five silver coins and three copper coins. Hat 2 contains four gold coins and six silver coins. Hat 3 contains three gold coins and seven copper coins. We randomly select one coin from each hat.
(a) The outcome of interest is the colour of each of the three selected coins. List the complete sample space of outcomes and calculate the probability of each.
(b) Let X be the number of gold coins selected. Find the probability distribution of X.
State the Central Limit Theorem.
We take a random sample of 27 trees in a large forest and measure their heights. The sample mean is calculated to be 28.4 feet and the sample standard deviation is calculated to be 5.3 feet. Heights of trees in the forest are known to follow a normal distribution.
(a) Construct a 98% confidence interval for the true mean height of all trees in the forest.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (a).
(c) Conduct a hypothesis test at the 2% level of significance to determine if there is evidence that the true mean height of all trees in the forest is less than 30 feet. Show all of your steps, including the hypotheses, test statistic, P-value and a properly- worded conclusion.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (c).
(e) Could the confidence interval in (a) have been used to conduct the test in (c)? Why or why not? If it could have been used, explain what the conclusion would be, and why.
12
Sample Final Exam 2 Part A
1. The receipt totals (rounded to the nearest dollar) for a sample of 25 customers in the express lane at a supermarket are ordered and shown below:
5 8 9 13 16 18 19 19 21 23 24 26 30 34 35 37 42 45 48 50 56 56 62 64 73
What is the interquartile range for this data set?
(A) 29 (B) 29.5 (C) 30.5 (D) 31 (E) 32
2. The table below displays the number of pass completions X and the number of passing yards Y for six Winnipeg Blue Bomber quarterbacks during the 2015 football season:
Quarterback 1 2 3 4 5 6
Completions 107 34 16 51 149 1 Passing Yards 1434 346 169 453 1757 6
The least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = −53.51 + 12.53x. What is the value of the residual for Quarterback 5 (Matt Nichols)?
(A) −109.97 (B) −56.46 (C) −14.46 (D) 14.46 (E) 56.46
A farmer grows pumpkins, whose weights follow a normal distribution with mean 18 pounds and standard deviation 3 pounds. A supermarket will only buy those pumpkins that weigh between 15 and 25 pounds. What proportion of the farmer’s pumpkins will the supermarket buy?
(A) 0.7850 (B) 0.8314 (C) 0.8876 (D) 0.9772 (E) 0.9996
The yearly rainfall in Regina, Saskatchewan follows a normal distribution with mean 384 mm and standard deviation σ. In 10% of years, the city gets less than 320 mm of rain. What is the standard deviation of the amount of annual rainfall in Regina?
(A) 40mm (B) 50mm (C) 60mm (D) 70mm (E) 80mm
From past records, the professor of a large university course has established the following distribution of grades received by students in the course (with some values missing):
Grade A+ A B+ B C+ C D F Probability 0.08 0.17??? 0.13??? 0.22 0.09 0.07
A student requires a grade of C or better to pass the course. What is the probability that a randomly selected student passes the course?
(A) 0.76
(B) 0.62
(C) 0.84
(D) impossible to calculate without at least one of the missing probabilities (E) impossible to calculate without both of the missing probabilities
Over the last year, suppose it is known that 32% of Winnipeggers have been to a Jets hockey game, 25% of Winnipeggers have been to a Blue Bombers football game, and 63% of Winnipeggers have been to neither a Jets game nor a Bombers game. What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipegger has been to both a Jets game and a Bombers game over the last year?
(A) 0.08 (B) 0.12 (C) 0.15 (D) 0.18 (E) 0.20
14
7. A recently married couple plans to have two children. The outcome of interest is the gender of each of the two children. Consider the event that exactly one of the couple’s children will be a boy. Which of the following is the complement of this event?
(A) two boys
(B) two girls
(C) one girl
(D) at least one girl (E) zero or two girls
The next three questions (8 to 10) refer to the following:
We have a small deck of ten cards. Five of the cards are red, three are blue and two are green. We randomly select four cards from the deck with replacement. That is, after we select a card and record the colour, we replace the card in the deck and thoroughly shuffle it before we select another card.
8. Let X be the number of blue cards that are selected. The distribution of X is:
(A) binomial with parameters n = 4 and p = 0.1. (B) binomial with parameters n = 10 and p = 0.3. (C) binomial with parameters n = 10 and p = 0.4. (D) binomial with parameters n = 4 and p = 0.3. (E) not binomial.
9. Let A be the event that the first selected card is the only red card in our four selections. Which of the following events is mutually exclusive of the event A?
(A) second card selected is blue
(B) no green cards are selected
(C) third selected card is the only green card
(D) same number of red and blue cards are selected (E) same number of blue and green cards are selected
10. Now suppose that, instead of selecting four cards, we repeatedly select cards with re- placement (replacing the card and shuffling the deck after each draw) until we draw a green card for the first time. What is the probability that we draw our first green card on the fifth draw?
(A) 0.0819 (B) 0.4096 (C) 0.1342 (D) 0.0554 (E) 0.1746
15
A backpacking party carries five emergency flares, each of which will light with a probability of 0.93. What is the probability that exactly four of the flares will light?
(A) 0.1271 (B) 0.0524 (C) 0.2947 (D) 0.2618 (E) 0.1835
Suppose it is known that 11% of students at a large university live in dorms. In a random sample of 500 students at the university, what is the approximate probability that at least 14% of them live in dorms?
(A) 0.0735 (B) 0.0418 (C) 0.0162 (D) 0.0028 (E) 0.0968
A variable X follows some left-skewed distribution with mean 100 and standard deviation 50. We take a random sample of 2,500 observations from this distribution and create a histogram of the data values. We expect the histogram to be:
(A) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 1. (B) skewed to the left with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 1.
(C) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 50. (D) skewed to the left with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 50.
(E) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 0.02.
A manufacturer of automobile batteries claims that the distribution of battery lifetimes has a mean of 54 months and a variance of 36 months squared. A consumer group decides to check the claim by purchasing a sample of 50 of these batteries and subjecting them to tests to determine their lifetime. Assuming the manufacturer’s claim is true, what is the probability that the sample has a mean lifetime less than 52 months?
(A) 0.1292 (B) 0.3707 (C) 0.0091 (D) 0.4909 (E) 0.3483
A recycling plant compresses aluminum cans into bales. The weights of the bales are known to follow a normal distribution with mean 100 pounds standard deviation 8 pounds. What is the probability that a random sample of 64 bales has a mean weight between 99 and 101 pounds?
(A) 0.3413 (B) 0.4772 (C) 0.5561 (D) 0.6826 (E) 0.7485
16
16. We would like to estimate the value of the mean μ of some population. Ten statisticians each take a separate random sample of 100 individuals from the population, and each of them calculates a 90% confidence interval for μ. What is the probability that exactly eight of their confidence intervals will contain the value of μ?
(A) 0.1445
(B) 0.1937
(C) 0.2324
(D) 0.2891
(E) depends on the value of μ
We would like to construct a confidence interval to estimate the true mean systolic blood pressure of all healthy adults to within 4 mm Hg (millimeters of mercury). We have a sample of 25 adults available. Systolic blood pressures of healthy adults are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 8.6 mm Hg. What is the maximum confidence level that can be attained for our interval?
(A) 80% (B) 90% (C) 95% (D) 96% (E) 98%
Lumberintendedforbuildinghousesandotherstructuresmustbemonitoredforstrength. A random sample of 25 specimens of Southern Pine is selected, and the mean strength is calculated to be 3700 pounds per square inch. Strengths are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 500 pounds per square inch. An 85% confidence interval for the true mean strength of Southern Pine is:
(A) (3615, 3785) (B) (3671, 3729) (C) (3556, 3844) (D) (3544, 3856) (E) (3596, 3804)
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The University of Manitoba uses thousands of fluorescent light bulbs each year. The brand of bulb it currently uses has a mean lifetime of 900 hours. A manufacturer claims that its new brand of bulbs, which cost the same as those the university currently uses, has a mean lifetime of more than 900 hours. It is known that the standard deviation of lifetimes of the new brand of bulb is 80 hours. The university has decided to purchase the new brand of bulb if a hypothesis test gives significant evidence supporting the manufacturer’s claim at the 3% level of significance. A random sample of 64 bulbs were tested and their mean lifetime was 920 hours. Based on these findings:
(A) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0228. (B) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0456. (C) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.9772. (D) the university will purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0228.
(E) the university will purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0456.
We would like to determine whether the true mean pH level of a lake differs from 7.0. Lake pH levels are known to follow a normal distribution. We select a sample of ten water specimens from random locations in the lake. The sample mean pH level is calculated to be 6.8. A 98% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (6.5, 7.1). Based on this confidence interval, our conclusion is to:
(A) fail to reject H0 at the 2% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(B) fail to reject H0 at the 1% level of significance, since the value 6.8 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(C) fail to reject H0 at the 4% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(D) reject H0 at the 2% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(E) reject H0 at the 4% level of significance, since the value 6.8 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
18
21. We select a random sample of ten oranges from trees grown in a large orchard. The standard deviation of the weights of these ten oranges is calculated to be 19 grams. Based on this sample, a confidence interval for the true mean weight of all oranges grown in the orchard is calculated to be (126.41, 153.59). What is the confidence level of this interval?
(A) 90% (B) 95% (C) 96% (D) 98% (E) 99%
The next two questions (22 and 23) refer to the following:
Carbon Monoxide (CO) is a colourless and odourless gas. Even at low levels of exposure, carbon monoxide can cause serious health problems. A home is considered safe if the mean CO concentration is 4.8 parts per million (ppm) or lower. We take a random sample of eight readings in various locations of a home. These readings have a mean of 5.0 ppm and a standard deviation of 0.5 ppm. Assume that CO readings follow a normal distribution. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 1% level of significance to determine whether the home is unsafe.
22. The P-value for the appropriate hypothesis test is:
(A) between 0.02 and 0.025. (B) between 0.025 and 0.05. (C) between 0.05 and 0.10. (D) between 0.10 and 0.15. (E) between 0.15 and 0.20.
23. We conclude that:
(A) there is proof that the home is safe.
(B) there is sufficient evidence that the home is safe.
(C) there is insufficient evidence that the home is unsafe. (D) there is sufficient evidence that the home is unsafe. (E) there is insufficient evidence that the home is safe.
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24. The heights (in inches) of all 24 players on the Winnipeg Jets hockey team are ordered and shown below:
69 70 70 71 72 72 73 73 73 74 74 75 75 75 75 75 75 75 75 76 77 77 77 80
We would like to determine if the true mean height of Winnipeg Jets hockey players differs from 75 inches. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) We should conduct a z test, as it is reasonable to assume heights follow a normal distribution.
(B) We should conduct a t test, as we have no idea of the form of the distribution of heights.
(C) We should conduct a z test, as the sample size is fairly high, so X ̄ will have an approximate normal distribution.
(D) We should conduct a t test, as the population standard deviation is unknown.
(E) A hypothesis test is unnecessary in this situation.
The next three questions (25 to 27) refer to the following:
The high school and university GPAs for random samples of students from two
universities are shown below:
University A
Student 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 x ̄ s
High School (H) University (U) Diff. (d =H−U)
0.02
−0.66
0.06
0.17
0.74
0.19
3.87 0.26
3.70 0.44 0.67 0.17 0.47
3.76 3.64 4.15 4.07 4.20 3.56 3.71 3.74 4.30 4.09 3.90 3.46 3.37 3.04
University B
Student
High School (H) University (U)
Diff. (d = H−U) 0.58
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 x ̄ s 3.54 0.64 3.28 0.69 0.14 0.26 0.33
3.60 2.79 4.21 3.75 2.58 4.00 4.25 3.14 3.02 2.42 4.23 3.87 2.52 3.15 4.03 3.00
0.37
−0.02
−0.12
0.06
0.85
0.22
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25. We would like to construct a 95% confidence interval for the true mean difference μd in high school GPA and university GPA for all students at University A. Which of the following statements are true?
(I)
(II) (III)
(IV)
For any University A student, high school GPA and university GPA are independent.
For any two University A students, high school GPAs are independent.
In order to construct the confidence interval, we must assume that differences in high school GPA and university GPA follow a normal distribution.
In order to construct the confidence interval, we must assume that high school GPAs and university GPAs both follow normal distributions.
(A) I
(B) I
(C) II and III only (D) II and IV only (E) I, II and III only
26. Refer to the previous question. Assuming the necessary normality conditions are satis- fied, the 95% confidence interval for the true mean difference in high school GPA and university GPA for all students at University A is:
(A) (−0.12, 0.46) (B) (−0.47, 0.81) (C) (−0.03, 0.37) (D) (−0.26, 0.60) (E) (−0.38, 0.72)
27. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to determine whether high school GPAs differ on average from university GPAs for all students at University B. Assuming the proper normality conditions are satisfied, the P-value for the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.01 and 0.02. (B) between 0.02 and 0.025. (C) between 0.025 and 0.05. (D) between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) between 0.10 and 0.15.
and III only and IV only
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28. The North Dakota Department of Tourism is interested in estimating the true proportion p of Manitobans visit the state in any given year. What sample size is required in order to estimate p to within 0.06 with 95% confidence?
(A) 234 (B) 245 (C) 256 (D) 267 (E) 278
29. In a random sample of 1,000 university students, 837 of them say they have a Facebook account. A 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of all university students who have a Facebook account is:
(A) (0.818, 0.856) (B) (0.783, 0.891) (C) (0.829, 0.845) (D) (0.794, 0.880) (E) (0.806, 0.868)
30. In a random sample of 175 university students, 70 have student loans. We would like to test the claim that more than 30% of all university students have student loans. The test statistic for the appropriate test of significance is:
0.30 − 0.40 (A) (0.30) (0.70)
0.40 − 0.30 (D) (0.40) (0.60)
175 0.40 − 0.30
175 0.30 − 0.40
(B) (0.30) (0.70) 175
(E) (0.30) (0.40) 175
0.40 − 0.30
(C) (0.35) (0.65) 175
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Sample Final Exam 2 Part B
1. A dentist would like to conduct an experiment to determine the effect of the brand of toothpaste (Crest or Colgate) and the type of toothbrush (regular or electric) his patients use on the health of their teeth. The dentist has 240 patients (80 children and 160 adults) who volunteer to participate in the experiment. The treatments will be randomly assigned to the subjects. The dentist believes the effect of the treatments will differ for children and adults, so she conducts a randomized block design.
(a) Identify the following in this experiment: i. factors
ii. factor levels
iii. treatments
iv. response variable
v. blocking variable
(b) How is control achieved in this experiment?
(c) Suppose at the end of the experiment that it is determined that subjects who used Crest toothpaste and an electric toothbrush had significantly healthier teeth than subjects in the other treatment groups. Can we conclude that the treatment was likely the cause?
2. The
probabilities that each team will win their respective game, as determined by odds- makers. Note that tied games are not possible. We will assume the outcome of one game is independent of any other.
Winnipeg Jets’ next three scheduled games are shown below, together with the
Game 1: Game 2: Game 3:
Winnipeg Jets (0.6) Winnipeg Jets (0.7) Winnipeg Jets (0.8)
vs. Pittsburgh Penguins (0.4) vs. Montreal Canadiens (0.3) vs. Buffalo Sabres (0.2)
(a) The outcome of interest is the set of winners of each of the three games. List the complete sample space of outcomes and calculate the probability of each.
(b) Let X be the number of games the Winnipeg Jets win. Find the probability distribution of X.
3. The weights of adobe bricks used for construction follow a normal distribution with mean 5.0 pounds and standard deviation 0.2 pounds.
(a) Only 12% of bricks are heavier than what weight?
(b) We take a random sample of four bricks. Can you calculate the probability that the average weight of these four bricks is greater than 5.1 pounds? If so, calculate the probability. If not, explain why not.
(c) What is the probability that the total weight of a random sample of 50 bricks is less than 248 pounds?
(d) Is the probability you calculated in (c) exact or approximate? Explain.
4. A random sample of 20 students at a large university has a mean GPA of 3.12. GPAs at the university are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 0.47.
(a) Calculate a 95% confidence interval for the true mean GPA of all students at the university.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (a).
(c) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean GPA of students at the university differs from 3.00. Show all of your steps, including the statement of hypotheses, the calculation of the appropriate test statistic and P-value, and a carefully-worded conclusion.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (c).
(e) Could the confidence interval in (a) have been used to conduct the test in (c)? Why or why not? If it could have been used, explain what the conclusion would be, and why.
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Sample Final Exam 3 Part A
1. The five-number summary for the heights (in cm) of the players on a men’s hockey team is as follows:
162 174 176 181 194
The three goalies on the hockey team are Darren, who is 191 cm tall, Brandon, who is 165 cm tall, and Kyle, who is 193 cm tall. If an outlier boxplot for the heights of the hockey team was constructed, which of these players’ heights would be labelled as outliers?
(A) only Brandon
(B) only Kyle
(C) Darren and Kyle, but not Brandon (D) Brandon and Kyle, but not Darren (E) Darren, Brandon and Kyle
2. Researchers want to determine how the height of a mountain can help explain the temperature at the top of the mountain. The two variables were measured for a sample of mountains and the least squares regression line was calculated. It was also reported that 58% of the variation in temperature at the top of a mountain can be explained by its regression on the mountain’s height. What is the value of the correlation between the two variables?
(A) 0.76 (B) 0.58 (C) −0.34 (D) −0.76 (E) −0.58
3. How fast do icicles grow? Researchers measured the growth rate of icicles in a cold chamber subjected to different temperatures (−20◦C or −30◦C) and different wind speeds (30, or 40 km/h). What is/are the factor level(s) in this experiment?
(A) length of the icicles
(B) growth rate of the icicles
(C) temperature and wind speed
(D) −20◦C, −30◦C, 30 km/h, 40 km/h
(E) −20◦C/30 km/h, −20◦C/40 km/h, −30◦C/40 km/h, −30◦C/40 km/h
There are three coloured coins in a hat – one gold coin, one silver coin and one copper coin. You will randomly select coins from the hat, one at a time without replacement, until the gold coin is selected, and then you will stop. The outcome of interest is the sequence of colours that are selected during this process. How many outcomes are contained in the appropriate sample space?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 9
Consider two events A and B. We know P(A) = 0.37 and P(A∪B) = 0.7354. If A and B are independent, then what is P(B)?
(A) 0.47 (B) 0.39 (C) 0.62 (D) 0.44 (E) 0.58
A six-sided die has faces numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Suppose the die is “loaded”, so that any particular even-numbered face is twice as likely to land face up as any particular odd-numbered face. If we roll this die once, what is the probability that the number showing is greater than 3?
(A)1 (B)2 (C)5 (D) 7 (E) 9 2 3 9 12 16
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7. Two friends are playing a game of Rock, Paper, Scissors. To play this game, each player simultaneously and independently selects one of the three items. From prior experience, it is known that each of the two friends will select the items with the following probabilities:
Player Rock Paper Scissors Joe 0.4 0.2 0.4 Tom 0.5 0.2 0.3
In this game, rock beats scissors, scissors beats paper and paper beats rock. The two friends will play one game. What is the probability Joe wins against Tom?
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.35 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.45 (E) 0.50
8. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) If the probability of A is 0.6 and the probability of B is 0.5, then A and B cannot
be mutually exclusive.
(B) If the probability of A is 0.4 and the probability of B is 0.6, and if A and B are
independent, then P (A ∩ B) must be equal to 0.24.
(C) If P(A)=0.3,P(B)=0.6,andP(A∪B)=0.72,thenAandBmustbeindepen-
dent.
(D) If A and B are mutually exclusive, and if A and C are mutually exclusive, then B
and C must be mutually exclusive.
(E) Two events that are mutually exclusive cannot be independent.
9. Which of the following variables has a binomial distribution?
(A) You roll five fair dice, each with face values of 1 through 6.
X = total number of dots facing up on the five dice
(B) You monitor the weather statistics every Saturday in Winnipeg for a year.
X = number of Saturdays during the year that it snows
(C) A paper boy delivers the newspaper to every house on your block.
X = number of houses that get their newspaper on time tomorrow morning
(D) You repeatedly flip two quarters simultaneously until both quarters land on Heads.
X = number of flips required for both quarters to land on Heads
(E) An unprepared student randomly guesses the answer to each of the 30 multiple- choice questions on the final exam.
X = number of multiple-choice answers the student gets correct
27
10. During Tim Hortons’ annual “Roll Up the Rim to Win” promotion, customers who purchase a cup of coffee check under the rim of the cup to see if they have won a prize. It is known that 16.7% of all cups are winners. If you buy one cup of coffee every day for a week (7 days), what is the probability you win at least two times?
(A) 0.1892 (B) 0.2349 (C) 0.2857 (D) 0.3311 (E) 0.3836
The next three questions (11 to 13) refer to the following:
The amount of soap per bottle for a particular brand of dish soap follows a normal
distribution with mean 828 ml and standard deviation 4 ml.
What is the probability that a random sample of 10 bottles of dish soap contain a mean amount greater than 830 ml?
(A) 0.3085 (B) 0.1539 (C) 0.9429 (D) 0.2296 (E) 0.0571
There is an approximate 99.7% chance that a random sample of 16 bottles of dish soap will contain an average fill volume between:
(A) 825 and 831 ml. (B) 824 and 832 ml. (C) 826 and 830 ml. (D) 816 and 840 ml. (E) 820 and 836 ml.
13. What amount should be placed on the label of the bottles so that only 4% of bottles contain less than that amount?
(A) 820ml (B) 821ml (C) 822ml (D) 828ml (E) 829ml
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14. When an archer shoots her arrow, she hits the bullseye on the target 78% of the time. The result of each of her shots is independent of any other. If she shoots 300 arrows, what is the approximate probability she hits the bullseye at least 240 times?
(A) 0.0162 (B) 0.0436 (C) 0.0719 (D) 0.1401 (E) 0.2005
15. The Central Limit Theorem states that:
(A) when n gets large, the sample mean X ̄ gets closer and closer to the population
mean μ.
(B) if a variable X has a normal distribution, then for any sample size n, the sampling
distribution of X ̄ is also normal.
(C) if a variable X follows a normal distribution, then when n gets large, the sampling
distribution of X ̄ is exactly normal.
(D) when n gets large, the standard deviation of the sample mean X ̄ gets closer and
closer to σ/√n.
(E) regardless of the population distribution of a variable X, when n gets large, the
sampling distribution of X ̄ is approximately normal. The next two questions (16 and 17) refer to the following:
The fill volume per bottle for a certain brand of beer follows a normal distribution with mean 341 ml and standard deviation 3 ml.
If you buy a case of 24 bottles of beer, what is the probability that the bottles will contain an average of exactly 339.5 ml?
(A) 0.0034 (B) 0.0207 (C) 0.0000 (D) 0.0071 (E) 0.0122
If you buy a twelve-pack of beer, what is the probability that the total volume of beer will exceed 4.1 litres?
(A) 0.0838 (B) 0.2206 (C) 0.1397 (D) 0.4443 (E) 0.3632
29
18. Weights of loaves of bread made at a bakery follow a normal distribution with a mean of 450 grams and standard deviation 12 grams. A random sample of five loaves of bread is selected. There is only a 2.5% chance that the average weight of the sample will be below:
(A) 439.48 grams. (B) 441.20 grams. (C) 442.54 grams. (D) 438.62 grams. (E) 440.76 grams.
19. Sizes of apartments in a large city follow a normal distribution with mean 846 square feet and standard deviation 160 square feet. We will take a simple random sample of four apartments in the city and calculate their average size x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 40. (B) exactly normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 40.
(C) approximately normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 80. (D) exactly normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 80.
(E) impossible to determine with the information given.
20. Consider two Canadian universities. University A has a student population of 10,000 and University B has a student population of 30,000. A statistician, interested in the average age of first-year students, collects the general records of samples of 500 first-year students from University A and 600 first-year students from University B. She assumes the standard deviations of ages are equal for the two universities. Based on her samples, she constructs a 95% confidence interval for the true mean age of first-year students at each university. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(I) The interval for University A will be narrower, as a higher percentage of students was sampled from University A.
(II) The interval for University B will be narrower, as a higher number of students was sampled from University B.
(III) If the statistician calculated 90% intervals instead, the intervals would be wider.
(IV) If the statistician doubled her sample sizes, the lengths of her intervals would
be reduced by half.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) II and III (D) I and IV (E) II and IV
30
The next two questions (21 and 22) refer to the following:
City engineers in Hamilton, Ontario would like to estimate the true mean commuting distance of all workers in the city between home and their principal place of business. They calculate that, in order to estimate this mean to within ±1 kilometer with 99% confidence, they require a sample of 120 workers.
What sample size would be required to estimate the true mean commuting distance for all workers in Hamilton to within ±2 kilometres with 99% confidence?
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 85 (D) 240 (E) 480
The city of Montreal has a population five times greater than that of Hamilton (and so it would be logical to assume that it has five times as many workers). Suppose we wanted to estimate the true mean commuting distance between home and work for all workers in Montreal to within ±1 kilometre with 99% confidence. Assuming equal standard deviations for the two cities, we would require a sample of how many Montreal workers?
(A) 24 (B) 120 (C) 269 (D) 600 (E) 3000
We take a random sample of n individuals and measure the value of some variable X. We conduct a hypothesis test of H0: μ = 30 vs. Ha: μ ̸= 30 at the 5% level of significance. We calculate a sample mean of x ̄ = 33 and we reject the null hypothesis. Which of the following must be true?
(I) AtestofH0: μ=30vs.Ha: μ ̸= 30 at the 10% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(II) AtestofH0: μ=30vs.Ha: μ > 30 at the 5% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(III) AtestofH0: μ=31vs.Ha: μ ̸= 31 at the 5% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II and III
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Prior to distributing a large shipment of bottled water, a beverage company would like to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean fill volume of all bottles differs from 600 ml, which is the amount printed on the labels. Fill volumes are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 2.0 ml. A random sample of 25 bottles is selected. The sample has a mean fill volume of 598.8 ml and a standard deviation of 3.0 ml. What is the value of the test statistic for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) t=−0.50 (B) z=−2.00 (C) t=−2.00 (D) z=−3.00 (E) t=−3.00
We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean amount of jam per jar for a certain brand of jam differs from 350 ml, the amount stated on the label. We take a simple random sample of 16 jars and measure the amount of jam in each of them. The sample mean is calculated to be 348.7 ml. Suppose it is known that the amount of jam per jar follows a normal distribution with standard deviation 2.8 ml. The correct conclusion is to:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0157.
(B) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0314.
(C) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0314. (D) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0628.
(E) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0628.
We would like to conduct a hypothesis test of H0: μ = 50 vs. Ha: μ ̸= 50 for the mean μ of some normally distributed variable X. A random sample of 25 observations is taken from the population. A 90% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (44.46, 49.58). A 96% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (43.82,50.22). The P-value of the appropriate test of significance must be:
(A) less than 0.04.
(B) greater than 0.10.
(C) between 0.02 and 0.05. (D) between 0.04 and 0.10. (E) equal to 0.06.
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The next three questions (27 to 29) refer to the following:
Coke and Pepsi are the two most popular colas on the market. Do consumers prefer either one of the two brands of cola over the other? We conduct a matched pairs experiment as follows: 20 volunteers participate in a blind taste test. Each volunteer tastes both Coke and Pepsi (in random order) and scores the taste of each cola on a scale from 0 to 100. Some information that may be helpful is shown in the table below:
Scores for Coke mean = 78 std. dev. = 27
Scores for Pepsi mean = 83 std. dev. = 24
Difference (d = Coke − Pepsi) mean = −5
std. dev. = 13
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(I) The scores for Coke and Pepsi for each individual are independent.
(II) The scores for Coke and Pepsi for each individual are dependent.
(III) In order to conduct the matched pairs t test, we must assume that scores for Coke and scores for Pepsi both follow normal distributions.
(IV) In order to conduct the matched pairs t test, we must assume that differences in scores (Coke − Pepsi) follow a normal distribution.
(A) I only (B) I and III (C) I and IV (D) II and III (E) II and IV
What are the hypotheses for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd <0 (B) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d ̸=0 (C) H0: μC =μP vs. Ha: μC <μP (D) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d <0 (E) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd ̸=0
29. Assuming the appropriate assumptions are satisfied, what is the value of the test statistic for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) −0.38 (B) −7.69 (C) −2.85 (D) −1.72 (E) −0.88
33
30. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) The P-value in a hypothesis test is calculated under the assumption that the null
hypothesis is true.
(B) The lower the P-value of a hypothesis test, the greater the strength of evidence against the null hypothesis.
(C) The level of significance in a hypothesis test is the highest P-value for which the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(D) A hypothesis test is designed to assess the evidence in favour of the null hypothesis.
(E) For normally distributed populations, the most important assumption in a hypothesis test for μ is that the sample is a simple random sample.
34
Sample Final Exam 3 Part B
Researchers are studying the effect of alcohol consumption on a person’s short-term memory. Six volunteer subjects are assigned to consume a certain number of drinks X. A short time later, the subjects are given a memory test, and their score Y on the test is recorded. The data are shown below, together with the means and standard deviations:
Subject 1 2 3 4 5 6 mean std. dev. No. of Drinks 4 2 8 3 1 6 4 2.61 Test Score 81 90 22 58 80 53 64 25.07

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The correlation between number of drinks and test score is calculated to be r = −0.869.
(a) What fraction of the variation in test score can be accounted for by its regression
on number of drinks consumed?
(b) Find the equation of the least squares regression line.
(c) Find the predicted test scores for a subject who consumes 5 drinks and for a subject who consumes 11 drinks.
(d) Is one of your predictions in (c) more reliable than the other? Explain.
Consider the following information about three events A, B and C:
• P(A)=0.43
• P(C)=0.28
• P(A∩B)=0.19 • P(B∩C)=0.12 • P(A∪B)=0.61 • P(A∪C)=0.71
(a) What is P(B)?
(b) Are any two of the three events mutually exclusive?
(c) Are any two of the three events independent?
(d) What is the probability that exactly one of the three events occurs?
We would like to estimate the true mean size μ (in square feet) of all two-bedroom apartments in Winnipeg. A random sample of 30 two-bedroom apartments in the city is selected, and the mean size of these apartments is calculated to be 1000 square feet. Suppose it is known that sizes of two-bedroom apartments in the city follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 200 square feet.
(a) Calculate a 93% confidence interval for the true mean size of all two-bedroom apartments in Winnipeg.
(b) Interpret the meaning of the interval you calculated in (a).
An apple grower selects a random sample of 30 apples from this year’s crop. The mean and standard deviation of weights of these apples are calculated to be 156 grams and 14 grams, respectively. Weights of apples are known to follow a normal distribution.
The apple grower suspects that the true mean weight of apples from this year’s crop differs from that of last year’s crop, when the true mean weight was 150 grams. Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to investigate the grower’s suspicion. Show all of your steps.
We would like to estimate the true proportion p of Canadians who support Donald Trump. In a random sample of 400 Canadians, 80 of them say they support the American president.
(a) Calculate a 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of Canadians who sup- port Donald Trump.
(b) Conduct a hypothesis test at the 10% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true proportion of Canadians who support Donald Trump is less than 0.25.
(c) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (b).
36
Sample Final Exam 4 Part A
The average height of all 23 students in a class is 132.5 cm. The average height of the 14 boys in the class is 135.2 cm. What is the average height of the girls in the class?
(A) 129.1 cm (B) 128.6 cm (C) 129.8 cm (D) 127.9 cm (E) 128.3 cm
The batting averages of 34 Major League Baseball players are ordered and shown below:
0.178 0.202 0.210 0.219 0.222 0.237 0.245 0.250 0.256 0.258 0.258 0.260 0.261 0.263 0.267 0.268 0.271 0.275 0.277 0.279 0.279 0.281 0.283 0.284 0.286 0.288 0.294 0.299 0.305 0.311 0.313 0.327 0.338 0.340
The five-number summary is: 0.178 0.256 0.273 0.288 0.340
We construct an outlier boxplot for this data set. To what values do the lines coming out from the box (i.e., the whiskers) extend?
(A) 0.202 and 0.338 (B) 0.210 and 0.327 (C) 0.208 and 0.336 (D) 0.237 and 0.313 (E) 0.178 and 0.340
A police officer would like to determine how the number of alcoholic beverages consumed by a person can predict his or her blood alcohol level. The officer measures the values of both variables on a sample of people leaving a bar one night. The correlation between the two variables is calculated to be 0.88 and the equation of the least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = 0.003 + 0.012x. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) 88% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
(B) 77% of the variation in number of alcoholic beverages consumed can be accounted for by its regression on blood alcohol level.
(C) 94% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
(D) 88% of the variation in number of alcoholic beverages consumed can be accounted for by its regression on blood alcohol level.
(E) 77% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
An experiment is being conducted to study the effectiveness of different brands of sun- screen and SPF (sun protection factor) levels. Volunteers will be randomly assigned to apply either Coppertone or Ombrelle sunscreen, with an SPF level of either 30 or 60. Subjects will spend eight hours outside in the sun, and the degree of sunburn (if any) will be compared for all treatments. What is/are the treatment(s) in this experiment?
(A) degree of sunburn
(B) sunscreen brand and SPF level
(C) sunscreen brand, SPF level and degree of sunburn
(D) Coppertone, Ombrelle, SPF 30, SPF 60
(E) Coppertone/SPF 30, Ombrelle/SPF 30, Coppertone/SPF 60, Ombrelle/SPF 60
38
The professor of a large class decides to grade the final exam on a curve. He will use the following criteria:
• 15% of students will get a grade of A+. • 17% of students will get a grade of A. • 11% of students will get a grade of B+. • 18% of students will get a grade of B. • 9% of students will get a grade of C+. • 12% of students will get a grade of C. • 10% of students will get a grade of D. • 8% of students will get a grade of F.
Scores on the exam are known to follow a normal distribution with mean 67 and standard deviation 11. What is the minimum score required to obtain a grade of C?
(A) 56.88 (B) 57.26 (C) 58.90 (D) 59.32 (E) 60.44
Labels on the boxes for a certain brand of soap claim the bars of soap weigh 150 grams. Weights of bars of soap are in fact known to be normally distributed with a standard deviation of 4 grams. What should be the mean weight of all bars of soap if we want only 7% of bars to weigh less than the amount stated on the label?
(A) 144.08 grams (B) 145.83 grams (C) 153.28 grams (D) 154.75 grams (E) 155.92 grams
39
The next five questions (7 to 11) refer to the following:
Winnipeg has three professional sports teams – the Winnipeg Jets hockey team, the
Winnipeg Blue Bombers football team and the Winnipeg Goldeyes baseball team. Suppose we have the following information about Winnipeg residents:
• 55% are Jets fans (J).
• 20% are Goldeyes fans (G).
• 50% are Bombers fans (B) or Goldeyes fans. • 27% are Jets fans and Bombers fans.
• 11% are Jets fans and Goldeyes fans.
• 10% are Bombers fans and Goldeyes fans.
• 6% are fans of all three teams.
What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipeg resident is a Bombers fan? (A) 0.30 (B) 0.35 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.45 (E) 0.50
Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Events J and B are independent.
(B) Events J and G are mutually exclusive. (C) Events J and G are independent.
(D) Events B and G are mutually exclusive. (E) Events B and G are independent.
9. What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipeg resident is a fan of none of the three teams?
(A) 0.21 (B) 0.23 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.27 (E) 0.29
10. If we take a random sample of 12 Winnipeg residents, what is the probability that exactly three of them are Goldeyes fans?
(A) 0.2084 (B) 0.2137 (C) 0.2256 (D) 0.2362 (E) 0.2419
40
11. If we take a random sample of 500 Winnipeg residents, what is the approximate probability that less than half of them are Jets fans?
(A) 0.0122 (B) 0.0287 (C) 0.0351 (D) 0.0446 (E) 0.0594
The next three questions (12 to 14) refer to the following:
We have four boxes, each of which contains 10 coloured balls:
• Box 1 contains 4 red balls, 5 green balls and 1 yellow ball. • Box 2 contains 3 red balls, 5 green balls and 2 yellow balls. • Box 3 contains 2 red balls, 5 green balls and 3 yellow balls. • Box 4 contains 1 red ball, 5 green balls and 4 yellow balls.
If we randomly select one ball from each box, what is the probability of selecting exactly one yellow ball?
(A) 0.44 (B) 0.40 (C) 0.36 (D) 0.48 (E) 0.32
If we randomly select one ball from each box, what is the probability of selecting at least one yellow ball?
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.8 (E) 0.9
14. Which of the following variables have a binomial distribution?
(I) Randomly select three balls from Box 1 with replacement. X = number of red balls selected
(II) Randomly select one ball from each of the four boxes. X = number of yellow balls selected
(III) Randomly select three balls from Box 1 without replacement. X = number of red balls selected
(IV) Randomly select one ball from each of the four boxes. X = number of green balls selected
(A) I only
(B) I and III only (C) I and IV only (D) II and IV only (E) I, II and IV only
41
The next two questions (15 and 16) refer to the following:
A variable X follows a uniform distribution, as shown below:
The mean and standard deviation of this distribution are 3.5 and 2, respectively.
15. We take a random sample of 400 individuals from this distribution and create a histogram of the data values. We expect this histogram to be:
(A) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.1. (B) approximately uniform with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 2. (C) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.005. (D) approximately uniform with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.1. (E) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 2.
16. We take a random sample of 400 individuals from this distribution and calculate the value of the sample mean x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.1. (B) uniform with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 2.
(C) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.005. (D) uniform with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.1.
(E) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 2.
42
The next two questions (17 and 18) refer to the following:
Credit card balances for the I. O. U. Credit Corporation follow a normal distribution
with mean $800 and the standard deviation is $200.
What is the probability that the mean balance for a random sample of 100 customers is greater than $780?
(A) 0.7157 (B) 0.5793 (C) 0.9484 (D) 0.8413 (E) 0.6368
What is the probability that the total balance for a random sample of 40 customers is less than $30,000?
(A) 0.0162 (B) 0.0287 (C) 0.0336 (D) 0.0446 (E) 0.0571
A variable X follows a normal distribution with mean 43 and variance 144. We take a random sample of n individuals from this distribution and calculate the sample mean x ̄. What must the sample size be so that the standard deviation of the sample mean X ̄ is equal to 0.8?
(A) 15 (B) 64 (C) 120 (D) 180 (E) 225
The number of undergraduate students at the University of Winnipeg is approximately 9,000, while the University of Manitoba has approximately 27,000 undergraduate students. Suppose that, at each university, a simple random sample of 3% of the undergraduate students is selected and the following question is asked: “Do you approve of the provincial government’s decision to lift the tuition freeze?”. Suppose that, within each university, approximately 20% of undergraduate students favour this decision. What can be said about the sampling variability associated with the two sample proportions?
(A) The sample proportion for the U of W has less sampling variability than that for the U of M.
(B) The sample proportion for the U of W has more sampling variability that that for the U of M.
(C) The sample proportion for the U of W has approximately the same sampling variability as that for the U of M.
(D) It is impossible to make any statements about the sampling variability of the two sample proportions without taking many samples.
(E) It is impossible to make any statements about the sampling variability of the two sample proportions because the population sizes are different.
43
The sizes of farms in a U.S. state follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 30 acres. We would like to take a sample of farms large enough to estimate the true mean size of all farms in the state to within 5 acres with 94% confidence. What sample size is required?
(A) 126 (B) 128 (C) 130 (D) 132 (E) 134
A researcher would like to estimate the true mean daily water intake μ for all Canadians. She measures the daily water intake (in ml) for a sample of Canadians and calculates a 95% confidence interval for μ to be (1771.6, 1928.4). Daily water intake for Canadians is known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 280 ml. What sample size did the researcher take?
(A) 16 (B) 25 (C) 36 (D) 49 (E) 64
We would like to test whether the true mean IQ of all adult Canadians is less than 110. Suppose that IQs of adult Canadians follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 17. A random sample of 30 adult Canadians has a mean IQ of 108. What is the P-value for the appropriate test of H0: μ = 110 vs. Ha: μ < 110?
(A) 0.6444
(B) 0.2090
(C) 0.3556
(D) 0.2611
(E) impossible to determine because the level of significance was not given
24. Which of the following statements comparing the standard normal distribution and the t distributions is false?
(A) The density curve for Z is taller at the Centre than the density curve for T.
(B) Thetdistributionshavemoreareainthetailsthanthestandardnormaldistribution.
(C) In tests of significance for μ, Z should be used as the test statistic when the distribution of X is normal, and T should be used in other cases.
(D) As the sample size increases, the t distributions approach the standard normal distribution.
(E) In tests of significance for μ, T should be used as the test statistic when the population standard deviation is unknown.
44
25. A sample of five Major League Baseball games has a mean duration of 168 minutes and a standard deviation of 17 minutes. Game durations are known to follow a normal distribution. A 90% confidence interval for the true mean duration of all Major League baseball games is:
(A) (155.49, 180.51) (B) (154.18, 181.82) (C) (153.10, 182.90) (D) (152.68, 183.32) (E) (151.79, 184.21)
26. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 10% level of significance to determine whether the true mean score of all players in a bowling league differs from 150. The mean and standard deviation of the scores of 12 randomly selected players are calculated to be 170 and 16, respectively. Scores of all players in the league are known to follow a normal distribution. The P-value of the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.0005 and 0.001. (B) between 0.001 and 0.002. (C) between 0.0025 and 0.005. (D) between 0.005 and 0.01. (E) between 0.01 and 0.02.
27. For which of the following situations is a matched pairs t test appropriate? (Assume all appropriate normality conditions are satisfied.) A researcher wants to know:
(I) whether hypnosis reduces pain. 20 volunteers place their hand in ice water and the time until the pain is unbearable is recorded. They are hypnotized and the exercise is repeated.
(II) whether Shell sells more gasoline than Petro Canada. The weekly gas sales are recorded for samples of 5 Shell gas stations and 5 Petro Canada gas stations.
(III) whether husbands spend more household money than wives on average. The amount spent on the husband’s credit card and wife’s credit card are compared for a sample of 10 married couples.
(A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II (D) I and III (E) II and III
45
On the evening news, a reporter states, “In a recent poll of likely voters, 50% of respondents indicated that they plan to support the Conservative Party in the upcoming provincial election. The results are accurate to within 3.1%, 19 times out of 20”. What sample size was used for the survey?
(A) 600 (B) 800 (C) 1,000 (D) 1,200 (E) 1,400
We would like to estimate some population proportion p. We take a random sample of n individuals and calculate an 80% confidence interval for p to be (0.33, 0.37). Using the same sample, which of the following could be a 99% confidence interval for p?
(A) (0.36, 0.38) (B) (0.32, 0.40) (C) (0.34, 0.36) (D) (0.36, 0.44) (E) (0.31, 0.39)
30. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether the true proportion of Canadians who support Prime Minister Justin Trudeau differs from 0.50. In a random sample of 300 Canadians, 165 of them say they support the prime minister. The correct conclusion is to:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0418.
(B) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0836. (C) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.9582. (D) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0836.
(E) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0418.
46
Sample Final Exam 4 Part B
1. A student driving to university must pass through two sets of traffic lights. The first set of lights is green 50% of the time, yellow 10% of the time, and red 40% of the time. The second set of lights is green 60% of the time, yellow 10% of the time, and red 30% of the time. It is also known that the lights function independently.
2.
(a) The outcome of interest is the colour of each of the two lights when the student ar- rives at the intersections. List the complete sample space of outcomes, and calculate the probability of each.
(b) What is the probability that both sets of lights are the same colour when the student arrives at the respective intersections?
(c) What is the probability that the first light is green or the second light is red?
(d) Let X be the number of red lights encountered by the student on her way to
university. Find the probability distribution of X.
(a) List the four conditions of the binomial setting.
(b) Heights of professional basketball players follow a normal distribution with mean 196 cm and standard deviation 8 cm. What proportion of professional basketball players are taller than 200 cm?
(c) If we take a random sample of ten professional basketball players, what is the probability that exactly four of them are taller than 200 cm?
(a) Give the definition of a lurking variable.
(b) Give the definition of a simple random sample.
(c) Explain the difference between a statistic and a parameter. Give three examples of each.
(d) Explain the difference between two events being mutually exclusive and two events being independent.
(e) Explain what it means for a result to be statistically significant.
3.
One measure of the quality of education provided by a university is the number of students per class. A random sample of 30 third-year classes is selected at a large university. The number of students in each of the classes are ordered and shown below:
10 11 14 14 15 17 18 20 22 22 22 23 26 26 27 28 31 33 34 34 36 42 44 49 50 55 62 68 77 82
From these data, the sample mean is calculated to be 33.73. The population standard deviation of class sizes is known to be 18.50.
(a) Construct a histogram for this data set. What is the shape of the distribution of class sizes for this sample?
(b) We would like to estimate and conduct a hypothesis test for the true mean class size of all third-year classes at the university. Despite the fact that class size does not appear to follow a normal distribution, explain why it is nevertheless appropriate to use inference methods which rely on the assumption of normality.
(c) Construct a 99% confidence interval for the true mean class size of all third-year classes at this university.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (c).
(e) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 1% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean third-year class size at this university differs from the national average of 40. Show all of your steps.
Sixteen people (eight males and eight females) volunteered to be part of an experiment. All 16 people were between the ages of 25 and 35. The question of interest in this experiment was whether females receive faster service at nightclubs than males. Each of the eight male participants was randomly assigned a bar, and each of the eight females was randomly assigned to one of these same eight bars. One Friday night, all 16 people went out to the bar. The male and female assigned to the same bar would arrive within five minutes of each other. Each person then waited at the bar and ordered a similar drink. The time (in seconds) until the drink was served was recorded. Some information that may be helpful is shown below:
Females mean = 275 std. dev. = 37
Males mean = 302 std. dev. = 48
Difference (d = F−M) mean =−27
std. dev. = 29
(a) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test, at the 1% level of significance. Show all of your steps, including the statement of hypotheses, the calculation of the appropriate test statistic and P-value, and a carefully-worded conclusion.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (a).
48
Sample Final Exam Answers Part A
Question Sample Final 1 Sample Final 2 Sample Final 3 Sample Final 4
1 C C B E
2 B B D B
3 A B D E
4 E B C E
5 D C E A
6 C E C E
7 B E A C
8 A D D C
9 D E E D
10 E A D D
11 D D E A
12 D C A A
13 C D B C
14 A C E C
15 E D E B
16 A B C A
17 E E B D
18 C C A E
19 E D D E
20 D A B B
21 E B A B
22 A D B D
23 C C B D
24 B E D C
25 D C E E
26 A D D B
27 B D E D
28 A D E C
29 A A D E
30 E B D B
1. (a)
Sample Final 1 Part B Solutions
The minimum is 2.2 and the maximum is 11.4.
The median is in position (n + 1)/2 = (30 + 1)/2 = 15.5, so the median is the
average of the 15th and 16th ordered data values, i.e., (7.0+7.2)/2 = 7.1.
The first quartile is the median of all data values lower in position than the median,
so Q1 is in position (15 + 1)/2 = 8. Therefore, Q1 = 6.0.
The third quartile is in position 8 above the median (or equivalently, 8 positions
down from the maximum), and so Q3 = 8.0.
The five-number summary is: 2.2 6.0 7.1 8.0 11.4
(b) We calculate the fences:
LF =Q1−1.5IQR=6.0−1.5(8.0−6.0)=6.0−3.0=3.0
UF =Q3+1.5IQR=8.0+1.5(8.0−6.0) =8.0+3.0=11.0
There are two values less than the lower fence (2.2 and 2.8) and one value greater than the upper fence (11.4). These outliers will be plotted as points on the outlier boxplot.
The whiskers extend to the lowest and highest data values that are not outliers (the “new minimum” and “new maximum”), i.e., 3.8 and 8.8.
The outlier boxplot is shown below:
Excluding outliers, the distribution is skewed to the left. 50
(a) (b)
(c)
(a) (b)
When the age of a car increases by one year, we predict its selling price to decrease by $1,700.
We know that 81% of the variation in a car’s selling price can be accounted for by its regression on the age of a car. This is the definition of r2, so we know r2 = 0.81. The correlation is therefore
√√
r=− r2 =− 0.81=−0.90
Note that we take the negative square root of r2, since there is a negative association between the two variables.
The residual for this car is
yi − yˆi = 15500 − (18600 − 1700(5)) = 5400
S = {GGG, GGC, GSG, GSC, SGG, SGC, SSG, SSC, CGG, CGC, CSG, CSC} The probability distribution of X is as follows:
x0123 P (X = x) 0.336 0.452 0.188 0.024
4. The
variable X, when the sample size is high (we use n ≥ 30), the sampling distribution of X ̄ is approximately normal.
5. (a) (b)
(c) (d)
(e)
(25.87, 30.93)
If we took repeated samples of 27 trees and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 98% of all such intervals would contain the true mean height of all trees in the forest.
t = −1.57, 0.05 < P-value < 0.10, fail to reject H0.
If the true mean height of all trees in the forest was 30 feet, the probability of observing a sample mean at least as low as 28.4 feet would be between 0.05 and 0.10.
No
Central Limit Theorem states that, regardless of the population distribution of a
51
1. (a)
Sample Final 2 Part B Solutions
i. The factors in an experiment are the explanatory variables. There are two factors in this experiment – brand of toothpaste and type of toothbrush.
ii. Brand of toothpaste has two factor levels – Crest and Colgate. Type of toothbrush has two factor levels – regular and electric.

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iii. There are 2 x 2 = 4 treatments – Crest/regular, Crest/electric, Colgate/regular and Colgate/electric.
iv. The response variable is the health of the patients’ teeth.
v. The blocking variable is age (one block consisting of the children and the other block consisting of the adults).
Control is achieved by the comparison of the four treatment groups in each block. (Note that blocking is also another form of control. In this case, by using a random- ized block design, we eliminate the possibility of age becoming a lurking variable.)
Yes. Since this was a properly designed experiment using the principles of randomization, replication and control, we can conclude that the treatment was likely the cause of the observed difference in the response.
S = {WWW, WWB, WMW, WMB, PWW, PWB, PMW, PMB} The probability distribution of X is as follows:
(b)
(c)
2. (a) (b)
3. (a) (b) (c) (d)
x0123 P (X = x) 0.024 0.188 0.452 0.336
5.235 0.1587 0.0793 exact
52
4. (a) (b)
(c) (d)
(e)
(2.91, 3.33)
If we took repeated samples of 20 students at the university and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 95% of such intervals would contain the true mean GPA of all students at the university.
z = 1.14, P-value = 0.2542, fail to reject H0.
If the true mean GPA of all students at the university was 3.00, the probability of
observing a sample mean at least as extreme as 3.12 would be 0.2542. Yes. Fail to reject H0.
53
1. (a)
Sample Final 3 Part B Solutions
The fraction of the variation in test score that can be accounted for by its regression on number of drinks consumed is, by definition, r2. Here, r2 = (−0.869)2 = 0.755.
(b) The slope of the least squares regression line is
sy 25.07
b1 =rs =−0.869 2.61 =−8.347
x
The intercept of the least squares regression line is
b0 = y ̄ − b1x ̄ = 64 − (−8.347)(4) = 97.388
The equation of the least squares regression line is yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347x. (c) The predicted test score for a subject who consumes 5 drinks is
yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347(5) = 55.653
(d) The predicted test score for a subject who consumes 11 drinks is
yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347(11) = 5.571
(e) The prediction for the subject who consumed 5 drinks is more reliable, since the value x = 11 falls outside the range of x-values in our sample. Predicting the test score for the subject who consumed 11 drinks is extrapolating.
54
2. (a) (b)
(c)
(d)
3. (a) (b)
0.37
A and B are not mutually exclusive. B and C are not mutually exclusive. A and C are mutually exclusive.
A and B are not independent. A and C are not independent. B and C are not independent.
0.46
(933.9, 1066.1)
If we took repeated samples of size 30 and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 93% of all such intervals would contain the true mean size of all two- bedroom apartments in Winnipeg.
4. t = 2.35, 0.02 < P-value < 0.04, reject H0.
5. (a) (b) (c)
(0.1671, 0.2329)
z = −2.31, P-value = 0.0104, reject H0.
If the true proportion of Canadians who supported Donald Trump was 0.25, the probability of observing a sample proportion at least as low as 0.20 would be 0.0104.
55
1. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a)
(b) (c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
Sample Final 4 Part B Solutions
S= {GG, GY, GR, YG, YY, YR, RG, RY, RR}
0.43
0.65
The probability distribution of X is as follows: x012
P (X = x) 0.42 0.46 0.12
A binomial experiment is one for which the following four conditions are satisfied:
There is a fixed number of trials n.
There are only two possible outcomes of interest for each trial – a success or a failure.
The outcome of one trial is independent of any other.
The probability of success p is constant from trial to trial.
0.3085 0.2080
A lurking variable is one that explains the relationship between variables in a study, but is not included in the study itself.
A simple random sample of size n is one that is chosen in such a way that all possible groups of n individuals have the same chance of being chosen.
A statistic is a number that describes a sample. Examples of statistics include the sample mean x ̄, the sample standard deviation s and a sample proportion pˆ. A parameter is a number that describes an entire population. Examples of parameters include the population mean μ, the population standard deviation σ and a population proportion p.
56
4. (a)
From a histogram of the data, we see the distribution of class sizes for this sample is skewed to the right.
5. (a)
t = −2.63, 0.01 < P-value < 0.02, fail to reject H0.
Note that n = 8 (and not 16), as n is the number of pairs.
(d) Two events that are mutually exclusive have no outcomes in common (i.e., they cannot both occur at the same time). Two events that are independent can both occur at the same time, but the outcome of one does not affect the outcome of the other.
(e) Statistical significance is a difference so large that it would rarely be observed by chance alone. We say that the results of a hypothesis test are statistically significant when the P-value ≤ α and we reject H0.
(b) Although it does not appear that the population distribution of class sizes is normally distributed, the Central Limit Theorem tells us that since the sample size is high (we use n ≥ 30), the sampling distribution of the sample mean X ̄ is approximately normal.
(c) (25.03, 42.43)
(d) If we took repeated samples of 30 classes and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 99% of such intervals would contain the true mean class size of all third-year classes at the university.
(e) z = −1.86, P-value = 0.0628, fail to reject H0.
(b) If the service time in nightclubs was the same on average for males and females, the probability of observing a sample mean difference at least as low as −27 would be between 0.01 and 0.02.

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Question 8: Science

UNIT 1.0: Human-Environment Interactions 1
Introduction: Human-Environment Interactions 1.1 The Environment and Environmental Sciences 1.2 Over-Population and Over-Consumption As Central Themes in Human Resource Demands 1.3 Sustainable Development 1.4 Using Science to Describe and Evaluate the Environment Conclusions UNIT 2.0: Ecosystem Dynamics 2 Introduction: Ecosystem Dynamics 2.1 Ecology and Ecosystems 2.2 Systems Theory and Feedback 2.3 Energy Flow in Ecosystems 2.4 Material Cycling in Ecosystems – Biogeochemical Cycles 2.5 Biotic Interactions and Their Influences on the Ecosystem 2.6 Population Dynamics Conclusions UNIT 3.0: Managing Ecosystems for Sustainability 3 Introduction: Managing Ecosystems for Sustainability 3.1 Ecosystem Management 3.2 Parks and Protected Areas 3.3 Sustainable Forestry 3.4 Biodiversity – Alien Invasive Species and Species at Risk 3.5 Sustainable Agriculture and Soil Conservation Conclusions UNIT 4.0: Water Resources and Their Management 4 Introduction: Water Resources and Their Management 4.1 Properties of Water 4.2 Water Quantity and Conservation 4.3 Water Quality 4.4 Water Treatment and Pollution Prevention Conclusions UNIT 5.0: Earth’s Climate System and Climate Change 5 Introduction: Earth’s Climate System and Climate Change 5.1 Earth’s Climate System and Energy Budget 5.2 Arctic Amplification and Climate Change in Canada 5.3 Canada’s Climate Change Plan Conclusions UNIT 6.0: Ecotoxicology 6 Introduction: Ecotoxicology 6.1 What is Ecotoxicology? 6.2 Features and Fate of Toxins 6.3 Toxins and Pest Management 6.4 Risk Assessment 6.5 Case Studies in Ecotoxicology Conclusions

Question 9: Health Care

For this assessment, you will report on the information that you collected in your interview, analyzing the interview data and identifying a past or current issue that would benefit from an interdisciplinary approach. This could be an issue that has not been addressed by an interdisciplinary approach or one that could benefit from improvements related to the interdisciplinary approach currently being used. Additionally, you will start laying the foundation for your Interdisciplinary Plan Proposal (Assessment 3) by researching potential change theories, leadership strategies, and collaboration approaches that could be relevant to issue you have identified. Additionally, be sure to address the following, which corresponds to the grading criteria in the scoring guide. Please study the scoring guide carefully so you understand what is needed for a distinguished score. Summarize an interview focused on past or current issues at a health care organization. Identify an issue from an interview for which an evidence-based interdisciplinary approach would be appropriate. Describe potential change theories and a leadership strategy that could inform an interdisciplinary solution to an organizational issue. Describe collaboration approaches from the literature that could facilitate establishing or improving an interdisciplinary team to address an organizational issue.

Interdisciplinary Plan Proposal
Write a brief introduction (2 to 3 sentences) to your proposal that outlines the issue you are attempting to solve, the part of the organization in which the plan would be carried out, and the desired outcome. This will set the stage for the sections below.
Objective
Describe what your plan will do and what you hope it will accomplish in one or two succinct sentences. Also, comment on how the objective, if achieved, will improve organizational or patient outcomes. For example:
Test a double-loop feedback model for evaluating new product risk with a small group of project managers with the goal of reducing the number of new products that fail to launch. This objective is aligned to the broader organizational goal of becoming more efficient taking products to market and, if successful, should improve outcomes by reducing waste.
Questions and Predictions
For this section ask yourself 3 to 5 questions about your objective and your overall plan. Make a prediction for each question by answering the question you posed. This helps you to define the important aspects of your plan as well as limit the scope and check its ability to be implemented.
For example:
1. How much time will using a double-loop feedback model add to a project manager’s workload?
a. At first, it will likely increase their workloads by 5 to 10 percent. However, as the process is refined and project managers become more familiar and efficient, that percentage will decrease.
Change Theories and Leadership Strategies
For this section, you may wish to draw upon the research you did regarding change theories and leadership for the Interview and Interdisciplinary Issue Identification assessment. The focus of this section is how those best practices will create buy-in for the project from an interdisciplinary team, improve their collaboration, and/or foster the team’s ability to implement the plan. Be sure that you are including at least one change theory and at least one leadership strategy in your explanation. Always remember to cite your sources; direct quotes require quotation marks and a page or paragraph number to be included in the citation.
Another way to approach your explanations in this section is to think through the following:
• What is the theory or strategy?
• How will it likely help an interdisciplinary team to collaborate, implement, and/or buy in to the project plan?
o Make sure to frame this explanation within the organizational context of the proposed plan, that is, your interviewee’s organization.
Team Collaboration Strategy
In this section, begin by further defining the responsibilities and actions that represent the implementation of the plan. One strategy to defining this is to take a “who, what, where, and when” approach for each team member.
For example:
• Project Manager A will apply the double-loop feedback model on one new product project for a single quarter.
• Project Manager B will apply the double-loop feedback model on all new product projects for a quarter.
Vice President A will review the workloads of project managers using the double-loop feedback model every Thursday for one quarter.
After you have roughly outlined the roles and responsibilities of team members, you will explain one or more collaborative approaches that will enable the team to work efficiently to achieve the plan’s objective. As with the change theories and leadership strategies, you may draw on the research you conducted for the Interview and Interdisciplinary Issue Identification assessment. However, you are being asked to give a more in-depth explanation of the collaboration approaches and look at how they will help the theoretical interdisciplinary team in your plan proposal.
Another way to approach your explanations in this section is to think through the following:
• What is the collaboration approach?
• What types of collaboration and teamwork will best help the interdisciplinary team be successful?
• How is the collaboration approach relevant to the team’s needs and will it help drive success?
o Make sure to frame this explanation in terms of the subject of the plan proposal; that is, your interviewee’s organization.
Required Organizational Resources
For this section, you will be making rough estimates of the resources needed for your plan proposal to be successful. This section does not have to be exact but the estimates should be realistic for the chosen organization.
Items you should include or address in this section:
• What are the staffing needs for your plan proposal?
• What equipment or supplies are needed for your plan proposal?
o Does the organization already have these?
 If so, what is the cost associated with using these resources?
 If not, what is the cost of acquiring these resources?
• What access (to patients, departments, and so forth) is needed?
o Are there any costs associated with these?
• What is the overall financial budget request for the plan proposal?
o Staff time, resource use, resource acquisition, and access charged?
 Remember to include a specific dollar amount in your request.
After you have detailed your budget, make sure that you explain any impacts on organizational resources that could happen if your plan is not undertaken and successful. In other words, if the issue you are try to solve through your plan proposal persists or gets worse, what will be the potential costs to the organization?

Question 10: Science

Write about one of the following subjects: – intellectual property related to information technology OR – computer crime The paper should have an introduction, good and bad sides, conclusion. If you have an opinion about the subject, write about it. You can study a case to better describe the subject of your paper. Also if you have recommendations to fix any problems with the subject of the paper, include them. Avoid blogs because in most cases they are people’s opinions without supporting sources/references. Cite at least 3 different sources. Assume you are writing the paper for college students who don’t have a technical background.

Question 11: Biology

Choose a topic and write a brief (4-5 pages) review (formal essay format) of some scientific articles that relate to a topic covered in the human nutrition curriculum of Biology 102 *note the topic must be somehow related to human nutritional science – if you want to choose a research topic that involves research outside of humans – you must relate it to human biology in some sense.

This must include references to scientifically sound sources (peer reviewed journal articles), and these references must be cited in the correct scientific format.

* no data base links – (do not copy and paste from pub-med)
* web pages can be used as “supportive references” and must also be referenced correctly

Your analysis should include a summary of the hypotheses of the experiments, the results and discussion of the results and most importantly – your opinion of the study. Why did you find it interesting and what did you learn about the topic?

Use the knowledge that you have gained from Chapter 1 to convey the information in a way a scientist would understand.

Marking Rubric:

1. At least 3 scientific journal article references (other resources can be used to support your ideas) that convey different conclusions related to your topic. (1 mark)

2. A brief but well thought out description of the experiments and the results and conclusions (2 marks)

3. Your personal opinion about what the results mean, and why you chose to research this topic. (1 mark)

4. References are correctly formatted (both the embedded references in the text, and the full reference in the Bibliography) (1 mark)

Total = 5 marks

Chapter 1 in your textbook gives you information related to how science is done and how to think critically to evaluate scientific claims. Incorporate this material into your assignment and convince me that the information you are conveying is scientifically sound and comes from a peer reviewed source. An example of a database that will allow you to access these articles is:

(www.pubmed.com)

Your paper must be referenced in a scientifically accepted format (APA) – for an example: look at the format of the references included in the papers you have chosen, or the “endnotes” provided at the end of every chapter in your textbook.

Question 12: Biology

How do seniors with compromised sight/hearing navigate the city?] Describe the mechanics of normally functioning eyes… How does one see? (Biology) Describe the mechanics of normally functioning ears… How does one hear? (Biology) Describe (for your reader) how one uses sound and sight to navigate the streets of NYC. It may help to walk us through a route that’s familiar to you: like traveling from home to school. Explain how someone with limited sight/hearing could navigate that same route (Include your research) Conclusion

Question 13: Religious Studies

1. How and why would Matthew have edited Mark 6:45-52 contrasted with Matthew 14:25-27,32-33? 2. How and why would Matthew have edited Mark 9:2-10 contrasted with Matthew 17:1-13? Be sure to distinguish between paraphrase and direct quotes. Type a 350-750-word paper using MLA formatting. Make sure to use and cite these sources below: The Gospels by Barton and Muddiman (2010), p. 56 New Testament History and Literature by Martin (2012), pp. 106-108 Accurate use of English including careful documentation (including the ability to paraphrase and use quotations) and good organizational plan. 40 pts Adequate research. 20 pts Accurate and complete reflection of material read for the assignment. 40 pts

Question 14: Mathematics

Find the derivative and simplify completely.
1. 𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑥3−7𝑥+6
2. 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑒sec 2𝑥
3. 𝑦=𝑙𝑛(3𝑥+𝑒−𝑥)4
4. h(𝑥)=𝑐𝑜𝑠4 7𝑥 √
5. 𝑦=cot(−2𝑥+𝑥4)
6. 𝑦=−2𝑥4𝑐𝑜𝑠3𝑥

𝒙 𝑓(𝑥) 𝑓′(𝑥) 𝑔(𝑥) 𝑔′(𝑥)
1 -1 -3 2 4
0 3 7 1 -3
7. 𝑑 (𝑓∙𝑔)2, Evaluate when𝑥=1 𝑑𝑥
8. 𝑑 (1), Evaluate when𝑥=0 𝑑𝑥 𝑓3

Derivatives Part 3

Select the best answer and place the letter in the space provided.
_________ 1. If 𝑓(𝑥) = csc(4𝑥) − sec(3𝑥2), then f ‘(x) =
_________ 2. If f (x) = sin2 x, then 𝑓′ (𝜋) = 3
_________ 3. What is the derivative of 𝑦 = 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1(cos 𝑥)?
1 _________4. If𝑦=(9−𝑥2)3, what is the
equation of the normal line at (1,2)?
Differentiate the following. Simplify as best you can.
5.𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑐𝑜𝑠(3𝑥) 6.𝑔(𝑥)=𝑙𝑜𝑔6(2𝑥4 +5)3
7.𝑦=𝑐𝑜𝑠−1(6𝑥2) 8.14𝑥+8𝑦2 +𝑥5 =12−𝑦
9. Consider the equation 4𝑦2 − 3𝑥𝑦 = −2
a) Find the derivative for the function above.
b) Find the equation of the normal line to the curve at the point (1,3).
c) Find d2 y at (1,3) dx2

Directions: use the space provided to answer the following questions. Be sure to show all work to be awarded partial credit.
1. Suppose the position equation for a moving object is given by 𝑠(𝑡) = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑡 + 3𝑡 where 𝑠(𝑡) is
measured in meters and t is measured in seconds. Find the velocity of the object when 𝑡 = 𝜋. 3
Find the derivatives of the following. Simplify as best as you can.
2.𝑦= 2𝑥 𝑥3−3𝑥2 3. h(𝑥) = 𝑥3−1 3√𝑥
4. 𝑦 = −𝑥3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 5.𝑦= 5𝑒𝑥 2𝑥2−1
6. 𝑓(𝑥) = 3 sec 𝑥 sin 𝑥 7. h(𝑥) = (2𝑥4 − 1) (𝑥2 − 𝑥3) 𝑥4
8. Find𝑑3𝑦given𝑦=3𝑥4−5𝑥3+8𝑥−10. 𝑑𝑥3
9. Find the fourth derivative when 𝑓(𝑥) = 3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥.
10.Find𝑓”(𝑥)when𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑥12 −𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥−4

Question 15: Economics
Industrial Organization Econ 304
Problem Set 3
1. Assume that there are two hair salons located on Main Street which is 1 mile in length. Salon A which is located at the east end of the Main Street has a constant unit cost of $5and Salon B which is located at the west end of the Main Street has a constant unit cost of $10. There are 1000 potential customers who live along the street and they are uniformly spread out along the street. Customers are willing to pay $40 for a hair-cut that is done at their home. If a customer has to travel to get a hair-cut, then a there and back travel cost of $5 per mile is incurred. Suppose that each salon wants to set a price for a hair-cut that maximizes salon’s profit.
1. a- Salon A and Salon B choose their prices sequentially. Suppose Salon A chooses its price first. What are the equilibrium prices and profits? Do these two salons serve all customers?
2. b- Salon A and Salon B choose their prices sequentially. Suppose Salon B chooses its price first. What are the equilibrium prices and profits? Do these two salons serve all customers?

Question 16: Psychology

Instruction
• Choose 1 specific stage of the family life cycle and apply it to a specific family challenge.
• Next chose 1 type of family challenge/crisis and describe in detail how it will impact the normal development of the family life cycle in general and then for the majority of the paper drill down into how that 1 specific challenge/crisis will impact 1 particular stage of the family life cycle.
• You will research both the challenge and the life cycle stage and then report out on best practices and evidence based social work interventions with families.
• Finally, you will design a family therapy treatment plan (see syllabus page 11) and discuss the treatment goals, objectives, and techniques used in treatment if it helps develop a mini case scenario with a presenting problem related to the family challenge/crisis
• Some examples of family challenges/crises include but are not limited to: substance abuse of a parent or other family member, infertility, incarceration, re-entry into society/community from incarceration, terminal illness diagnosis, chronic illness, unemployment, natural disaster, death of grandparent, death of child, suicide of a family member, chronic persistent mental illness of a family member, immigration/deportation/detainment, relocation to another city/state/country, returning war veteran, active deployment, juvenile delinquency, disability new onset, child with physical or mental or cognitive/developmental disability etc.
*It must be written using APA format, 6-8 pages in length, and with a minimum of 6 references. GRADING RUBRIC FOR RESEARCH-BASED PAPER APA Format 10 points Use of scholarly sources (less than 10 years old) 10 points Proper length and number of references 10 points Clearly and thoroughly identifies the challenge area being explored 10 points Clearly and thoroughly explores each stage of family development and impact of challenge area 40 points Clearly and thoroughly describes treatment in specific stage 20 points Violations such as the absence of or minimal use of citations in the paper (a form of plagiarism) or in-body citations in the paper not found on the reference page or vice versa, etc. or any indication of plagiarism. Automatic “0” for the paper
Below here are the stages to choose from: The stages of family life
Stage 1: Family of origin experiences · During this phase the main tasks are: o Maintaining relationships with parents, siblings and peers
*Completing education o Developing the foundations of a model of family life
Stage 2: Leaving home · During this phase the main tasks are: o Differentiation of self from family of origin and parents and developing adult to adult relationships with parents *Developing intimate peer relationships. o Beginning work, developing work identity and financial independence.
Stage 3: Premarriage stage · During this phase the main tasks are: o Selecting partners’ o Developing a relationship o Deciding to establish own home with someone.
Stage 4: Childless couple stage · During this phase the main tasks are: o Developing a way to live together both practically and emotionally o Adjusting relationships with families of origin and peers to include partner
Stage 5: Family with young children · During this phase the main tasks are: o Realigning family system to make space for children o Adopting and developing parenting roles o Realigning relationships with families of origin to include parenting and grand parenting roles o Facilitating children to develop peer relationships
Stage 6. Family with adolescents · During this phase the main tasks are: o Adjusting parent-child relationships to allow adolescents more autonomy o Adjusting family relationships to focus on midlife relationship and career issues o Taking on responsibility of caring for families of origin
Stage 7: Launching children · During this phase the main tasks are: o Resolving midlife issues o Negotiating adult to adult relationships with children o Adjusting to living as a couple again o Adjusting to including in-laws and grandchildren within the family circle o Dealing with disabilities and death in the family of origin
Stage 8: Later family life · During this phase the main tasks are: o Coping with physiological decline in self and others o Adjusting to children taking a more central role in family maintenance o Valuing the wisdom and experience of the elderly o Dealing with loss of spouse and peers o Preparation for death, life review, reminiscence and integration

Question 17: History

250 Word Discussion Post on the Transition of Rome from Republic to Empire. Must be cited using Chicago style format, please see rubric before starting. 6. Discuss the transition of Rome from a Republic to an Empire. Is it even accurate to call Rome a Republic before the reign of Augustus? Or is it an empire in every way except for name? Hint: A Roman Empire is different than The Roman Empire.

Question 18: Sociology

In the first part of the term we went through the various perspectives on what the self/individual is and what society/culture is and the relationship between self and society (the individual and culture). We concluded that all the perspectives believe that we are a product of culture (they, of course, had differing views on the individual’s capacity to create society, etc..). 1)So start by simply summarizing this. Explain what culture is (define it and explain it. Use my notes and the textbook. 2) Next, explain how we are a product of our culture. Again, refer to my notes and the textbook. Here introduce your choice of the influencer. Briefly explain cultural values and norms that the influencer embodies. Depending on your choice, you may want to explain the culture industry and its ability to produce human commodities that others consume, etc… 3) If you are dealing with an activist you might want to discuss the political discourses that this person’s identity embodies. 4) Next, from the Foucault lecture on discourse and Mead and Cooley’s lecture, we looked more deeply at how the self is formed. I explained the I-Other relationship and how we need others to emerge as a self. So explain this. In other words, explain how we require others to mirror back to us who we are extra… 5) Next, once you have explained what culture is and how the self is formed…and you have introduced your choice of influencer, you need to begin to answer my questions. What values does the person embody? What do they represent? Etc… And explain who their followers are? Who is the audience and what are they embracing about this person? Who are the haters? 6) The next part is about globalization and the postmodern world. I posted some notes but will lecture on this with reference to your essays tomorrow. Basically, Postmodernity allows us more freedom in becoming our own unique selves. We interact with multiple cultures and multiple discourses and from these interactions, we create a unique self and are thus a complex configuration of identities. Here you will bring in your influencer and build your analysis. It is said that in the postmodern world cultural products, which include human beings, are a complex configuration of identities–a hybrid or fusion of multiple identities–and this has given people more freedom to become what we want to be. But we still have to appeal to the greater of society in order to be accepted or included. So you need to explore your influencer and come up with a conclusion of who they are and how they are an expression or reflection of the postmodern world.

Question 19: English

CG Assignment 2
Student’s name: Academic no:
A/Complete the sentences using must, mustn’t, can’t, could, might, have to, need to, needn’t (4marks)

1 We’re absolutely sure they’ve got our money. They ______________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
2 Perhaps she’ll arrive this afternoon. She _________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________
3 It’s impossible that they are brother and sister. They _____________________________________ .
______________________________________________________________________________________________________
4. We don’t have plenty of time. We ___________________________________________ hurry up.
5. You must keep it a secret. You______________________________________________ tell anybody.
6. I’ll be all right. You _______________________________________________ worry about me.
7. I__________________________________________ have bought eggs. We had some already.
8. He works away from home. He___________________________ drive 80 miles every day.

B/Respond to the statements or questions using the words in brackets. (3 marks)
1. I have just seen a bank robbery. (must, be frightened
_______________________________________________________________________________________
2. She walked straight past me without saying hello. (can’t, see) ________________________________________________________________________________________
3. The team lost 5–0. (must, play badly)
________________________________________________________________________________________

What would you say in these situations? (3 marks)
You have booked a seat on a train. You find that someone is sitting in your seat. Explain politely that the seat is yours.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
You are in a hotel and you want to write a letter but there’s no writing paper in your room. You want Reception to provide you with some. ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________
Your friend feels he isn’t making much progress with his English. Make a suggestion to help him.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Question 20: Gender Studies

All papers need to have an abstract included

Based upon your research in this module and additional research you conduct:

1) what specific training relating to YOUTH in gangs is available to law enforcement or corrections officers? Present an overview of currently available training designed to teach law enforcement officers about youth in gangs (NOTE: G.R.E.A.T. is NOT gang officer training; it is a training for youth led by officers and should NOT be referred to). Listing names of training courses is insufficient; you must explain the contents of the training. HINT: search in government publications and state and national gang training organization web sites that list training conferences.

2) using theories and concepts examined in this module and your own research propose at least two (2) specific improvements to training police or corrections officers could use to better work with youth in gangs (more of the same training is not an improvement),

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3) explain how and why the improvements you proposed in 2) above can help officers work safer and more effectively with youth drawn to or in gangs, and

4) specifically explain in one paragraph how our university’s core value of RESPECT applies to specific contents of the textbook readings for this module and include a citation and page number.

Respect
Animated in the spirit of Jesus Christ, we value all individuals’ unique talents, respect their dignity, and strive to foster their commitment to excellence in our work. Our community’s strength depends on the unity and diversity of our people, on the free exchange of ideas, and on learning, living, and working harmoniously.

Your response should go beyond the obvious and be written at a graduate level. Your answer must be no less than 1500 words and you must use at least three authoritative sources to support your position. NOTE: the use of only three (3) authoritative sources demonstrates a minimum level of acceptable graduate level work and is not exemplary nor necessarily proficient.
YOU MUST ALSO ADD THE URL (Uniform Resource Locator) OR the DOI (Digital Object Identifier) to the end of EVERY APA reference found on the internet.

Question 21: English

Instruction
A poem consists of at least twenty lines. The longer the better (but not too long) The topic is on “ignorance is bliss”. It must cover how ignorance is bliss. I want as many allusions of current or historical social issues that touch upon the topic. plenty of poetic devices need to be incorporated into the piece. Also, the poem must be insightful and complex with a lot of ambiguity that can be deciphered.

Question 22: Religious Studies

Write four summaries of the reading from any four of the following chapters in Everyday Bible Study:
15. Observe: How to Make Accurate Observations
16. How to Use Multiple Translations of the Bible
17. How to Ask Key Questions
28. Interpret: How to Find the Meaning of the Bible
29. Correlate: How to Connect Scripture to Other Scriptures
30. Correlate: How to See Jesus in the Bible
31. Apply: How to Live Out What You Learn
32. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 1: Law
33. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 2:
Narrative 34. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 3: Wisdom and Poetry
35. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 4: Prophetic Literature
This means that in this assignment you are developing four summaries of 120 words each (one for each of the four chapters you selected). You should aim to create four summaries where each summary is between 100-120 words. Each of your summaries should not exceed the 120-word or $12 limit.

Question 23: Law

Essay on Biometrics and intersection with technology and law. Follow the outline and please should be well foot-noted!

Biometrics Now/Future/Ethics/Law
Introduction: Fingerprint recognition, voice identification, facial recognition, DNA matching, and signature matching are all forms of Biometric technology. These technologies aim to identify a person’s identity through unique traits and characteristics. Since biometric characteristics cannot be conjectured or stolen, biometric systems present a superior level of security than usual means of authentication such as passwords or pins.
1. Background
a. Timeline and brief history of biometrics – A.K. Jain, A. Ross, S. Prabhakar (2004), An
introduction to biometric recognition, IEEE Transactions on Circuits and Systems for Video Technology 14 (1) 4–20
2. Biometrics Today
1. Biometric technologies
2. Biometric applications
3. Recent advancements in emerging biometrics
i. Biometrics based on brain and heart signals – Vascular pattern based biometrics – Kauba C., Prommegger B., Uhl A. (2020) OpenVein—An Open-Source Modular Multipurpose Finger Vein Scanner Design.
3. Future of Biometrics
a. Second generation biometrical systems aims to scan intent – Sutrop, M. and Laas-Mikko,
K. (2012), From Identity Verification to Behavior Prediction: Ethical Implications of Second Generation Biometrics. Review of Policy Research, 29: 21-36.
4. Implications of current and future Biometric technology a. Threat to individuals and organizations
i. Dangers to owners of secured items
ii. Threat of privacy invasion
iii. Identity theft – Park, Eunice, Your Biometrics: Private or Not? (December 31, 2019). Orange County Lawyer Magazine, Vol. 62, No. 1, February 2020, at 32.
iv. Threat to companies for compliance
v. Wrongful accusations and threat of civil liberties if Biometrics mapped intent
5. Ethical Discussion of Biometrics
a. Possible Effects on Human Dignity – Alterman, A. (2003). “A piece of yourself”: Ethical
issues in biometric identification. Ethics and Information Technology , 5, 139– 150.
6. Legal Ramifications
1. Constitutional Law Considerations
i. Right to Privacy – Woodward J.D. (2008) The Law and the Use of Biometrics . In: Jain A.K., Flynn P., Ross A.A. (eds) Handbook of Biometrics . Springer, Boston, MA
ii. 4th and 5th Amendments
2. Laws Regulating Biometric Data
i. BIPA
ii. California Statutes
1. CCPA
3. The need for a global standard of laws that regulate biometrics – Pope, C. (2018).
Biometric data collection in an unprotected world: Exploring the need for federal legislation protecting biometric data . Journal of Law and Policy, 26(2), 769-804.
7. Conclusion
Question 24: Education

Mini Case International Financial Management Fifth Edition Mexico’s Balance of Payments Problem
Mini Case
International Financial Management Fifth Edition
Mexico’s Balance of Payments Problem
Mexico experienced larger scale trade deficits, depletion of foreign reserve holdings, and a major currency devaluation in December 1994, followed by the decision to freely float the peso. These events also brought about a severe recession and higher unemployment in Mexico. Since the devaluation, however, the trade balance has improved.
Investigate the Mexican experiences in detail and write a report on the subject.
· Mexico’s key economic indicators; BOP, the exchange rate, and foreign reserve holdings, during the period 1994-1995
· Causes of Mexico’s balance of payments difficulties prior to the peso devaluation
· Policy actions for prevent and mitigate the balance of payment problem and the subsequent collapse of the peso
· Lesson from the Mexican experience that may be useful for other developing countries

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Question 25: Sociology
1.
a. What is the difference between the free exercise clause and the establishment clause?

b. What limitations exists on religious practices?

2.
a. What are three types of speech not protected by the First Amendment?

b. Why do you think the Supreme Court limits student speech more than the speech of adults?

3.
a. What are the requirements for a lawful assembly on private property?

b. For what reasons might the right to assemble be limited on public property

4.What kinds of clubs are not allowed in school?

a. Why do school officials have the right to limit students’ rights of assembly?

1. Is a trained dogs sniff of someone or something a search of that person or thing? Explain why or why not.
2. Do you agree with the majority of the Court in the Caballes case or with the dissenting opinions? Explain why.

3. Would your opinion in the Caballes case be different if it had involved a bomb-sniffing dog instead? Explain.

1.
a. What is the plain view doctrine?
b. In what situations can police conduct a search warrant?
c. Should searches of motor vehicles require police to have a warrant?
2.
a. What is cyber-surveillance?

b. What do you think is the most important factor in deciding whether a search is reasonable?
3.
a. Why is it possible for people to agree on a fundamental value such as the right to privacy but disagree over the meaning of that right in specific situations?

Question 26: Law

This is an exercise in legal problem solving. This assessment task covers material taught in Contracts I and II only.

Assessment tasks exist to help students learn and apply their knowledge. Grades exist to show how fully this goal is attained.
This assessment task must be the student’s own understanding and effort. If the words or ideas used are not your own, then you must correctly reference them using the Harvard/WesternSydU referencing style.
Requests for extensions will only be considered in the most extraordinary circumstances. If you make such a request, you must attach all work done to date on this task to your email, otherwise it will be automatically declined and you will then need to file an application for special consideration. Late penalties will apply to a submission made after the due date without an extension – 10% of total marks per day or part thereof. You should upload your completed work as soon as you are able, without waiting for an email from the unit coordinator granting or declining an extension or for an outcome on your special consideration application, as the Easter public holidays will occur just after submission so your request will not be dealt with until the Tuesday, some 4 days after the due time for submission, or even later.

A deferred assessment task might be granted as a result of your application for special consideration. If so, it will take the form of a 2 hour open book online exam. This will be held after the teaching is finished but before the final exam.

This assessment task is designed to address student learning outcomes 1–4 for the unit:

INSTRUCTIONS:

· Before submitting your Essay, it should be spell-checked and read aloud to check for grammatical errors and/or run through the grammar-checking tool in MS Word.
• Answer all questions.
• Word limit: 1500 words for the entire task, excluding your Reference List. This is a strict word count, you cannot exceed this count, therefore no +10% permitted. The penalty for exceeding the word limit is 1 mark per 100 words or part thereof.
· Do not attach a cover sheet, as this is built into the Turnitin system. If you do this will impact upon your Originality Report, your word count, and your privacy.
• Format: Double spaced, Arial 12 point, MS Word document. If you do not use a Word document we will not be able to view and mark it. Please note you can download the MSWord App for iPads free via App Store.
• If you have a question about this assessment task, please read the Learning Guide and these instructions, before posting a question to the Discussion Board on vUWS. Do not email the unit coordinator unless your enquiry is of a personal nature. Using the Discussion Board means that every student has the benefit of access to the answers to questions about the assessment task, which is a fairer system for everyone. Do NOT post your actual responses to any of the questions, as this may involve you in possible academic misconduct. Also do not ask for help in identifying how to answer a problem.

QUESTIONS:
There are three questions in this assessment task. Students must answer all questions.

Question 1: 8 marks
Graham wishing to impress his friend Stacey, goes with Stacey to an antique shop. He inspects an antique dining table and asks the shop assistant the price. The shop assistant tells him that the price is $5,000. Graham says to the shop assistant that he will take it and gives his address to the shop assistant to deliver it to his home. Payment will be on delivery.
When the table arrives, Graham telephones the shop and tells the shop assistant that he was only pretending to buy the table and that he had no intention of going through with the purchase. The shop assistant tells him that Graham must pay for the table.
Is there a binding contract between Graham and the shop? Discuss this situation using case law to support any argument you may make.
Question 2: 5 marks
Andrew and Susan married in 2015 and lived together until they separated in 2018. After 12 months of living apart, they came to an agreement in relation to maintenance and property matters. The agreement was that Susan would pay Andrew $250,000 for his interest in their matrimonial home, and that Andrew would pay Susan $1000 per month to contribute to the mortgage payments on this home. Susan paid to Andrew $250,000 but Andrew refuses to make maintenance payments to Susan. Andrew argues that their agreement is not enforceable because it was made in a domestic context. Is Andrew correct? Explain your answer and indicate relevant authority where appropriate.

Question 3: 5 marks
Chris owned and raced some greyhound dogs, who were very successful on the track. Bruce wanted to buy one of them and breed with it. However, when Bruce approached Chris, Chris told him his dogs were not for sale. Bruce increased the price he was offering but Chris continued to say no.
After several attempts Bruce finally said to Chris that he was being a stubborn ox and that dogs can easily die if one was not too careful with what they fed them.
Chris started to fear for the safety of his beloved animals and himself, so he approached another dog owner, George, and offered to sell all his dogs quite cheaply provided it was a quick sale. George agreed to the sale and now has the dogs.
Chris regrets his hasty decision and wishes to set aside the contract for the sale of his dogs. What legal argument could Chris make to set aside the contract for sale? Is it likely he will be successful?

Two marks are specifically set aside for English expression and referencing in your answer. This is negatively marked, that is you will lose ½ mark for each error up to a maximum loss of 2 marks.
The marking guidelines are as set out in the Learning Guide: Students are assessed against those standards.

Question 27: Business
The final consists of 5 essay questions from Chapters 11-15. Each response should be 150-200 content words and include references.

Question 1 of 5
Differentiate between the three types of bonds.

Question 2 of 5
Describe the five as they apply to human resource management.

Question 3 of 5
20.0 Points
Differentiate between transaction and translation risks. Explain how these risks affect firms and investors.

Question 4 of 5
20.0 Points
Differentiate between standardization, adaptation, and globalization. Provide an example of each.

Reference:

Question 5 of 5
20.0 Points
Describe and differentiate between the US GAAP and the International GAAP.

Question 28: Business

Introduction
½ a page. Introduce the small business (the name, main operations, target market)
P 1. Analyse key considerations for evaluating growth opportunities and justify these considerations within an organizational context.
You should include an analysis of key considerations for evaluating growth opportunities and justify them within the organization’s context. SWOT analysis; evaluating performance; business model canvas; Mckinsey 7S Framework.
P2 Evaluate the opportunities for growth applying Ansoff’s growth vector matrix.
Within the chosen small business, the risks of each option and how they can be mitigated.

P3 Assess the potential sources of funding available to businesses and discuss benefits and drawbacks of each source.
Talk about the long term (2 examples) and short term sources (2 examples), advantages and disadvantages of each source.

P4 Design a business plan for growth that includes financial information and strategic objectives for scaling up a business.
Must be detailed enough to show plans for growth and securing funding, set out strategic objectives, strategies and appropriate frameworks for achieving objectives.
P5 Assess exit or succession options for a small business explaining the benefits and drawbacks of each option.
Compare and contrast the options and make valid recommendations.
Decide appropriate course of action with justified recommendations.
Planning for Growth

You will prepare a report of a business plan for the growth of your simulated small business.
Use a standard report word-process and use a normal script of font size 10 to 11. Line spacing 1.5

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Question 29: Economics

Q.1 Why do national income accountants compare the market value of the total outputs in various years rather than actual physical volumes of production? What problem is posed by any comparison over time of the market values of various total outputs? How is this problem resolved?

Q.2 Why are only final goods counted in measuring GDP for a particular year? Why is the value of used furniture that’s bought and sold not counted?
Answer:

Q.3 What are the three main types of consumption expenditures? Why are purchases of new houses considered to be investment expenditures rather than consumption expenditures?
Answer:

Q.6 Which of the following are included in this year’s GDP? Explain your answer in each case.
a. The services of a commercial painter in painting the family home.
b. An auto dealer’s sale of a new car to a nonbusiness customer.
c. The money received by Smith when she sells her biology textbook to a used-book buyer.
d. The publication and sale of a new economics textbook.
e. A $2 billion increase in business inventories.
f. Government purchases of newly produced aircraft.

Question 30: Chemistry
1. Which is true regarding the seven crystal systems?
A) they completely define a crystal structure
B) they describe the shape of the unit cell.
C) there are 7 shapes that can completely fill 3D space through translational symmetry
D) all of the above.

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the 7 crystal systems?
A) Tetragonal
B) Rhombohedral
C) Trigonal
D) Face centered cubic

3. Elemental metals do not commonly crystallize in which of the following lattices
A) simple cubic
B) face centered cubic
C) hexagonal close packed
D) body centered cubic.

4. Which direction has the highest linear density in a crystal of Cu that crystallizes in the fcc? A) [100]
B) [110]
C) [111]
D) (110)

5. Which direction has the highest linear density in a crystal of Na that crystallizes in the bcc? A) [110]
B) [100]
C) [111]
D) (111)

6. In a BCC metal, the plane with the highest planer density is: A) (100)
B) (110)
C) (111)
D) (200)

7. The closest packed plane in a metal FCC structure is: A) (100)
B) (110)
C) (111)
D) (200)

8. Which is TRUE about Bragg’s Law?
A) It defines conditions necessary for diffraction in primitive cells
B) It is insufficient to predict diffraction in non¬primitive cells
C) It relates the path length difference between to diffracted beams to the lattice d¬spacing
D) All of the above

9. Which plane will show a peak on a diffraction pattern for alpha¬Fe (metal bcc structure)? A) (100)
B) (220)
C) (210)
D) (221)

10. Which of the following statements about vacancies is true?
A) vacancies are always present in materials
B) as temperature increases, the number of vacancies will increase
C) as temperature decreases, the number of vacancies will increase
D) vacancies are considered linear defects

11. The Hume¬Rothery rules give the conditions to be met for
A) Mixing between two elements
B) Assignment of coordination number
C) The existence of an impurity
D) Complete solid solubility

12.
Which of the following describe the defect represented by AlMg•

A) Aluminum vacancy on a magnesium site
B) Magnesium vacancy on an aluminum site
C) Aluminum substitution on a magnesium site
D) Magnesium substitution on an aluminum site

13. Which of the following could be used to maintain electroneutrality for the substitution of an aluminum atom into a magnesium lattice point?
A) For every two aluminum substitutions, create one oxygen vacancy
B) For every two aluminum substitutions, create a magnesium vacancy
C) Electroneutrality is maintained for this substitution
D) For every two aluminum substitutions, create a magnesium interstitial

14. Which is true regarding dislocations in crystals?
A) they are categorized as being two¬ dimensional defects
B) they occur only in metals
C) they can be described quantitatively by their Burger’s vector
D) cannot be readily detected because they are too small.

15. Twin boundaries, grain boundaries, and stacking faults all represent which kind of defect?
A) Types of dislocations
B) Two dimensional defects
C) Linear defects
D) Point defects

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16. Which of the following statements describes Fick’s first law?
A) the diffusivity is proportional to the concentration gradient
B) the net mass flux is proportional to the diffusivity
C) the flux is described by the error function
D) the diffusivity is thermally activated

17. Diffusion in a solid
A) is facilitated by point defects such as vacancies
B) is a function of temperature
C) requires a concentration gradient,
D) all of the above.

18. A condition of non¬steady state diffusion (i.e. the net flux is varying with time) can be described by
A) Fick’s Second law,
B) the Avrami equation
C) an Arrhenius relationship
D) none of the above.

19. Diffusivity has units of
A) mass/time2
B) length2/time
C) mass/length2•time
D) mass length/time

20. Which of the following statements about diffusion is TRUE?
A) As the bond strength is increased, the diffusion coefficient increases
B) The smaller the diffusing species the smaller the diffusivity
C) As atomic packing factor increases, diffusivity increases
D) As bond energy increases, the activation energy for diffusion increases

21.

NaCl crystallizes in the Rock salt structure illustrated above. (the figure shows multiple unit cells together). Its x-ray diffraction pattern for lamda = 0.154 nm is also shown. The table attached shows relevant data for atoms and ions which you may find useful to answer the questions, 21¬24, below.
21. Consider NaCl as well as the compounds MgO, MgS, and KBr which also crystal in the same Rock salt structure. Which shows the ranking order these compounds from lowest to highest melting point?

A) MgS < MgO < KBr < NaCl
B) MgO < MgS < KBr < NaCl
C) NaCl < KBr < MgS < MgO
D) NaCl < KBr < MgO < MgS

22.
Refer to the picture in question 21. The peak for the (220) takes place at a 2¬theta value of 45 degrees. Calculate the lattice parameter for NaCl. The value of the lattice parameter is
A) 0.201 nm
B) 0.569 nm
C) 0.109 nm
D) 0.308 nm

23. Refer to the figure in question 21. The calculated the theoretical density of NaCl is A) 13.29 g/cm3
B) 1.05 g/cm3
C) 2.11 g/cm3
D) 0.527 g/cm3

24.
Refer to the figure in question 21. For a similar XRD pattern for MgS (with lamda=0.154 nm) at what diffraction angle (2¬theta) would you expect the first peak to appear?
A) 30.2 degrees
B) 15.1 degrees
C) 17.9 degrees
D) 35.8 degrees

25.

Refer to figures (i) – (ii) to answer questions 25 – 26 about the specific directions and planes depicted below using proper Miller (or Miller¬Bravais) indices.
25. Which choice indicates the three directions shown in Figure i?
A) (101), (111), (010)
B) [101], [111], [010]
C) [110], [010], [011]
D) None of the above

26. Which choice indicates the plane shown in Figure ii, in question 25? A) [101]
B) (110)
C) [110]
D) (101)
27.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, Which of the following choices describes a Frenkel defect reaction in this material?
A) Null → VMg″ + VCl•
B) MgCl2 → VMg″ + 2Cli•
C)
Cl

MgCl2 → VMg″ + Mgi•• +2Cl x

D) Null → VMg″ + 2VCl•

28.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, If the fraction of intrinsically vacant Mg sites in this crystal is 2.3 x10¬13 at 500°C and the activation energy for this vacancy formation is Ev = 2.3 eV, calculate the fraction of Mg vacancies expected to exist at 800°C.
A) 3.6 x10¬9
B) 1.1 x10¬4
C) 1.4 x10¬17
D) 4.6 x10¬22

29.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, If the compound was MgBr2, how would you expect the slope of the curve to change in a plot of ln (fraction of intrinsically vacant Mg sites) as a function of 1/T?
A) Slope of curve would become positive
B) Slope of the curve would decrease
C) Slope of the curve would increase
D) Slope would stay the same

30.
Using a hydrocarbon gas to carburize the surface of a steel, we obtain a surface carbon content of 1.0 wt%. The initial carbon content of the steel is 0.2 wt%. How long would take at 1000˚C to obtain a carbon concentration of 0.6 wt% at a distance 1mm from the surface? Given: Do = 20 x 10¬6 m2/S; Q = 142 kJ/mol
A) 1.52 x10¬5 hours
B) 1.02 x107 hours
C) 15.2 hours
D) 10.2 hours

Question 31: Health Care

NUTRI 101 FINAL EXAM
Question1 What is the major monosaccharide found in the human body?
Select one:
a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. lactose
d. galactose
Question2 Which of these is a complex carbohydrate that cannot be broken down by the human digestive process?
Select one:
a. amino acid
b. simple sugar
c. starch
d. fiber
Question3 What is the purpose of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, 2010?
Select one:
a. to help people with specific diseases requiring special diet information
b. to provide dietary guidelines for Americans from birth to old age
c. to support the premise that nutrients should come primarily from supplements
d. to help Americans choose an overall healthful diet
Question4 How much moderate-intensity exercise is recommended in order to decrease an individual’s risk of chronic disease?
Select one:
a. 30 minutes per day
b. 45 minutes per day
c. 60 minutes per day
d. 90 minutes per day

Question5 What is an advantage of fat as a source of fuel for exercise?
Select one:
a. It can be utilized during intense, short-term exercise.
b. It is the most efficient fuel source for anaerobic exercise.
c. The body can utilize it quickly and efficiently.
d. It supplies more than twice the energy of carbohydrates.
Question6 In the human body, when is glycogen synthesis greatest?
Select one:
a. during sleep
b. upon rising in the morning
c. preceding strenuous activity
d. immediately following exercise
Question7 What is the first step in the production of energy from food?
Select one:
a. anaerobic breakdown of glucose in the cytoplasm
b. conversion of food energy to ATP
c. aerobic breakdown of nutrients in the mitochondria
d. anabolic metabolism of vitamins and minerals
Question8 A cell’s genetic material is contained in its
Select one:
a. endoplasmic reticulum.
b. nucleus.
c. mitochondria.
d. Golgi complex.
Question9 The primary functions of epithelial tissue in the lining of the respiratory tract are to
Select one:
a. facilitate communication with the brain and other organs.
b. support and protect the lungs, store fat, and produce blood cells.
c. hold internal structures together and facilitate movement.
d. secrete important substances, absorb nutrients, and excrete waste.

Question10 What happens in the human body when too much Vitamin C is consumed via supplements?
Select one:
a. It is stored in muscle and liver.
b. The body converts it to its active form.
c. It will all be used for metabolic processes.
d. It is excreted in the feces and urine.
Question11 What substances manufactured by the endocrine glands act as chemical messengers in the body? Select one:
a. enzymes
b. genes
c. hormones
d. proteases
Question12 What is the term for the partially digested food mixture as it leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine?
Select one:
a. chyme
b. bile
c. mucus
d. chyle
Question13 How does the body regulate blood glucose levels after a meal?
Select one:
a. Glycogen is released from muscles.
b. Epinephrine is released by the adrenal glands.
c. Insulin is released from the pancreas.
d. Glucagon is released from the pancreas.
Question14 Which of these is the only animal-derived food that contains a significant amount of carbohydrates? Select one:
a. beef
b. eggs
c. milk
d. poultry
Question15 Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrate?
Select one:
a. lipase
b. protease
c. amylase
d. dextrose
Question16 What product is formed as a result of the incomplete breakdown of fat when carbohydrates are not available to the body?
Select one:
a. glycogen
b. ketones
c. insulin
d. cholesterol
Question17 Which type of fats can raise the low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level in the blood?
Select one:
a. saturated
b. monounsaturated
c. polyunsaturated
d. essential
Question18 Which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
Select one:
a. HDL > 40 mg/dl
b. LDL < 200 mg/dl
c. total cholesterol > 150 mg/dl
d. blood pressure >139/89 mg HG
Question19 If a 100-calorie serving of food has 10 grams of fat, what percentage of the calories in that food is fat? Select one:
a. 90%
b. 70%
c. 40%
d. 10%
Question20 Plant proteins are considered incomplete when they are missing which of these?
Select one:
a. peptide bonds
b. gelatin
c. branch chained amino acids
d. essential amino acids
Question21 Edema can be caused by a lack of which substance in the bloodstream?
Select one:
a. cholesterol
b. triglycerides
c. protein
d. glucose
Question22 The enzymatic digestion of protein begins in the
Select one:
a. mouth.
b. esophagus.
c. stomach.
d. small intestine.
Question23 Based on the RDA, how many grams of protein would a healthy 125-pound woman need daily?
Select one:
a. 46
b. 56
c. 66
d. 76
Question24 Which of the following is closely correlated with an increase in basal metabolic rate?
Select one:
a. being a female
b. having a smaller body surface area per body volume
c. having greater lean body mass
d. undergoing an extreme dieting regime
Question25 Joe is 25 years old and weighs 154 pounds. What would be Joe’s 24-hour estimated basal metabolic rate?
Select one:
a. 70 kcal/24 hours
b. 1680 kcal/24 hours
c. 1848 kcal/24 hours
d. 3696 kcal/24 hours
Question26 Which term refers to the minimum amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest?
Select one:
a. basal metabolism
b. physical activity caloric expenditure
c. thermic effect of food
d. thermogenesis
Question27 What theory proposes that everyone has a genetically determined body weight that is maintained through internal controls?
Select one:
a. environmental theory
b. external cue theory
c. internal cue theory
d. set point theory
Question28 In which list are all of the vitamins fat-soluble?
Select one:
a. Vitamins A, B, C, D
b. Vitamins A, D, E, K
c. Vitamins B, C, D, E
d. Vitamins B, D, E, K
Question29 What is the primary role of Vitamin D in the body?
Select one:
a. to carry oxygen in the blood to the cells
b. to help regulate calcium and bone metabolism
c. to help regulate the heart beat
d. to act as an antioxidant
Question30 Where is most Vitamin A stored in the body?
Select one:
a. liver
b. kidneys
c. heart
d. small intestine
Question31 Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin with exposure to UVB rays?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B-6
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Question32 Iron absorption is enhanced by the consumption of
Select one:
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a. eggs.
b. chicken.
c. peas.
d. oranges.
Question33 Why does an increase in energy expenditure require an increase in B complex vitamins?
Select one:
a. They provide minimal calories.
b. They are involved in carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism.
c. They have a high bioavailability.
d. They regulate calcium absorption.
Question34 What compound is necessary for the absorption of Vitamin B-12?
Select one:
a. intrinsic factor
b. insulin
c. Vitamin D
d. calcium

Question35 How does sodium maintain appropriate fluid balance in the body?
Select one:
a. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major positive ion in the extracellular fluid.
b. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major negative ion in the extracellular fluid.
c. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major positive ion in the intracellular fluid.
d. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major negative ion in the intracellular fluid.
Question36 Which mineral is important in regulating the human heartbeat?
Select one:
a. iron
b. potassium
c. sodium
d. zinc
Question37 Goiter is caused by a deficiency of
Select one:
a. fluoride.
b. iodine.
c. magnesium.
d. sodium.
Question38 While Jim was running a marathon he lost 2.5 pounds. How much fluid should Jim have consumed to prevent dehydration?
Select one:
a. 10-19 ounces
b. 20-39 ounces
c. 40-49 ounces
d. 50-60 ounces

Question39 Why does excessive intake of alcohol result in dehydration?
Select one:
a. Alcohol is high in calories.
b. Antidiuretic hormone is inhibited by alcohol.
c. Antidiuretic hormone is stimulated by alcohol.
d. There is a decrease in urinary output.
Question40 A decrease in urine output would likely be the result of a diet that is
Select one:
a. high in carbohydrates.
b. high in protein and sodium.
c. low in carbohydrates.
d. low in protein and sodium.
Question41 Which pituitary hormone signals the kidneys to conserve water by conserving sodium?
Select one:
a. aldosterone
b. antidiuretic hormone
c. glucagon
d. insulin
Question42 During which stage of the lifecycle can a prolonged deficiency in iron result in impaired cognitive development?
Select one:
a. early infancy
b. early adulthood
c. late adulthood
d. pregnancy
Question43 Which government program provides supplemental food vouchers specifically for low-income pregnant women and children?
Select one:
a. Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP)
b. Commodity Supplemental Food Program (CSFP)
c. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)
d. Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)

Question44 Which is a symptom of anorexia?
Select one:
a. shame or embarrassment
b. fluctuating weight of ±10 pounds
c. erosion of tooth enamel
d. rituals involving food and exercise
Question45 Which statement describes a consequence of anorexia?
Select one:
a. The white blood cell count increases, leading to a higher number of infections.
b. Body temperature is lowered, which results in decreased metabolism.
c. The body conserves energy to combat semi-starvation.
d. Heart rate increases to make up for other metabolic changes.
Question46 Which of these is an effective means to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses?
Select one:
a. Increase the use of antibiotics in animal feed.
b. Keep cold foods between 42-50 degrees F.
c. Keep hot foods between 90-100 degrees F.
d. Thaw foods in the refrigerator.
Question47 According to the Environmental Protection Agency, which of the following is a useful strategy for reducing the intake of pesticide residue from foods?
Select one:
a. Thoroughly scrub, rinse, and peel fruits and vegetables.
b. Limit the variety of foods eaten to avoid overexposure to chemicals.
c. Consume only larger, more mature fish and not smaller, younger ones.
d. Eat the outer leaves of compact leafy vegetables and discard the remainder.
Question48 It is unlawful to add any amount of a cancer-causing substance to food, according to the
Select one:
a. GRAS list.
b. USDA.
c. Delaney Clause.
d. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
Question49 Which of the following is an unintended effect of the use of pesticides in food production?
Select one:
a. decreased food production
b. shortened storage life of harvested crops
c. destruction of natural predators of plant eating insects
d. increased food costs
Question50 Which food should be consumed no more than once per week to limit the intake of mercury?
Select one:
a. pickled vegetables
b. shellfish
c. fried foods
d. swordfish
Question51 Which of these actions helps to decrease the risk of pesticide exposure?
Select one:
a. Remove skin from poultry and fish.
b. Store food at proper temperatures.
c. Use ground meat within 1 to 2 days after purchase.
d. Cook meats thoroughly.
Question52 Which of these pregnancy complications can be reduced by 50% if a woman is physically active during pregnancy?
Select one:
a. low birth weight baby
b. premature labor
c. gestational diabetes
d. cesarean section
Question53 The body’s need for iron increases during pregnancy because of the need to
Select one:
a. increase absorption of Vitamin C.
b. reduce nausea.
c. increase appetite.
d. synthesize additional hemoglobin.
Question54 It is recommended that a healthy woman of food should be consumed no more than once per week to limit the intake of mercury?
Select one:
a. up to 15
b. 16 to 25
c. 26 to 35
d. 36 to 45
Question55 After about six months, which mineral stores have been depleted in breast-fed babies?
Select one:
a. calcium
b. iron
c. magnesium
d. iodine
Question56 Why is it recommended that solids foods be introduced after six months of age?
Select one:
a. to prevent risk of choking
b. to decrease risk of food allergies
c. to meet increased caloric needs
d. to meet increased calcium needs
Question57 Which of the following can increase the risk of osteoporosis?
Select one:
a. higher lactase production
b. increased absorption of calcium
c. inadequate exposure to sunlight
d. increased vitamin D synthesis

Question58 What is one of the basic premises of the USDA/HHS Dietary Guidelines for Americans,2010?
Select one:
a. Most Americans can best meet their nutrient needs by taking supplements.
b. Adults should consume 8 to 10 glasses of water every day.
c. Nutrient needs should be met primarily through food consumption.
d. Weight loss is best achieved with a low-carbohydrate diet.
Question59 How does an active lifestyle help to slow some of the physiological changes that occur during aging?
Select one:
a. maintains muscle mass
b. decreases body water
c. decreases muscle elasticity
d. increases fat stores
Question60 Charlie is 75 years old and is complaining of problems with constipation. Which dietary recommendation may be appropriate to help Charlie establish more regular bowel habits?
Select one:
a. Decrease intake of sweets.
b. Increase intake of calcium-rich foods.
c. Increase intake of whole grains and water.
d. Decrease intake of fat.

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Question 32: Health Care

NUTRI 101 MIDTERM EXAM

1. Healthy People 2020 was designed to

Select one:
a. eliminate health disparities, improve access to health education and quality health care, and strengthen public health services.
b. disclose dietary practices that best support health.
c. prevent chronic disease.
d. eliminate dietary inadequacies and excesses, and to encourage healthful practices.

2. A ______ is generally a fake medicine used to disguise the treatments of participants in an experiment.

Select one:
a. placebo
b. control
c. case
d. Hypothesis

3. Which of the following are substances in plant foods that are not digested in the stomach or small intestine?

Select one:
a. Dextrose
b. Disaccharides
c. Dietary fiber
d. Simple sugars

4. A kilocalorie is a measure of

Select one:
a. heat energy.
b. fat in food.
c. nutrients in food.
d. sugar and fat in food.

5. According to MyPlate, consumption of foods from the Grains group should include

Select one:
a. an equal amount of whole grain and refined grain products.
b. at least half of the grain servings as whole grain cereals, breads, crackers, rice, or pasta every day.
c. only whole grain products.
d. a serving of grain products at each meal.

6. Which of the following is true about the way we should eat to achieve good nutritional status?

Select one:
a. Eat fruits and vegetables because we can get all the nutrients we need from these.
b. Do the best we can but take supplements to fill in the deficient areas.
c. Eat a wide variety of foods because no single natural food meets all human nutrient needs.
d. Eat only plant products because animal products are bad and generally filled with hormones for animal growth.

7. Compare the following menu to MyPlate and answer the subsequent questions.
Picture Using MyPlate’s Daily Food Plan for 2000 kilocalories as a reference, the Grains are

Select one:
a. adequate in number of servings but lacking fiber.
b. adequate in number of servings and fiber.
c. inadequate in number of servings.
d. inadequate in number of servings and fiber.

8. One cup of apple juice has 111 kilocalories and 1.4 mg of vitamin C. The same serving size of orange juice has 112 kilocalories and 124 mg of vitamin C. Which of the following is true regarding their nutrient density?

Select one:
a. Apple juice is more nutrient dense for vitamin C than orange juice.
b. To get adequate vitamin C while watching kilocalorie intake, it would be better to consume apple juice than orange juice.
c. Apple juice provides more vitamin C per kilocalorie than orange juice.
d. Orange juice is more nutrient dense for vitamin C than apple juice.

9. A compound that allows for communication between one cell and the next is a

Select one:
a. neurotransmitter.
b. neuron.
c. nephron.
d. Synapse.

10. ______ tissue is part of rigid body structures, such as bone and cartilage.

Select one:
a. Connective
b. Epithelial
c. Nervous
d. Muscle
11. A function of the large intestine is to absorb

Select one:
a. fats and proteins.
b. dietary fiber.
c. water and minerals.
d. proteins and carbohydrates.

12. Which of the following hormones corrects a hyperglycemic state?

Select one:
a. Insulin
b. Epinephrine
c. Cortisol
d. Glucagon

13. Of the following, which is a major source of sucrose?

Select one:
a. Alcohol
b. Fruits
c. Grains
d. Sugar cane

14. The most important long-term strategy for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is to

Select one:
a. lose body fat.
b. eat regular meals.
c. maintains a constant ratio of carbohydrate to protein to fat throughout the day.
d. avoid sugar.

15. “Hidden” fat includes

Select one:
a. butter.
b. fat in crackers and other grain products.
c. fat around the edges of meats.
d. mayonnaise in potato salad.

16. Sometimes phospholipids are used in commercial salad dressings to suspend vegetable oil in water. In this case, phospholipids are serving as _______________.

Select one:
a. fat replacers
b. emulsifiers
c. thickeners
d. homogenizers

17. All of the following describe the characteristics of fat cells except

Select one:
a. the number of fat cells decreases when fat is lost from the body.
b. the storage capacity for fat depends on both fat cell number and fat cell size.
c. the number increases when storage capacity has reached its limit.
d. the body’s ability to store fat is limitless.

18. The child with kwashiorkor has all the following conditions except

Select one:
a. moderate weight deficit.
b. some visible fat stores.
c. edema in the abdomen and legs.
d. a skin-and-bones appearance.

19. An illness that results from a malfunction of the red blood cell because of an incorrect structure in parts of the hemoglobin protein chain is called _______________.

Select one:
a. marasmus
b. kwashiorkor
c. sickle cell anemia
d. megaloblastic anemia

20. The basic building block of a protein is called a(n)

Select one:
a. fatty acid.
b. monosaccharide.
c. amino acid.
d. keto acid.

21. A _________________________ is usually more accurate at estimating the number of calories you burn during a workout than are calorie estimators on cardio machines.

Select one:
a. bathroom scale
b. body fat monitor
c. step monitor
d. heart rate monitor

22. Which of the following is true about basal metabolism?

Select one:
a. It represents about 30 percent of total energy expenditure.
b. It is energy expenditure to maintain heartbeat, respiration, other basic functions, and daily activities.
c. It represents about 60 percent to 75 percent of total calories used by a sedentary person during each day.
d. It includes the energy used to digest food.

23. The Physical Activity Guidelines recommend that adults should engage in the equivalent of 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity each week for substantial health benefits. Which of the following statements accurately describes the physical activity required to lose excess body weight and maintain weight loss?

Select one:
a. Weight loss and weight maintenance will likely require more than 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week.
b. Engaging in 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week is adequate for weight loss and weight maintenance for most adults.
c. During a weight-loss program, physical activity should be restricted to no more than 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week to prevent increases in appetite.
d. Moderate-intensity aerobic activities are not adequate for weight loss or weight maintenance; intense activity is necessary to boost basal metabolic rate.

24. Beta-carotene is a precursor to

Select one:
a. vitamin A.
b. vitamin E.
c. vitamin C.
d. vitamin D.

25. High doses of vitamin D may cause

Select one:
a. excessive acne.
b. calcium deposits in the kidneys and other organs.
c. limb paralysis.
d. a flaky skin rash.

26. Soybeans, egg yolks, meats, and lecithin are sources of ______.

Select one:
a. riboflavin
b. choline
c. chromium
d. iodide

27. A niacin deficiency causes the disease _______________.

Select one:
a. anemia
b. beriberi
c. cheilosis
d. Pellegra

28.Some niacin is formed in the body from

Select one:
a. phenylalanine.
b. tyrosine.
c. tryptophan.
d. lysine.

29. A pantothenic acid deficiency

Select one:
a. is very unlikely because of its widespread availability.
b. is very likely.
c. occurs commonly in children.
d. occurs commonly in the elderly.

30. Which of the following is an example of a vitamin that is more bioavailable in its synthetic form?

Select one:
a. folate
b. vitamin B-6
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin A

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