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Question 1: General

ORGANIZATIONAL THEORY GRAD LEVEL CASE STUDY

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Question 1: General Question.

BSC 2347 Module 04 Quiz / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 4 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College

Question 2: General Question.

BSC 2347 Module 11 Final Exam / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 11 Final Exam (Latest): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College (Already graded A)

Question 3: General Question

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

Question 4: General Question

South University NSG6430 Final Exam 2019/ South University NSG 6430 Final Exam 2019 (Already graded A)

Question 5: General Question

Define Ecological responsibility? It was a piece of Corporate social responsibility (CSR). Explain It has turned into an overall issue as associations are under expanding weight to act in socially mindful ways. Discuss its whole critical significance to California and its “clean” and “green” picture

Question 6: Mathematics

Keller MATH 533 Course Project Part C

Question 7: Mathematics

Techware Incorporated is considering the introduction of two new software products to the market. The company has four options regarding these two proposed products: introduce neither product, introduce product 1 only, introduce product 2 only, or introduce both products. Research and development costs for products 1 and 2 are $180,000 and $150,000, respectively. Note that the first option entails no costs because research and development efforts have not yet begun. The success of these software products depends on the trend of the national economy in the coming year and on the consumers’ reaction to these products. The company’s revenues earned by introducing product 1 only, product2 only, or both products in various states of the national economy are given in the file Final Exam Q4. The probabilities of observing a strong, fair, or weak trend in the national economy in the coming year are assessed to be 0.30, 0.50, and 0.20, respectively.

Create a payoff table that specifies Techware’s net revenue (in dollars) for each possible decision and each outcome with respect to the trend in the national economy.
Identify the strategy that maximize Techware’s expected net revenue from the given marketing opportunities.

Question 8: Mathematics

Determine the maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94 percent. Assume they have other debt payments totaling $381 per month and a combined annual income of $86,200. Monthly escrow payments for real estate taxes and homeowner’s insurance are estimated to be $113 (Assume a 36 percent maximum of annual income for total debt and escrow payments.)

The maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94% is $

Question 9: Mathematics

Math 302 Quiz 5 2019 (Already Graded A+)

Question 1 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher hypothesizes that the variation in the amount of money spent on business dinners is greater than the variation of the amount of money spent on lunches. The variance of nine business dinners was $6.12 and the variance of 12 business lunches was $0.87. What is the test value?

A.3.10

B.9.61

C.7.03

D.49.50

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pharmaceutical company is testing the effectiveness of a new drug for lowering cholesterol. As part of this trial, they wish to determine whether there is a difference between the effectiveness for women and for men. Assume α = 0.05. What is the test value?

Women Men

Sample size 50 80

Mean effect 7 6.95

Sample variance 3 4

A.t = 0.151

B.z = 0.455

C.t = 3.252

D.z = 0.081

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Members of the general adult population volunteer an average of 4.2 hours per week. A random sample of 20 female college students and 18 male college students produced the results given in the table below. At the .01 level of significance, is there sufficient evidence to conclude that a difference exists between the mean number of volunteer hours per week for male and female college students?

Females Males

Sample size 20 18

Sample mean 3.8 2.5

Sample variance 3.5 2.2

A.No, because the test value 2.38 is greater than the critical value

B.No, because the test value 2.38 does not exceed the critical value

C.No, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

D.Yes, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

Answer Key:

Part 2 of 8 – 4.0/ 5.0 Points

Question 4 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

In choosing the “best-fitting” line through a set of points in linear regression, we choose the one with the:

A.smallest number of outliers

B.smallest sum of squared residuals

C.largest number of points on the line

D.largest sum of squared residuals

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A single variable X can explain a large percentage of the variation in some other variable Y when the two variables are:

A.highly correlated

B.mutually exclusive

C.directly related

D.inversely related

Answer Key:

Question 6 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Outliers are observations that

A.render the study useless

B.lie outside the typical pattern of points

C.disrupt the entire linear trend

D.lie outside the sample

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Correlation is a summary measure that indicates:

A.the strength of the linear relationship between pairs of variables

B.the rate of change in Y for a one unit change in X

C.the magnitude of difference between two variables

D.a curved relationship among the variables

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points

If an estimated regression line has a Y-intercept of –7.5 and a slope of 2.5, then when X = 3, the actual value of Y is:

A.5

B.unknown

C.10

D.0

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 9 of 17 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A field researcher is gathering data on the trunk diameters of mature pine and spruce trees in a certain area. The following are the results of his random sampling. Can he conclude, at the 0.10 level of significance, that the average trunk diameter of a pine tree is greater than the average diameter of a spruce tree?

Pine trees Spruce trees

Sample size 30 35

Mean trunk diameter (cm) 45 39

Sample variance 120 140

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

Test value: 2.121 Round your answer to three decimal places.

What is the critical value?

Critical value: 1.311 Round your answer to three decimal places.

Answer Key:

Part 4 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 10 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The marketing manager of a large supermarket chain would like to determine the effect of shelf space (in feet) on the weekly sales of international food (in hundreds of dollars). A random sample of 12 equal –sized stores is selected, with the following results:

Store Shelf Space(X) Weekly Sales(Y)

1 10 2.0

2 10 2.6

3 10 1.8

4 15 2.3

5 15 2.8

6 15 3.0

7 20 2.7

8 20 3.1

9 20 3.2

10 25 3.0

11 25 3.3

12 25 3.5

Find the equation of the regression line for these data. What is the value of the standard error of the estimate? Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank. Do not use a dollar sign. For example, 0.345 would be a legitimate entry. 0.308

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A company has observed that there is a linear relationship between indirect labor expense (ILE) , in dollars, and direct labor hours (DLH). Data for direct labor hours and indirect labor expense for 18 months are given in the file ILE_and_DLH.xlsx

Treating ILE as the response variable, use regression to fit a straight line to all 18 data points.

Using your estimated regression output, predict the indirect labor expenses for a month in which the company has 31 direct labor hours.

Place your answer, rounded to 1 decimal place, in the blank. Do not use any stray punctuation marks or a dollar sign. For example, 458.9 would be a legitimate entry. 525.4

Answer Key:

Part 5 of 8 – 0.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 12 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Two teams of workers assemble automobile engines at a manufacturing plant in Michigan. A random sample of 145 assemblies from team 1 shows 15 unacceptable assemblies. A similar random sample of 125 assemblies from team 2 shows 8 unacceptable assemblies.

If you are interested in determining if there is sufficient evidence to conclude, at the 10% significance level, that the two teams differ with respect to their proportions of unacceptable assemblies, what is/are the critical value you would use to conduct such a test of hypothesis?

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. If there are two critical values, place only the positive value in the blank. For example, 2.34 would be a legitimate entry. 1.15

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Are America’s top chief executive officers (CEOs) really worth all that money? One way to answer this question is to look at the annual company percentage increase in revenue versus the CEO’s annual percentage salary increase in that same company. Suppose that a random sample of companies yielded the following data:

percent change for corporation 15 12 3 12 28 6 8 2

percent change for CEO 6 17 -4 12 32 -1 7 2

Do these data indicate that the population mean percentage increase in corporate revenue is greater than the population mean percentage increase in CEO salary? Use a 5% level of significance. What is the critical value that you would use to conduct this test of hypothesis? Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 2.345 would be a legitimate entry. 1.010

Answer Key:

Part 6 of 8 – 2.0/ 3.0 Points

Question 14 of 17 2.0/ 3.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Researchers conducted an experiment to measure the effect of a drug on improving the quality of sleep as determined by how many more minutes of REM sleep were measured for each participant. One group of participants were given the experimental drug; the other (control) group was given a placebo. Does the evidence indicate that the drug improved the amount of REM sleep at a 0.01 level of significance? Answer each of the following parts.

Experimental group Control group

sample size 35 50

mean sleep improvement 12.8 9.1

sample variance 56.3 61.2

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

Answer:

Round your answer to two decimal places.

What is the P-value for this hypothesis test?

Answer:

What is the conclusion of this hypothesis test? Choose one.

There is sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
There is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
There is sufficient evidence to show that the quality of sleep is different for the experimental drug than for the control drug.
There is not sufficient evidence to show that the control drug decreased the quality of sleep.

Answer:

Answer Key:

Feedback: This is a t-test of independent samples. Use the formula on page 480 to compute the t test value:

This is a right-tail test with test value t = 2.198423 and df = 34 (using the smaller sample size). The P-value is 0.0174 using TDIST(2.1983423,34,1) or the Critical Values workbook.

Because the P-value is greater than alpha (0.01), there is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.

Part 7 of 8 – 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 15 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

In conducting hypothesis testing for difference between two means when samples are dependent (paired samples), the variable under consideration is ; the sample mean difference between the pairs.

True

False

Answer Key:

Part 8 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 16 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

In a simple regression analysis, if the standard error of estimate sest = 15 and the number of observations n = 10, then the sum of the residuals squared must be 120.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

To help explain or predict the response variable in every regression study, we use one or more explanatory variables. These variables are also called predictor variables or independent variables.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 10: Mathematics

Part 1 of 6 – 5.0/ 5.0 Points

Question 1 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If 25 tickets are sold and 2 prizes are to be awarded, find the probability that one person will win both prizes if that person buys exactly 2 tickets.

A.1/600

B.1/2300

C.1/300

D.1/700

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = 0.25 and P(B) = 0.65, then P(A and B) is:

A.0.25

B.0.90

C.0.40

D.Cannot be determined from the information given

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If one tosses a coin enough times, the proportion of “heads” will approach 0.5. This is an example of:

A.the Law of Large Numbers

B.the Empirical Rule

C.the Central Limit Theorem

D.subjective probabilities

Answer Key:

Question 4 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A furniture manufacturer offers bookcases in 5 different sizes and 3 different colors. If every color is available in every size, then the total number of different bookcases is

A.5

B.8

C.15

D.30

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = P(A|B), then events A and B are said to be

mutually exclusive

complementary

independent

exhaustive

Answer Key:

Part 2 of 6 – 5.0/ 5.0 Points

Question 6 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A multiple choice quiz consists of 6 questions, each with 4 possible answers. If a student guesses at the answer to each question, then the mean number of correct answers is

A.6.00

B.1.50

C.4.00

D.10.00

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose that 50 identical batteries are being tested. After 8 hours of continuous use, assume that a given battery is still operating with a probability of 0.70 and has failed with a probability of 0.30.

What is the probability that fewer than 25 batteries will last at least 8 hours?

A.0.0009

B.0.9991

C.0.8967

D.0.0024

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

The following data were obtained from a survey of college students. The variable X represents the number of non-assigned books read during the past six months.

x 0 1 2 3 4 5

P (X=x) 0.20 0.25 0.20 0.15 0.10 0.10

Find P( X 3)

A.0.80

B.0.85

C.0.15

D.0.20

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A die is rolled 360 times. Find the standard deviation for the number of 3s that will be rolled.

A.60

B.50

C.7.1

D.5.9

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pet supplier has a stock of parakeets of which 10% are blue parakeets. A pet store orders 3 parakeets from this supplier. If the supplier selects the parakeets at random, what is the chance that the pet store gets exactly one blue parakeet?

A.0.081

B.0.243

C.0.027

D.0.003

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 6 – 2.0/ 4.0 Points

Question 11 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

In February 2002 the Argentine peso lost 70% of its value compared to the United States dollar. This devaluation drastically raised the price of imported products. According to a survey conducted by AC Nielsen in April 2002, 68% of the consumers in Argentina were buying fewer products than before the devaluation, 24% were buying the same number of products, and 8% were buying more products. Furthermore, in a trend toward purchasing less-expensive brands, 88% indicated that they had changed the brands they purchased. Suppose the following complete set of results were reported. Use the following data to answer this question.

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased Fewer Same More Total

Same 10 14 24 48

Changed 262 82 8 352

Total 272 96 32 400

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. .7443

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Find the mean of the following probability distribution.

X 1 2 3 4 5

P(X) 0.20 0.10 0.35 0.05 0.30

Round your answer to two decimal place as necessary. For example, 4.56 would be a legitimate entry.

Mean = 2.26

Answer Key:

Feedback: Mean = (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10) + (3)(0.35) + (4)(0.05) + (5)(0.30) = 3.15

Comment: This is a distribution, to find the mean, you find

E = sumx * P(x)

I have shared with you videos on how to do this in the examples in the discussion last week,

Question 13 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased Fewer Same More Total

Same 10 14 24 48

Changed 262 82 8 352

Total 272 96 32 400

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before and changed brands? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. 0.6550

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Ann is applying for a bank loan to open a pizza franchise. She must first complete a written application and then, if the written application is approved, be interviewed by bank officers. If an applicant’s written application is not approved the applicant is not granted an interview with the bank officers. Past records for this bank show that the probability of an applicant having his or her written application approved is 0.63. Records also indicate that the interviewing committee of bank officers approves 85% of the individuals they interview. Find the probability that Ann’s loan request is approved. Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.76 would be a legitimate entry. 0.54

Answer Key:

Part 4 of 6 – 4.0/ 4.0 Points

Question 15 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A restaurant menu has a price-fixed complete dinner that consists of an appetizer, entrée, beverage, and dessert. You have a choice of five appetizers, ten entrees, three beverages, and six desserts. How many possible complete dinners are possible? Place your answer, as a whole number—no decimal places—in the blank. For example 176 would be a legitimate entry 900

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

An ice cream vendor sells three flavors: chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla. Forty five percent of the sales are chocolate, while 30% are strawberry, with the rest vanilla flavored. Sales are by the cone or the cup. The percentages of cones sales for chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla, are 75%, 60%, and 40%, respectively. For a randomly selected sale, define the following events:

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

Find the probability that the ice cream was sold on a cone and was vanilla flavor.Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.34 would be a legitimate entry. 0.10

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Mothers Against Drunk Driving (MADD) is a very visible group whose main focus is to educate the public about the harm caused by drunk drivers. A study was recently done that emphasized the problem we all face with drinking and driving. Five hundred accidents that occurred on a Saturday night were analyzed. Two items noted were the number of vehicles involved and whether alcohol played a role in the accident. The numbers are shown below:

Number of Vehicles Involved

Did alcohol play a role? 1 2 3

Yes 60 110 30 200

No 40 215 45 300

100 325 75

Given alcohol was involved, what proportion of accidents involved a single vehicle?

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.23 is a legitimate entry. 0.30

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

Find the probability that the ice cream was strawberry flavor, given that it was sold in a cup. Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.3456 would be a legitimate entry. 0.3825

Answer Key:

Comment: You got the previous one

Part 5 of 6 – 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 19 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose A and B are mutually exclusive events where P(A) = 0.2 and P(B) = 0.5, then P(A or B) = 0.70.

True

False

Answer Key:

Part 6 of 6 – 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 20 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

True or False: The probability of a success must remain the same for each trial in a binomial experiment.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 11: Mathematics

Part 1 of 3 –

4.0/ 7.0 Points

Question 1 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The percent defective for parts produced by a manufacturing process is targeted at 4%. The process is monitored daily by taking samples of sizes n = 160 units. Suppose that today’s sample contains 14 defectives.

How many units would have to be sampled to be 95% confident that you can estimate the fraction of defective parts within 2% (using the information from today’s sample–that is using the result that )?

Question 2 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

A sample of 9 production managers with over 15 years of experience has an average salary of $71,000 and a sample standard deviation of $18,000.

Question 3 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

The personnel department of a large corporation wants to estimate the family dental expenses of its employees to determine the feasibility of providing a dental insurance plan. A random sample of 12 employees reveals the following family dental expenses (in dollars): 115, 370, 250, 593, 540, 225, 177, 425, 318, 182, 275, and 228.

Construct a 99% confidence interval estimate for the standard deviation of family dental expenses for all employees of this corporation.

Place your LOWER limit, in dollars rounded to 1 decimal place, in the first blank. Do not use a dollar sign, a comma, or any other stray mark. For example, 98.4 would be a legitimate entry. 175.5

Question 4 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 5 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 6 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 7 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Part 2 of 3 –

11.0/ 11.0 Points

Question 8 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A sample of 23 European countries found that the variance of life expectancy was 7.3 years. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the variance of life expectancy in Europe?

A.27.2 < < 118.3

B.5.6 < < 10.3

C.4.4 < < 14.6

D.28.9 < < 115.0

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

If you increase the confidence level, the confidence interval ____________.

A.stays the same

B.increases

C.decreases

D.may increase or decrease, depending on the sample data

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The average gas mileage of a certain model car is 26 miles per gallon. If the gas mileages are normally distributed with a standard deviation of 1.3, find the probability that a randomly selected car of this model has a gas mileage between 25.8 and 26.3 miles per gallon.

A.0.15

B.0.85

C.0.70

D.0.30

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher wishes to know, with 98% confidence, the percentage of women who wear shoes that are too small for their feet. A previous study conducted by the Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons found that 80% of women wear shoes that are too small for their feet. If the researcher wants her estimate to be within 3% of the true proportion, how large a sample is necessary?

A.966

B.683

C.183

D.484

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

From a sample of 500 items, 30 were found to be defective. The point estimate of the population proportion defective will be:

A..06

B.16.667

C.30

D.0.60

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The upper limit of the 90% confidence interval for the population proportion p, given that n = 100; and = 0.20 is

A.0.7342

B.0.5316

C.0.2658

D.0.4684

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A food snack manufacturer samples 15 bags of pretzels off the assembly line and weighed their contents. If the sample mean is 10.0 and the sample standard deviation is 0.15, find the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true mean.

A.(9.96, 10.04)

B.(9.68, 10.32)

C.(9.97, 10.80)

D.(9.92, 10.08)

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Compute where t₂₀ has a t-distribution with 20 degrees of freedom.

A.0.1767

B.0.8233

C.0.6466

D.0.5334

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

At a large department store, the average number of years of employment for a cashier is 5.7 with a standard deviation of 1.8 years. If the number of years of employment at this department store is normally distributed, what is the probability that a cashier selected at random has worked at the store for over 10 years?

A.0.4916

B.0.9916

C.0.0084

D.0.0054

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Which of the following will make a confidence interval narrower and more precise?

A.Smaller sample size and higher confidence level

B.Larger sample size and lower confidence level

C.Smaller sample size and lower confidence level

D.Larger sample size and higher confidence level

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A recent study of 750 Internet users in Europe found that 35% of Internet users were women. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true proportion of women in Europe who use the Internet?

A.0.321 < p < 0.379

B.0.316 < p < 0.384

C.0.309 < p < 0.391

D.0.305 < p < 0.395

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 3 –

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 19 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

As a general rule, the normal distribution is used to approximate the sampling distribution of the sample proportion, , only if the sample size n is greater than 30.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A 90% confidence interval estimate for a population mean is determined to be 72.8 to 79.6. If the confidence level is reduced to 80%, the confidence interval becomes narrower.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 12: Computer Science

Assignment 2: Forensic Lab Design
worth 100 points

Imagine the university that employs you as an information security professional has recently identified the need to design and build a digital forensic laboratory. You have been tasked with designing the lab for the organization.

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

Explicate the steps you would take to plan a budget for the lab, keeping in mind the general business objective to avoid unneeded costs.
Recommend the physical requirements and controls that you would consider implementing in order to keep the lab safe and secure.
Identify at least three (3) hardware and software tools that you would include in the design of the lab and explain your reasons behind your choices.
Identify the high-level criteria that would be considered when selecting the forensic workstations to be utilized.
Describe the mandatory policies, processes, and procedures you would implement in order to maintain the lab environment and preserve evidence.
Design a floor plan for the lab using a diagramming application such as Visio or Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Open Project Dia. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Describe the purpose and structure of a digital forensics lab.
Examine and explain the evidence life cycle.
Describe the constraints on digital forensic investigations.
Develop a computer forensics deployment plan that addresses and solves a proposed business problem.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in computer forensics.
Write clearly and concisely about computer forensics topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Question 13: Business

Assignment 1: PICOT Question and Justification

Question 14: Business

BUSI 681 BO1 LUO Quiz 8

Question 15: Business

BUSI201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019 BUSI 201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019

Question 16: Business

HESI EXIT RN EXAM V1-V7 2019

Question 17: Business

Advantages of DNA testing

1 paper of ideas

Question 18: Business

Research, Fact and Findings Documentation about private genetic testing

1 page

Question 19: Health Care

NURSING FN NURS 6640Nfinal exam for 6640 Final exam for 6640: Graded A

Question 20: Religious Studies

BIBL 105 Quiz 1 / BIBL105 Quiz 1 (3 Latest Versions) – Old Testament Survey -Liberty University (100% Correct, Already graded A)

Question 21: Mathematics

Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
Question 13 Process models are used to:
Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

Question 22: Business

Each individual student will be required to conduct two analyses of a business article, case study, or original business topic investigation and present the analysis, findings, and implications to the rest of the class. Critical analysis is required (do not simply summarize an article). Analysis should be summarized in a document. Analysis should be summarized in a 2-3 page single spaced document. The article/case can involve any topic of the student’s interest related to entrepreneurship broadly defined including new ventures, social entrepreneurship, angel investing, venture capital, corporate entrepreneurship, innovation, and others.

Question 23: General Question

NURS 6501 Week 8 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A )

Question 24: General Question

Liberty University : THEO 104 Study Guide Week 1-8 (New) Chapter 1-40.

Question 25: General Question

Liberty University CSTU 101 quiz 5/ CSTU 101 Quiz 5 (Latest): Liberty University (Already graded A)

Question 26: Business

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Zane, a 26-year-old male, came upon a car accident and immediately started to help the victims, who were pinned in their car. There was blood all over the scene and Zane acted without having any personal protective equipment. While helping the victims, he cut his arms in several places on the sharp metal and shards of glass. A few weeks later, he developed flu-like symptoms that persisted for several days. He went to his clinic and tested negative for influenza.

Because of his recent exposure, Zane’s doctor was suspicious of blood borne pathogens. Which of the following disorders are blood-borne diseases?

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Lab tests confirm the presence of HIV antibodies in Zane’s blood. Briefly describe why there are antibodies present.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Briefly define “autoimmunity” and “immunodeficiency” in your own words. Which of these conditions is Zane more likely to develop?

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

During the primary HIV infection, which of the following cells decreases in number?

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following statements is true?

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

HIV is a retrovirus. Briefly describe how a retrovirus is different from other viruses.

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Zane is worried about passing the virus to his friends and family. Which of the following bodily fluids can transmit HIV? (Select all that apply.)

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of acute HIV infection?

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The initial symptoms of HIV infection are followed by clinical latency. Which of the following statements is true?

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Zane is told that he may develop AIDS in his lifetime. Which signs and symptoms would indicate that he has AIDS?

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Justine, a 39-year-old female, has recently been diagnosed with lymphoma. She has a family history of several cancers, but not lymphoma. Her personal medical history includes mononucleosis, asthma, and two full-term pregnancies and vaginal births. Before her diagnosis, she had been feeling “generally sick” and felt several lumps on her neck and armpits. She had a fever that wouldn’t go away and had been waking up sweaty in the middle of the night. Microscopy showed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

Based on the information given, which of the type of lymphoma does Justine have?

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Reed Sternberg cells are derived from which type of normal cell?

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

Which of Justine’s symptoms signify the presence of lymphadenopathy?

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Aside from the symptoms noted in Justine’s case, list and briefly describe 3 other symptoms of lymphoma.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Lymphoma is definitively diagnosed by which of the following procedures?

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s treatment?

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s diagnosis?

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which part of Justine’s case study is considered a risk factor for her diagnosis?

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Chemotherapy is a very general term for using medications to treat cancers. Briefly describe how chemotherapy would help Justine.

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

How would a bone marrow transplant help treat Justine’s condition?

Question 27: General Question

NSG 6020 FINAL STUDY GUIDE (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

Question 28: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?

Question 29: Business

600 words/easy money! There are various federal and state employment and labor laws protecting both employees and employers. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) is the federal agency responsible for interpreting, investigating, and enforcing federal employment laws against workplace discrimination. In Week 2, you considered the legal components in a job description. In Week 4, you analyzed forms of discrimination when conducting a performance appraisal. For this discussion, you will look at protected classes identified by the EEOC. Protected classes are groups of people with common characteristics that are legally protected from employment discrimination.

Instruction

In your initial post, Describe three protected classes and the laws that exist to protect them. Explain how the EEOC investigates complaints of discrimination against a protected individual. Discuss how employers can prevent and respond to allegations of employment discrimination. Your initial post should be a minimum of 300 words and cite at least one scholarly source to support your response.

Question 30: Literary Studies

– Find 3 credible sources (.org, .edu, .gov or library sources) for your Final Research Essay if you haven’t already found them.

Annotated Bibliography Journal

Underneath each MLA Citation of your source include a paragraph (5-8 sentences) that explain:

What the source is about

What the author of the source gives information about or states about your text

How the information in the source relates to the literature you are examining

How or where in your essay do you plan to use this source and/or with which criticism does this source pertain to and how?

WILL PROVIDED BOOK ACCESS ONCE ASSIGNED

Case Study–Chapter 8—Century Medical-Page 336

Each question must be broken down in the following way:

Problem: (You can be brief in this summation on the overall problem)

Causes of the Problem: (Show critical thinking in your assessment)

Alternative Solutions: (Demonstrate your critical thinking with different ideas to resolve the issue while incorporating good organizational practices)

Best Alternative: (This will be your primary recommendation/solution that you believe is best)

Implementation Steps: (Detail how your recommendations might be utilized to solve the matter)

If you were Nolan, how would you approach the project at work now?

The new boss had little appreciation for all types of information. Use textbook terms to describe the type of information he embraced, and the type he rejected. How might this be

explained? How might this be changed?

In the work world, is it ever best to move on to a different way when your boss totally rejects what you believe strongly is the best approach? If, in this case, Nolan does not continue to challenge the ideas of his new boss, what would you predict will happen?

This is your CEO speaking, the above questions are just a guide, thoroughly analyze this case in terms of what you have learned in the first eight chapters of the text. What this means is you will need to look at all the aspects of each chapter we have covered and see if anything is applicable here, if so, how, this needs to be in your written paper. After your analysis, make a one paragraph recommendation (this is in addition to your analysis which needs to be on paper) to me of what you think the next steps should be for my company. No, you don’t just turn in a one paragraph paper, use the steps below to thoroughly analyze the case then give me the recommendations. Again this is just a guide, be thorough.

You need to use APA guidelines meaning you do need to cite or give me references and you will need a cover sheet, and again I want to hear what is in your head, heart and mind.

Question 2: Healthcare

Write a 300 word discussion post about current news that (a) condenses and thematically organizes the key issues from the news that pertain to environmental public health; and (b) make at least one connection to the issues or themed covered in the course readings and discussions. Pose 2 questions to launch class discussion. You will only have to create the media post one time during the semester; you will always have to complete the discussion replies. A posting schedule will be created by random selection of student names.

Question 1: General Question

Question 1 (500 points)

You are currently working for a company called Pierogi’s and More. This company specializes in
authentic ethnic European style foods. Product offering includes Blintzes, Golabki, Kaputsa, and
Kielbasa, but the main item in the product line is the traditional Pierogi. A pierogi is best
described as a piece of pastry or dough that is stuffed with various ingredients. Going back to the
tradition of the product, the original pierogis were normally stuffed with mashed potatoes,
spinach, sauerkraut and/or variety of cheeses. The pierogi was the ‘worker’ or ‘laborers’ meal, so
consequently did not include meats as they were not affordable but when available, some meats
would be an ingredient in the pierogi. These meat-based pierogis were considered a delicacy and
used mainly for special occasions.
The pricing strategy has been quality/value-priced based. The company has been trying to
develop a reputation and perspective of a high quality item. The standard price for one dozen
pierogis has been $5.99 per dozen. This price is a little higher than the prices of the main
competitors. Depending upon the ingredients, the competitors’ prices range from $2.79 to $5.39
per dozen in most grocery stores. Based on the current production costs and overheads, there is
some room to manipulate price, but there is a desire to make sure that the pricing strategy
reflects the quality of the product. While the company has completed no in-depth research or
analysis, management believes they offer the highest quality pierogi on the market and believes
their price should reflect as much. A breakdown of the cost structure revealed total variable
costs of $1.87/dozen and total fixed costs of $0.20/dozen.
Pierogi’s and More is starting to enter a new phase of distribution. To this point, sales were
through the current company store front or direct sales to a few local markets. The company is
now branching into specialty or higher end grocery retail. This change will require the inclusion
of a wholesaler into the marketing channel. Studies have shown that most grocery wholesalers
maintain a 30 percent mark-up while the retailer maintains a 25 percent mark-up. Pierogi’s and
More desires to maintain their current price point at the retail level when they enter this new
distribution channel. The company would also like to maintain a 45 percent mark-up.
Based upon the above information, please respond to the following:
a: Using the target price of $5.99, determine the price point the company should use for the
wholesaler. Does this price point allow the company to maintain its desired 45 percent mark-
up? If you know that the consumer price elasticity for this product group is 0.80, what would be
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your concerns when establishing the price?
b: Do you believe the company should continue to use a value-based pricing mechanism? Why or
why not? If you know the customer group has a high level of price sensitivity, what is your
concern with this pricing scenario?
c: In addition to the pricing decisions, Pierogi’s and More does not have a promotional campaign
designed for this new marketing channel. Prepare an appropriate marketing campaign to enter
the new market. Be specific in your response. Does brand play a role in this process?
d: Pierogi’s and more has the opportunity to distribute the product through the specialty store in
both a frozen offering and a fresh offering in the deli/meat counter. Should their pricing
structure be the same or different for the two products? How would this impact other aspects of
the promotional mix? Does brand play any roll in this process?
e: Create a slogan for the business, less than 20 words, which captures the essence of the brand.
Explain your rationale for the slogan. Then show how it should be incorporated within the brand
image and integrated marketing communication plan.

Question 2: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 3: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Review WEEK 2 Latest Version Walden University

Question 4: Biology

NURS 6512 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 5: Biology

NURSE 6531 Final Exam Adv. Practice Care of Adults Latest Version Walden University

Question 6: Business

Wk 4 – Advisory Memo

As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?

Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 7: Business

Wk 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70. The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers. Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 8: Business

6 page paper (use template)

Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).

Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.

Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

Question 9: Business

The Woolong Company produces high-end vacuum cleaners and has hired you to oversee the development and release of their latest product. A preliminary project initiation meeting will result in the identification of the project sponsor, selection of a project manager, and creation of the project charter. A manager in the production department who knows you are taking a college project management course asks you to prepare a report to help them prepare for the meeting by answering the following questions:
Who are the project stakeholders? How will they be involved in the project?
Whom should the project sponsor be? Why?
What skills and experience are likely needed by the project manager for each phase in the project life cycle, and how do these skills and experiences differ between the various phases?
What kind of roles and responsibilities should the key stakeholders have? Discuss at least 4–5 different kinds of stakeholders.
How should they communicate to different stakeholders during the project?
What information should be shared with the project stakeholders?
What is the mechanism that could be used for each type of information?
What is the frequency with which information should be shared?
What should be done if project communications are not proving to be effective?
What technology could be used for project communications?
At what point could communication about the project become an ethical or legal issue?
What are the best ways to manage project risks as well as opportunities during project execution?
How do they update and analyze old risks as well as new risks while undertaking the project?
What business opportunity might project completion create?
What is the potential financial impact of the project?
What are the expected results of the project?
What value will the project add?
What is the potential impact to the company if the project is not finished well?
Present your findings as a Word document of 4–5 pages (not including title and reference pages) formatted in APA style, using the attached template. Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
Title page: Remember the running head. The title should be in all capitals.
Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA-level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 2–3 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
Reference page: References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lowercase usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.

Question 10: Business

1)      Describe the changing demographic patterns of the aging population. How do these patterns vary by age, gender, race, and ethnicity? How will the demographic changes in the population in the next decade influence the type and delivery of community resources available to older adults?
2)      Major historical events can shape the way a cohort behaves throughout their lives. As an example individuals who grew-up during the depression are often frugal with spending even in old age. What was the major historical event of your life course? How did this affect your life and do you think it will continue to impact you as you age?
3)      From the point of view of older adults, what might be the advantages and disadvantages of living in a state with a large older population? From the point of view of younger generations? Explain, using references from this week’s resources to support your response.
4)      What is ageism (as it applies to the aging population)? Name three examples of ageism that you’ve personally witnessed, experienced, or perhaps even committed yourself. How are these instances damaging to the aging population?

Question 11: Business

HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies

Question 12: Business

Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

Requirements to Prove Under the Law
Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 13: Health Care

Nursing Therapy Quiz

STUDY GUIDE

This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:

Topics
·         The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice
·         Confidentiality Limits in Psychotherapy: Ethics Checklists for Mental Health Professionals
·         Assessment and Diagnosis
·         The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame
·         Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
·         Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
·         Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation
·         Motivational Interviewing
·         Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders

Wheeler, K. (Eds.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.
·         Chapter 1, “The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice”
·         Chapter 3, “Assessment and Diagnosis”
·         Chapter 4, “The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame”
·        Chapter 5, “Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy”
·        Chapter 7, “Motivational Interviewing” (pp.299-312)
·        Chapter 8, “Cognitive Behavioral Therapy”
·        Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation”
·        Chapter 16, “Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders”

Fisher, M. A. (2016). Introduction. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 3–12). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-001

Fisher, M. A. (2016). The ethical ABCs of conditional confidentiality. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 13–25). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-002

Question 1
After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:

A.
Disclose all patient information as requested

B.
Refuse to disclose any confidential information

C.
Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible

D.
Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
1 points
Question 2
The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?

A.
Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient

B.
Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient

C.
Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 3
One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?

A.
“Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”

B.
“Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”

C.
“Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”

D.
“Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”
1 points
Question 4
The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?

A.
Assessing safety

B.
Applying therapeutic communication

C.
Using empathy

D.
Maintaining the frame

32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
1 points
Question 5
True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.
True
False
1 points
Question 6
The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:

A.
Allow the patient time to process before speaking.

B.
Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.

C.
Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”

D.
Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.”

1 points
Question 7
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?

A.
Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious

B.
Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem

C.
Focusing the exploration on here and now

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 8
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:

A.
Developing increased boundaries

B.
Decreasing supportive psychotherapy

C.
Scaling back contact with the patient

D.
Increasing the number of sessions per week
1 points
Question 9
An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment.
True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:

A.
“I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”

B.
“I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”

C.
“I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”

D.
“I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.”

1 points
Question 11
The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?

A.
Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings

B.
Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator

C.
Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down

D.
Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
1 points
Question 12
A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.

A.
adaptive regression in the service of the ego

B.
regulation and control of affects and impulses

C.
defensive and interpersonal functioning

D.
sense of reality of the world and of the self
1 points
1 points
Question 18
During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?

A.
Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories

B.
Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly

C.
Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears

D.
Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
1 points
Question 20
During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?

A.
Narcissistic personality disorder

B.
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

C.
Borderline personality disorder

D.
Paranoid personality disorder
1 points
Question 21
A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?

A.
Share a personal story about her home situation and family members

B.
Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining

C.
Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 22
A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.
True
False
1 points
Question 23
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?

A.
Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated

B.
Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort

C.
Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 25
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?

A.
“Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”

B.
“When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and how does it feel to you?”

C.
“What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”

D.
“So you blow up when you become frustrated?”
1 points
Question 26
The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?

A.
Countertransference

B.
Therapeutic communication

C.
Empathy

D.
Boundaries
1 points
Question 27
A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?

A.
“How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”

B.
“How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”

C.
“How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 28
A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?

A.
Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions

B.
Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws

C.
Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 29
A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?

A.
Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety

B.
Giving the patient basic stress management activities

C.
Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 30
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?

A.
Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization

B.
Help the patient process painful memories

C.
Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth

D.
Assist the patient in planning for the future
1 points
Question 31
The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:

A.
employ cognitive behavioral therapy

B.
use empathy

C.
utilize intersubjectivity

D.
none of the above
1 points
Question 32
The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?

A.
Therapeutic communication

B.
Maintaining the frame

C.
Working with resistance

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 33
During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with:

A.
“Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”

B.
“No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”

C.
“Sort of like a fish out of water?”

D.
“When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?”

1 points
Question 34
The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?

A.
“If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”

B.
“Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”

C.
”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”

D.
“Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”
1 points
Question 35
At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report.
True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.
True
False
1 points
Question 37
The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?

A.
Autognosis

B.
Complementary identification

C.
Concordant identification

D.
Self-disclosure
1 points
Question 38
The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:

A.
Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient

B.
Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization

C.
Reducing the patient’s anxiety

D.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses
1 points
Question 39
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?

A.
Emphasize the past

B.
Focus on expressions of emotion

C.
Identify patterns in relationships

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 40
A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.
True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.
True
False
1 points
Question 41
A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.

A.
may lack ability to see independent motivations

B.
has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others

C.
has an intrusive interpersonal relationship

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 42
The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?

A.
“I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”

B.
“I prefer doing everything on my own.”

C.
“It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”

D.
“I can’t seem to do anything on my own.”

1 points
Question 43
A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you
do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?

A.
“It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”

B.
“I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”

C.
“You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”

D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 44
True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.
True
False
1 points
Question 45
A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?

A.
Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust

B.
Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself

C.
Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 46
The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?

A.
Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event

B.
Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is

C.
Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 47
The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:

A.
“I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”

B.
“I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”

C.
“I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”

D.
“I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.”

1 points
Question 48
A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:

A.
“Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”

B.
“Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”

C.
“Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”

D.
“Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”
1 points
Question 49
When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history.
True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”
True
False
1 points
Question 50
A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?

A.
Revise intake forms to align with state laws

B.
Review confidentiality revisions with patients

C.
Have patients give informed consent again

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 51
A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.

A.
mindfulness techniques

B.
deep breathing exercises

C.
self-regulation strategies

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 52
A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.

A.
overly nurturing

B.
nonassertive

C.
exploitable

D.
vindictive
1 points
Question 53
The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:

A.
Observes and points out the behavior

B.
Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak

C.
Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk

D.
None of the above
1 point
Question 54
The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?

A.
Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled

B.
Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs

C.
Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks

D.
Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)
1 points
Question 55
In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?

A.
Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness

B.
Maintain a warm bedroom temperature

C.
Avoid watching television or reading in bed

D.
Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
1 points
Question 57
The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?

A.
Provide safety through case management strategies

B.
Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions

C.
Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences

D.
Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma
1 points
Question 58
Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.

A.
assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning

B.
explore the interpersonal styles of each family member

C.
provide background information for the patient’s family structure

D.
measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity
1 points
Question 59
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:

A.
“Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”

B.
“Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”

C.
“You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”

D.
“What has your wife done to make you believe this?”

1 points
Question 60
The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?

A.
Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep

B.
Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake

C.
Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime

D.
Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep
1 points
Question 61
The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?

A.
Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension

B.
Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up

C.
Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 62
The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?

A.
Progressive muscle relaxation exercises

B.
Paradoxical interventions

C.
Biofeedback

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 63
A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?

A.
“What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”

B.
“To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”

C.
“What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 64
An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?

A.
“Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”

B.
“Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”

C.
“Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”

D.
“How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
1 points
Question 65
The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion?

A.
“I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”

B.
“I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”

C.
“I like to listen to the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”

D.
“I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.”

1 points
Question 66
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?

A.
Group therapy

B.
Controlled confrontation

C.
A safe-place exercise

D.
Body and energy work
1 points
Question 67
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?

A.
Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states

B.
Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer

C.
Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings

D.
Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states
1 points

Question 14: Health Care

Once you have submitted your second submission to the grade book dropbox, it will be considered final and subject for grading.
Purpose
The purpose of this assignment is to provide the student an opportunity to explore the role of the advanced practice nurse (APN) and develop an APN professional development plan.
Course Outcomes
Through this assignment, the student will demonstrate the ability to:
CO1: Analyze the historic development of advanced practice roles including the impact of advanced practice nursing on healthcare delivery from the perspective of selected current reports (i.e., LACE, IOM, etc.) (PO 3)
CO3: Explore how leadership styles influence healthcare delivery and organizations. (PO 4)
CO5: Reflect on personal and professional growth toward achieving competence as a family nurse practitioner. (PO 3)
Due Date: Sunday 11:59 p.m. MST at the end of Week 6
Total Points Possible: 225
Requirements:
1.    To complete this application, you will need to access to the following databases: CINAHL, MEDLINE, Cochrane Library, and the Joanna Briggs Institute. You may access these databases through the Chamberlain College of Nursing Online Library.
2.    The APN Professional Development Plan paper is worth 225 points and will be graded on quality of information, use of citations, use of Standard English grammar, sentence structure, and overall organization based on the required components as summarized in the directions and grading criteria/rubric.
3.    Create your manuscript using Microsoft Word, which is the required format for all Chamberlain College of Nursing documents.
4.    Follow the directions and grading criteria closely. Any questions about this paper may be posted under the Q & A Forum or emailed to your faculty.
5.    The length of the paper is to be no less than 6 and no greater than 8 pages excluding title page and reference pages. In some cases, students may need to exceed this page number.
6.    APA (2010) format is required with both a title page and reference page. Use the required components of the review as Level 1 headers (upper and lower case, centered):
1.    Introduction to the APN professional development plan- Discuss the goals and purpose of an APN professional development plan
2.    APN Scope of Practice – This pertains to NP practice in your state.
3.    Personal Assessment using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool
4.    Networking and Marketing Strategies
5.    Conclusion
6.    CV / resume
7.    References
Preparing the paper
The following are best practices for preparing this paper:
1.    Review Chapter 30- Role Transition: Strategies for Success in the Marketplace in DeNisco and Barker (2015).
2.    Nurse practitioners need to take into account the state rules and regulations that guide advanced practice. Research and review the Nurse Practice Act and APN scope of practice guidelines in your particular state. Identify information regarding educational requirements, licensure and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Review information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority (This is similar to what you created in your week 1 Kaltura presentation). .
3.    Review Guidelines for APN Role Transition Using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool (Links to an external site.). Identify and discuss your position on Benner’s Novice to Expert ladder. Prior to engaging in pursuit for employment, APNs should complete a comprehensive, honest, personal assessment to identify their strengths and weaknesses as well as their goals and objectives. Research assessment tools, conduct a personal assessment and reflect upon your strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
4.    To complete the transition from students to expert nurse practitioners working in the healthcare field, graduating APN students will need to secure their first position. Research local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identify networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for your selections. Be specific.
5.    Write your Curriculum Vitae (CV) or current resume. Refer to the template on pages 772-773 in DeNisco and Barker (2015). Your CV / resume should not exceed 2 pages in length but will, vary for each student. If you have not done some of the components of the CV/resume, i.e. research, publications, presentations, then do not include them.
6.    When concluding the paper, summarize important aspects of the APN professional development plan.
This assignment will follow the late assignment policy specified in the course syllabus.
Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeIntroduction to the APN professional development plan
20.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is well presented and purpose fully developed.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Good introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is presented and purpose provided.
16.0 pts
Meets- Basic information and/or limited elements addressed regarding APN professional development plan and/or inappropriate emphasis on an area.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or very general introduction of APN professional development plan. Little to no original explanation; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No introduction of APN professional development plan provided.
20.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPN Scope of Practice
35.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
31.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
28.0 pts
Meets- Provided non-state specific information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
13.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Lacking detailed information regarding education, licensure, regulatory requirements, or practice environment. Missing information regarding practice limitations and/or prescriptive authority.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Not provide information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
35.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePersonal Assessment
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon some of the strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment. Missed providing reflection upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information following a personal assessment, but did not reflect upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide a personal assessment and did not reflect upon personal strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeNetworking and Marketing Strategies
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided information but lacked specific details regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information regarding professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities, but missed providing information regarding networking and marketing strategies and/or a rationale for their selections.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Did not identify networking and marketing strategies or provide a rationale.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeCurriculum Vitae
40.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information which included demographics, education, professional employment, licensure and certification, professional honors, research, scholarship, and service. Free from typographical errors.
35.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided detailed information. Missing 1-2 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
32.0 pts
Meets- Provided moderately detailed information. Missing 3 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
15.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided minimal detail. Missing 4 or more key elements. Contains 1-2 typographical errors.
0.0 pts
Developing- Information provided was inaccurate and vague. Contains 3 or more typographical errors. Did not provide curriculum vitae.
40.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeConclusion
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are well evidenced and fully developed.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are supported by evidence and developed.
20.0 pts
Meets- Basic and/or limited summary regarding APN professional development plan.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or no summary of APN professional development plan; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No summary of APN professional development plan and/or conclusions were provided.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeClarity of Writing
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent use of standard English showing original thought. No spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good use of standard English showing original thought. No more than two spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
20.0 pts
Meets- Some evidence of own expression and competent use of language. No more than three spelling or grammar errors. Well organized thoughts and concepts.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Language needs development. Four or more spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
0.0 pts
Developing- More than six spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPA Format
20.0 pts
Exceptional- APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation are accurate, or with zero to one errors.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Two to four errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
16.0 pts
Meets- Five to seven errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Eight to nine errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
0.0 pts
Developing- Post contains greater than ten errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation or repeatedly makes the same errors after faculty feedback.
20.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0
Question 15: Health Care

Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 6th Edition

Chapter 01: Evidence-Based Assessment

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

2. A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

3. The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
A)
data base.
B)
admitting data.
C)
financial statement.
D)
discharge summary.

4. When listening to a patient’s breath sounds, the nurse is unsure about a sound that is heard. The nurse’s next action should be to:
A)
notify the patient’s physician immediately.
B)
document the sound exactly as it was heard.
C)
validate the data by asking a coworker to listen to the breath sounds.
D)
assess again in 20 minutes to note whether the sound is still present.

5. The nurse is conducting a class for new graduate nurses. During the teaching session, the nurse should keep in mind that novice nurses, without a background of skills and experience to draw from, are more likely to make their decisions using:
A)
intuition.
B)
a set of rules.
C)
articles in journals.
D)
advice from supervisors.

6. Expert nurses learn to attend to a pattern of assessment data and to act without consciously labeling it. This is referred to as:
A)
intuition.
B)
the nursing process.
C)
clinical knowledge.
D)
diagnostic reasoning.

7. The nurse is reviewing information about evidence-based practice (EBP). Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?
A)
EBP relies on tradition for support of best practices.
B)
EBP is simply the use of best practice techniques for treatment of patients.
C)
EBP emphasizes the use of best evidence with the clinician’s experience.
D)
The patient’s own preferences are not important with EBP.

8. The nurse is conducting a class on priority setting for a group of new graduate nurses. Which is an example of a first-level priority problem?
A)
A patient with postoperative pain
B)
A newly diagnosed diabetic who needs diabetic teaching
C)
An individual with a small laceration on the sole of the foot
D)
An individual with shortness of breath and respiratory distress

9. When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
A)
Low self-esteem
B)
Lack of knowledge
C)
Abnormal laboratory values
D)
Severely abnormal vital signs

10. Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?
A)
Validation
B)
Clustering related cues
C)
Identifying gaps in data
D)
Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant

11.
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the _____ diagnosis.
A)
nursing
B)
medical
C)
admission
D)
collaborative

12. The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use, and includes which steps?
A)
Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, follow-up
B)
Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, discharge planning
C)
Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, discharge planning
D)
Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation,
evaluation

13. A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
A)
Breathing, pain, sleep
B)
Breathing, sleep, pain
C)
Sleep, breathing, pain
D)
Sleep, pain, breathing

14. Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
A)
Nursing diagnosis
B)
Medical diagnosis
C)
Diagnostic hypothesis
D)
Diagnostic assessment

15. Barriers to incorporating evidence-based practice (EBP) include:
A)
nurses’ lack of research skills in evaluating quality of research studies.
B)
lack of significant research studies.
C)
insufficient clinical skills of nurses.
D)
inadequate physical assessment skills.

16. What is the step of the nursing process that includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
A)
Planning
B)
Diagnosis
C)
Evaluation
D)
Assessment

17. During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies in order to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help this problem?
A)
Form a committee to conduct research studies.
B)
Post published research studies on the unit’s bulletin boards.
C)
Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies.
D)
Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies.

18. When reviewing concepts of health, the nurse recalls that components of holistic health include which of these?
A)
Disease originates from the external environment.
B)
The individual human is a closed system.
C)
Nurses are responsible for a patient’s health state.
D)
Holistic health views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent.

19. The nurse recognizes that the concept of prevention in describing health is essential because:
A)
disease can be prevented by treating the external environment.
B)
the majority of deaths among Americans under age 65 years are not preventable.
C)
prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior.
D)
the means to prevention is through treatment provided by primary health care practitioners.

20. The nurse is reviewing the components of the nursing process. Which statement about nursing diagnoses is true?
A)
They evaluate the etiology of disease.
B)
They are a process based on the medical diagnosis.
C)
They are clinical judgments about a person’s response to an actual or potential health state.
D)
They focus on the function and malfunction of a specific organ system in response to disease.

21. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a newly admitted patient. An example of objective information obtained during the physical assessment includes the:
A)
patient’s history of allergies.
B)
patient’s use of medications at home.
C)
last menstrual period 1 month ago.
D)
2 ´ 5 cm scar present on the right lower forearm.

22. A visiting nurse is making an initial home visit for a patient who has many chronic medical problems. Which type of data base is most appropriate to collect in this setting?
A)
A follow-up data base to evaluate changes at appropriate intervals
B)
An episodic data base because of the continuing, complex medical problems of this patient
C)
A complete health data base because of the nurse’s primary responsibility for monitoring the patient’s health
D)
An emergency data base because of the need to rapidly collect information and make accurate diagnoses

23. Which situation is most appropriate for the nurse to perform a focused or problem-centered history?
A)
A patient’s admission to a long-term care facility
B)
A patient has sudden, severe shortness of breath
C)
A patient’s admission to the hospital for surgery the following day
D)
A patient in an outpatient clinic has cold and flu-like symptoms

24. A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checked. She has been coming to the clinic weekly since she changed medications 2 months ago. The nurse should:
A)
collect a follow-up data base and then check her blood pressure.
B)
ask her to read her health record and indicate any changes since her last visit.
C)
check only her blood pressure because her complete health history was documented 2 months ago.
D)
obtain a complete health history before checking her blood pressure because much of her history information may have changed.

25. A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple traumas received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How would the nurse proceed with the data collection?
A)
Collect history information first, then perform the physical examination and institute life-saving measures.
B)
Simultaneously ask history questions while performing the examination and initiating life-saving measures.
C)
Collect all information on the history form, including social support patterns, strengths, and coping patterns.
D)
Perform life-saving measures and not ask any history questions until he is transferred to the intensive care unit.

26. A 42-year-old Asian patient is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse knows that it is important to include cultural information in his health assessment to:
A)
identify the cause of his illness.
B)
make accurate disease diagnoses.
C)
provide cultural health rights for the individual.
D)
provide culturally sensitive and appropriate care.

27. In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional includes:
A)
changing the patient’s perceptions of disease.
B)
identifying biomedical model interventions.
C)
identifying negative health acts of the consumer.
D)
helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle.

28. The nurse is classifying nursing diagnoses. Which of these would be considered a risk diagnosis?
A)
Identifying existing levels of wellness
B)
Evaluating previous problems and goals
C)
Identifying potential problems the individual may develop
D)
Focusing on strengths and reflecting an individual’s transition to higher levels of wellness

29. The nurse has implemented several planned interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of acute pain. Which would be the next appropriate action?
A)
Establish priorities.
B)
Identify expected outcomes.
C)
Evaluate the individual’s condition and compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes.
D)
Interpret data and then identify clusters of cues and make inferences.

30. Which statement best describes a proficient nurse? A proficient nurse is one who:
A)
has little experience with a specified population and uses rules to guide performance.
B)
has an intuitive grasp of a clinical situation and quickly identifies the accurate solution.
C)
sees actions in the context of daily plans for patients.
D)
understands a patient situation as a whole rather than a list of tasks and sees long-term goals for the patient.

MATCHING

Put the following patient situations in order according to level of priority.
A)
A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus does not know how to check his own blood glucose levels with a glucometer.
B)
A teenager who was stung by a bee during a soccer match is having trouble breathing.
C)
An older adult with a urinary tract infection is also showing signs of confusion and agitation.

1. A = first-level priority problem

2. B = second-level priority problem

3. C = third-level priority problem

MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. The nurse is reviewing data collected after an assessment. Of the data listed below, which would be considered related cues that would be clustered together during data analysis? Select all that apply.
A)
Inspiratory wheezes noted in left lower lobes
B)
Hypoactive bowel sounds
C)
Non productive cough
D)
Edema, +2, noted on left hand
E)
Patient reports dyspnea upon exertion
F)
Rate of respirations 16 breaths per minute

Question 16: Health Care

Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test

Question 17: Health Care

NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 18: Health Care

NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 19: Mathematics

six times a certain number plus the number is equal to 56

Question 20: Other

Use scholarly sources you need and refer to specific information from those sources. To demonstrate your use of these works, please cite them. Quotes should be used very sparingly. The answers should be paraphrased and should demonstrate your understanding of the material and concepts.
Each answer needs to be 300 words
What is the threat of transnational gangs to local communities? How should immigration laws be changed to be able to appropriately deal with members of transnational gangs once they are identified?
What relationship do you see between social, political, and economic conditions of an ethnic group to the success or decline of a gang from that ethnic group?
How do the responses of correctional staff to the gangs contrast or compare to those of law enforcement? Provide at least two resources supporting your answer.
Compare and contrast gangs from two ethnic groups in terms of membership, criminal activity, violence, and relationship to their own community.
Consider the trend of more females becoming involved in gang activity. How does this trend change the way law enforcement devises programs to suppress, intervene, and combat gangs?

Question 21: Business

For your research paper, be sure to include:
1.     Title page (not included in the 5-page limit)
2.     Introduction: a brief overview of topic selected, including why this topic is of importance to organizations (you may reuse the rationale in paper M3A1), but you need to edit the language to fit the introduction of your essay. Include a thesis statement/purpose for the paper.
3.     Body of research paper: Develop the outline that you designed in M5A1. Make sure to use in-text citations in APA style.
4.     Conclusion: Write a brief summary of your findings and a call to action. A call to action for at least one action or step you want the President to take after reading your research paper (you may use the items identify in the application for professional practice).
5.     References: Insert a page with the references used for your paper, in APA style.

Motivating Employees

Name of student:

Student ID:

Introduction
For an organization, it is very important to make sure that the employees are motivated. This helps the organizations in many ways that lead to increase in their productivity and performance in the market. However, motivating employees is not an easy task. There are many challenges that the managers face due to the individual nature of each of the employees. In the present day business context, managers have to identify the individual factors that motivate each of the employees and use that knowledge for helping them increase their productivity in the company (Manzoor, 2012).
Thesis Statement
The paper aims to define the major factors that contribute to employee motivation and how can employee motivation be promoted in an organization along with its major benefits.
Issues addressed in the Paper
The paper aims to understand the area of employee motivation to understand its contribution for the company. In order to understand that, the following areas will be addressed in the paper:
What is the effect of employee motivation on the organization: For an organization, it is important to make sure that their employees are motivated. It is because when employees are motivated, it is possible for them to improve their performance at work (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
What are the advantages of employee motivation for the organization: There are a number of other advantages of motivating the employees. Besides improving their individual performance, when employees are motivated properly, they engage better with their peers, making way for mutual dependence and healthy competition. This helps in the improvement of the organizational culture and ultimately contributes to improving the productivity of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
What are the factors that contribute to employee motivation: The biggest challenge for the employers is to understand the factors that motivate their employees. While some employees are motivated in a positive manner through appreciation and reward, some need to be motivated through negative factors like the fear of punishment and elimination (Tohidi, 2011).
What are the benefits of having motivated employees for the organization: Understanding the various factors that can motivate the employees can help employers in making sure that the goals of the organization are achieved while also promoting personal and professional growth of the employees (Manzoor, 2012).
Application to Professional Practice
The area of employee motivation is as challenging as it is important for an organization. When the employees in a company are motivated, this is beneficial for the entire organization. This is the reason why the research in employee motivation holds so much importance for an organization. It has been observed over time that as the needs of an organization change, the employees are likely to feel less motivated with time, this shows that the motivation is not only a mental boost for the employees but the ways in which employees are motivated also helps them to understand the needs of the organization that they are working for. It allows them to develop startegic methods that can help them in improving their performance in the organization (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
Due to its many benefits, employee motivation is as essential for the company and the president as it is for the employees. For a president, it is easier to explain the needs of the organizations to motivated employees. Besides, they can also expect their employees to contribute positively to the purpose of the organization if they are motivated. Without motivation, the employee will not be able to take up his part of the job in the company in a proper manner. The result of this is that it will affect the performance of the company along with the results that they expect. This will increase the problems of the president in the direction of achieving the goals of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
The president of a company can uses the information from the paper to motivate employees in three ways:
By rewarding them for their good performance with bonus or increments.
By encouraging them in case of poor performance.
By promoting them for good performance in the long run by giving incentives and other benefits.
For presidents, motivating the employees has three major benefits:
It improves the performance of the employee.
It helps in reducing employee turnover.
It helps in boosting the performance of the company.
References
Ali, R., & Ahmed, M. S. (2009). The impact of reward and recognition programs on employee’s motivation and satisfaction: an empirical study. International review of business research papers, 5(4), 270-279.
Dar, A. T., Bashir, M., Ghazanfar, F., & Abrar, M. (2014). Mediating role of employee motivation in relationship to post-selection HRM practices and organizational performance. International Review of Management and Marketing, 4(3), 224-238.
Manzoor, Q. A. (2012). Impact of employees motivation on organizational effectiveness. Business management and strategy, 3(1), 1-12.
Tohidi, H. (2011). Teamwork productivity & effectiveness in an organization base on rewards, leadership, training, goals, wage, size, motivation, measurement and information technology. Procedia Computer Science, 3, 1137-1146.

Question 22: Engineering

An inverter is connected to the utility network by a transformer. The connection
transformer can be modelled by a per-phase series inductance of 0.8 mH and
resistance of 0.4 Ω.
i. Derive the control transfer function for the d and q axis loops, showing your
fully working.
ii. If a q-loop control with gains of 𝑘𝑘𝑝𝑝 = 14 and 𝑘𝑘𝑖𝑖 = 900 are used. What is the
control loop bandwidth and damping for this loop?

Question 23: Engineering

What are the types of soil dams?

Question 24: Computer Science

Instruction
I’m looking for someone to help me write 25 to 30 pages for my thesis in computer science I uploaded a Doc with the sections that you have to write about it so you have clue about how I want my thesis will be

Assessing the Security Health of Public WiFi Environments Using Mobile Devices
I. Abstract
IV. Contents
V. List of Figures
VI. List of Tables 1. Introduction
1.1 Overview
1.2 Introduction 1.3 Mobile Threats
1.3.1 Classification of mobile threat
1.3.2 Most Targeted Mobile Platform in 2014 1.4 Honeypot Approach
1.4.1 Advantages & Benefits of Honeypot
1.4.2 Honeypot types based on interaction levels 1.4.3 Honeypot classifications
1.4.4 Honeypot requirements
1.5 Problem statement
1.6 Research Challenges
1.7 Objectives and desirable outcomes 1.8 Project Outline
2. Literature Review
2.1 Introduction
2.2 New Types of Honeypots
2.3 Honeypot Data Consumption 2.4 Configurations of Honeypots 2.5 Smartphone Honeypots
3. Design and Implementation
3.1 Introduction (Linux-based application ” HosTaGe”) 3.2 Implementation (HosTaGe Honeypot works)
3.2.1 Implementation Steps
3.2.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack (RPC)
3.2.1.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack Result 3.2.1.2 Scanning Attack using nmap
3.2.1.2.1 Scanning Attack Result 3.2.1.3 Metasploit Attack
3.2.1.3.1 Metasploit Attack Result 3.2.1.4 Nessuss Attack
3.2.1.4.1 Nessus Attack Result 3.3 Performing Attacks in Khalifa campus wireless
4. Data Collection
4.1 Introduction
4.2 Transferring Data from HosTaGe Database 5. Analysis
5.1 Introduction
5.2 Data Analytic and Intelligence
5.2.1 Add Data to Splunk 5.2.2 Search in Splunk
6. Conclusion
6.1 Summary
6.2 Future work 7. References
5.2.2.1 Summarized Analysis

Question 25: Business

Instruction
Write out the question prior to answering it Answer in your own words – As a rule of thumb, no more than 10% of your response to review questions should be quoted. Have at least one intext citation per question, such as [Moseley, 47], unless it is entirely an opinion question Use quotes if you copy three or more words and include an intext citation Use a minimum of three resources – the textbook, one item from “lecture” – the videos I provide each module, and one outside source that you have researched Provide a Works Cited or Reference Section in MLA Style at the end of the paper. Watch the following YouTube Videos. Information from at least one of these sources must be referenced in answering your Review Questions. Please be sure to use intext citations and reference them. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TVBPhCJh-dw https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2rnYxbIcf44

1.Why do people form organizations and why is management needed? 2.Identify the five functions every manager must perform and briefly explain each. 3.What are the three levels of management found in large organizations? Describe each, giving its responsibilities. 4.How are most supervisory positions filled? Explain why this is so. 5.Identify each of the trends challenging today’s supervisors and explain how each impacts supervisors. 6.What are the three basic steps in planning? Why do supervisors tend to slight the planning function? 7.How does planning differ among top, intermediate, and supervisory management levels? 8.What are some guidelines for setting performance objectives? 9.What is the difference between a policy, a rule, and a procedure? 10.Distinguish between objectives and strategies.

Question 26: Health Care

Instruction
Adopting a personal code of conduct can guide leaders and managers to make and prioritize decisions. You have been selected to serve in a critical leadership position in your organization. In 2-4 pages not including title page and reference page, write a personal code of conduct (sometimes called a personal code of ethics) that you would pass along to your staff. Explain how you would communicate your personal code of conduct across the organization. Note: Use APA style to cite at least 2 scholarly sources from the last 5 years.

Question 27: Physics

Clearly show me your system sketch and related energy flows for all problems.

1.[5/100 pts] In a particular application the heating load is 1750 kW, the cooling load is 1500 kw and the power load is 2500 kW. The installed capacity of the power generation, Winstalled, is 2700 kW. Calculate the HLRP, CHR and % air flow for this case.

2.[5/100 pts] The Energy Utilization Factor, EUF, for a tri-generation system is 0.98. Calculated the required fuel input when the thermal load is 100 kW and the power load is 1000 kW. The high heat value is 55.4 MJ/Kg.

3.[5/100] The HLRP, %Air Flow and CHR values for a given application are 1.0, 100% and 1.0. Determine the Energy Utilization factor and the rate of carbon dioxide production per total energy load for this condition.

4.1 [10/100 pts] Determine the electrical energy supplied to a tank heater when the temperature of the water is heated from 20 C to 89 C. The pressured tank holds 1500 Kg of liquid water at a constant pressure of 3 bars and the specific heat is c = 4,370 J/(Kg K). There is no heat loss from the tank.

4.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the entropy production in Problem 4.1.

4.3[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction (J) in Problem 4.1. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar.

4.4 [10/100] Calculate the mass of fuel (natural gas) required to heat the water mass to the conditions of problem 4.1. The high heating value (HHV) of the fuel is 50.02 MJ/kg and the efficiency of the burner unit can be taken as 100%.

4.5[10/100] Calculate the exergy destroyed in the process described by problem 4.4. The exergy of the fuel entering this process is 51.82 MJ/Kg. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar. The products of combustion leave this process at the dead state.

4.6[15/100] The utility providing the electricity to the heater in problem 4.1 uses the same fuel as that used in problem 4.4 and has an efficiency of 0.35. The cost of the water tank is the same in each process, but the cost of the electric heater is $3000 and has a lifetime of 15 years. The cost of the fuel based heating system is $5000 and has a lifetime of 20 years. The fuel cost is $0.10/kg and the cost of electricity is $0.20/kWh. Which process would you recommend in terms of fuel consumption, exergy production and cost? Note the total amount of fuel consumed is directly related to the carbon dioxide emission from each process. This is not a thermoeconomic problem.

5.1[10/100 pts] Water flows at a mass rate of 1.0 Kg/s from an elevation of 250 m through a water turbine. The turbine exit is located at zero m, elevation. The water enters the pipe at temperature 293 K a velocity of 0.1 m/s and a pressure of 1 bar. It leaves the turbine’s exit at a temperature, velocity and pressure of 293.2 K, 0.05 m/s 1 bar. The process is adiabatic. Determine the power output at steady state conditions from this turbine. The specific heat of water is 4,180 J/(Kg K) and its density is 1000 Kg/m3.

5.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction for water turbine. (Hint: include all exergy property terms into and out of the system). The dead state is T0 = 293 K and P0 = 1.0 bar.

Question 28: Other

Instruction
A minimum of 25 page business plan, suggested 15-20 slide powerpoint/prezi and 1-2 page reflection paper that refers to the project. The business plan is outlined with what areas or questions need to be answered. The project must be plagiarism free and done at a quality that I would receive an A.

BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
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Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:

(1) A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
(2) A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
(3) A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
(4) A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
(5) A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
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studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:
All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
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descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
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get as much out of your time in my class as possible.
Citations and References
You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
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the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
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assignments will be run through TURNITIN.
If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
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for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
i) Title Page:
Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
Team Members
Originality Statement
ii) Summary:
The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
Purpose:
The Business Opportunity
The Product
Main Findings:
The Market Strategy
The Management Team
Profit and Cash Projections
Investment Needs
Returns to Investors
Conclusions and Recommendations
iii) Table of Contents
iv) Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
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your situation as possible.
What products and services do we deliver?
Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
Which customer groups are our primary groups?
Where are our primary customers
What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
What is our competitive advantage?
What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.

In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
Goal One
Goal Two
Goal Three
Goal Four
Goal Five
Goal Six
Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
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Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
A brief history of the business
Corporate and business cultures
Nature of the business and it main activities
Location
Current stage in its life cycle
Past performance and key achievements
Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
Relationships with key stakeholders
Competitive strengths and weaknesses
3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
Industry
Markets, Customers and Suppliers
Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
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What are their decision criteria?
Where are the products bought?
How are the products bought?
When are the products bought?
Why are the products bought?
How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
What are you going to do about their responses?
What are the major barriers to market entry?
What are the critical success factors for each market?
What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?
Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?

What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Describe your current and near-future products?
What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
Research completed
Prototype completed
In-house testing
Customer testing
Market ready
First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
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Current Situation
Key Product and Market Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
Product benefits highly valued by the customer
Product promotion
Customer communication, interaction and feedback
Product support for the life of the product
Customer service
Product pricing and purchasing
Product presentation and packaging
Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
Sources of R&D
Current and planned
Strategic alliances for R&D
Intellectual Property Protection
Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
Shared intellectual property and its protection
Intellectual property being used, but not owned
Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments

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Current and planned R&D activities
Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
Plant design, location, size and site requirements
Access to key manufacturing technologies
Production capacity and capability requirements
Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
Equipment needs
Inventory management
Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
Product and production costings
Purchasing systems
Quality control systems
Manufacturing resources planning
Material requirements planning
Warehousing
Scheduling and dispatch
Material supplies and inventory
Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
Risk management
Key staffing and skills requirements
Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
Work systems and teams for staff
Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
Benchmarking and best-practice
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8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Supply Chain Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
Financial management
Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
Employee performance and morale
Stakeholder relationships
Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
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suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
Are they regularly consulted?
Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?
11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
Encouraging innovation across the company
Providing leadership and building morale
Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
Occupational health and safety
Industrial relations
Wages and on-costs
Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Environmental and Social Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
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13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
Corporate governance
Taxation
Superannuation
Employing staff
Health and safety
Trade Practices
Intellectual Property Rights
Environmental Issues
The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
Corporate Structures
Company Constitution
Board of Directors – Size and Composition
Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
Board Performance
Advisors to the Board
Shareholder Agreements
Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
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This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
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Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
Key Strategic Goal
Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
Strategies to achieve each objective
Task Plans to achieve each strategy
Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
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key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
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Question 29: Law

Only do this assessment if you failed or have a deferral for the SECOND coursework (Client Advice)

Assessment Details

Assessment Length: 2000 (Two Thousand) Words

Note: The assessment length does not include footnotes, bibliography or tables of cases and statutes.

It is compulsory to use footnotes, a bibliography and tables of cases and statutes.

Question

Imran was the owner of a freehold property known as Soar Farm, title to which was unregistered when he purchased it in 1988. The purchase did not trigger first registration at the Land Registry as the area that Soar Farm was located in did not become a compulsory registration area until December 1990.

In 2015, Imran granted his son, Saleem, an option to purchase Ratae Cottage. Although the cottage was part of Soar Farm, it was set against the far boundary away from the main entrance and consequently shared the driveway to the main house on the farm.

The option was for a period of ten years from 2015. The option agreement was in writing and signed by both parties. The document provided that the option could be exercised by the service of a notice by Saleem to Imran at any time.

Almost immediately after the option was given, Imran and Saleem quarrelled and, without Saleem’s knowledge, in early 2016, Imran sold Ratae Cottage to his brother, Khalid. The purchase price Khalid paid for Ratae Cottage was about half its market value. Khalid was fully aware of the option granted in favour of Saleem. In late 2016, Khalid transferred Ratae Cottage back to Imran.

In 2017, Imran’s farming business got into difficulties and his other brother, Malik (who was working in Dubai), agreed to lend him a sum of money to help him out. He lent him the money on condition that he could have a share of the farm if it was sold. Malik also said that he was considering whether to move back to the United Kingdom. Pending that decision, he wanted to send his son, Rastam, to school in the United Kingdom and asked Imran if he could house Rastam. Imran agreed to let him occupy Ratae Cottage while he went to the nearby academy.

In late 2018, despite the funds from Malik’s loan, Imran’s business continued to struggle. Malik agreed to advance him more money as a loan, provided he agreed that, when Malik and his family eventually returned from Dubai, they could occupy Ratae Cottage. Malik has instructed his solicitor to draft the documents for a sale to take place. Documents have now been produced and are being discussed by Imran and Malik’s respective solicitors.

As Imran is still having financial difficulties, he has now decided to sell the farm to a neighbouring farmer, Rashid. He explains to Rashid all that has happened in relation to the land.

Rashid now seeks your advice as to whether he will be bound by any right or interest Saleem or Malik may have and, if he is, if there is any way he could avoid these.

Advise Rashid.

Further Considerations

You may wish to consider some of the following issues in your discussion of this scenario:

Initial Registration
The possible creation of easements
The creation or otherwise of equitable interests
The different treatment of equitable interests in registered and unregistered land
Effectiveness/validity of land transfer

Question 30: Philosophy

Instruction
: Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

Create a simple genogram for your own family, tracing your roots back three generations. Include this genogram in an essay between 300-600 words that addresses the following. Note: (I am a Black Female, with 5 siblings and I am the middle child and grew up in the mid-west (Iowa no substance abuse, but, both parents did drink occasionally loving family.). Any questions or concerns please advise.

Question 31: Religious Studies

Instruction

APA Style 5 pages 5 references/sources

Islam in USA. History of Islam. Numbers of muslims and mosques. percentage of Sunni, Sofi, Shia, and Ahmadiyya. when did Islam arrived and how did it arrived (by who). Muslim characters in USA, famous mosques, the statues of muslims in the region, any news or events happened in the last month (related to Islam), etc..

Question 32: Business

Instruction
Marketing Management Majors: Develop a business plan for a start-up company that provides some type of marketing product or service (e.g., advertising campaigns, sales, online promotions). Select the type of products or services that the company will offer. The products can be real or potential. A. Write an executive summary (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Identify the company’s name and location. 2. Describe the mission of the company. 3. Discuss two business goals in support of the company’s mission. 4. Discuss three keys to success for the company. B. Write a company summary (suggested length of 4–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the history of the industry in which the company will operate. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Identify the legal form that the company will take. 3. Describe the location and type of facilities needed for the company. 4. Describe the management structure, including key positions and specific responsibilities. 5. Describe the products and services offered by the company. C. Develop a market analysis (suggested length of 3–5 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the target market for the company’s products and services, including the specific location, demographics, etc. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Complete an industry analysis for the company, including current trends and statistics. 3. Complete a four-square SWOT analysis for the company in which you do the following: a. Identify three strengths, three weaknesses, three opportunities, and three threats. b. Explain each of the identified strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. D. Develop a market strategy (suggested length of 3–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Discuss each of the four Ps of marketing as they relate to the company’s products and services. 2. Develop a price list for the company’s products and services. 3. Develop a promotional strategy including
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specific tasks, target dates, and responsible parties. 4. Develop a monthly sales forecast for the first year of operations, including a discussion of expected market conditions. Note: The sales forecast will be used as the basis for your revenue in your financial statements. E. Develop an implementation strategy in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the overall strategy that will be utilized to launch your business, including target dates and goals for implementation. 2. Develop a post-launch monitoring plan (e.g., financial impact, quality control, customer satisfaction, monitoring schedule) to evaluate the success of the company in meeting milestones. F. Calculate and develop the financial statements and projections for the first year of business by doing the following: 1. Develop a month-by-month forecasted profit and loss statement using an estimate of revenues and operating costs based on the sales forecast. 2. Develop a forecasted balance sheet for the end of year one. G. Write a financial report (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the financial projections and the assumptions used in estimating the financial statements. 2. Describe the company’s financial position at the end of the first year. 3. Describe the company’s initial and future estimated capital/investment needs. H. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.

Question 3: Psychology

1) Explain at least three lines of compelling evidence that indicate that sustained stress among humans and other mammals causes physical damage (and can cause premature death). Think telomeres, hippocampus, arteriosclerosis, etc. 2) How might maternal stress during pregnancy be linked to mental illness in offspring? 3) Explain the interactions between the nervous system, the immune system, and behavior, and describe psychoneuroimmunology’s relationship to all three. 4) Take the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (the pdf is attached. You don’t need to report your total score but describe your current status in light of the general guidelines provided on the last page of the pdf. Include reasons you feel your score may over or under predict your perceived emotional stress level (review material from Chapter 5 regarding key characteristics of potential stressors).

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Question 4: Other

Proposal for Term Project

Format: Outline 1-2 pages maximum (not including cover page)

In outline format, make sure to clearly explain your chosen research topic and your rationale for how it relates to course themes.

Students are encouraged to email their instructor in advance for support or guidance on their topics.

Annotated Bibliography

Format: APA annotated bibliography format 5-7 pages (not including cover sheet)

Noting your topic in 2-3 sentences at the top of the first page, you will then present annotations for 5 scholarly/credible sources (e.g. not social media, magazines or books made for popular audiences, etc.) related to your chosen topic. Make sure to adequately yet briefly summarize the source, and assess its credibility/application to your topic.

Final Research Paper

Format: Essay, 8-10 pages (not including cover or reference sheet), APA format

Building on the research from your annotated bibliography, and any research you have done since those submission, prepare in essay format an 8-10 page paper that provides the rationale for the topic chosen and its significance in terms of diversity/equity/resilience and practice, key findings from your research, and a conclusion that summarizes what you learned and its significance for your future community mental health practice.

Presentation/discussion of Research Paper

Students will prepare a 5-10 minute presentation of the key findings of their major research paper. This is a formal presentation, however presentation slides are optional. Students should be prepared to take questions or engage in class discussion for the last few minutes of their presentation. A hard copy of presentation notes or slides is to be submitted to the instructor at the beginning of the presentation. Presentations will be on the final class of the semester; no alternate date will be available unless the student wishes to present earlier than the scheduled date.

Praxis Assignment: Day of Social Justice/AOP

Praxis & Reflective Paper (3-4 pages)

(This assignment has been adapted from Langhout et al.’s (2013) “The Praxis Assignment: Experiential Learning in a Large Social-Community Psychology Class”, Journal of Prevention and Intervention in the Community, 41, 61-67.

Anti-oppression practice is just that—practice—not just theory. As outlined in this course, AOP is embodied at three levels: personal, relational, and on the collective level. For this assignment you will attempt to live one day embodying AOP

Part One:

For this assignment, your challenge is to live each minute of a 24-hour period embodying AOP.

not to use unearned privilege
not to participate in oppression
to enact egalitarian power structures.

When participating in this day, examine all your behavior—from what you wear, what you say, what you eat, how you interact with others, every thought, action, or word spoken.

As you do this, think carefully about each and every thing you do and ask yourself the following questions:
“What are the AOP implications of what I am doing?”
“Is there another way I should be doing or saying this that would lead to a more transformative way of being in the world?”
Do not limit yourself to the “easy” things like being nice, or giving money to a cause in front of the grocery store.

Part Two:

Write a 3-4 page reflective analysis of what the day was like for you. Address the following questions but not in Q&A form – this should read like a reflective essay:

Briefly summarize your day: How did you choose to behaviorally operationalize AOP? How does what you did relate to the concept or definition of AOP?
How did others respond to your efforts at enacting AOP?
What was the day like for you?
Why is every day not like this for you?
How does this exercise relate to your own accountability, privilege, or oppression?

This submission should reflect course themes but does not require direct integration of course theory unless you choose to integrate some to benefit your analysis.

Question 5: Other

700- to 1,050-word paper that examines the effect of legal, safety, and regulatory requirements on the human resources process. Your paper should focus on employee-related regulations established by the United States, such as the Department of Labor, the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, and the Department of Homeland Security. Include your thoughts on the following statement: “Common sense and compassion in the workplace have been replaced by litigation.” Include at least 3 references.

Question 12: Economics

Production function that uses one variable function

Question 13: Other

Need help with an assignment must be 1500 words with 3 scholoaryly sources within the last 5 years. Must include in text citation the questions are listed below

In a narrative format, discuss the following: Were the characteristics described in this unit consistent or inconsistent with your experience/perception of African American culture? Where do a majority of your perceptions about African Americans come from? What information are you still missing to make a more complete picture?
Research reveals that young, unemployed African American and Hispanic males pay a higher punishment penalty than other types of offenders. What accounts for this?
What are some individual and organizational recommendations to improve the experiences, employment, and status of African-Americans in organizations?

Reply to jenn 100 words

During the Civil Rights era, when Blacks were protesting in certain states such as Alabama, which ended up in Washington, D.C., Law Enforcement Officers was used as a tool for segregationists governors and other leaders to interrupt protests with violent practices towards Blacks, including Whites, who protested for Civil Rights (Hohle, 2019). The role in relation to Law Enforcement Officers, for example, The leaders, such as some of the leaders of Birmingham, Alabama, had ordered the Law Enforcement Officers in Alabama, through the use of dogs, as well as the use of fire hoses, including other methods of violence, which even resulted in some deaths, attacked Civil Rights protestors that was only demonstrating for the cause of justice, along with equal treatment for all. This violent treatment has extended through the harassment of Blacks through the Jim Crow System, which was very popular, especially in places of business (Hailey, 2000). The Justice System through the courts posed a dual role, which started out as a greater problem and became a greater solution, during the Civil Rights Movement. The Court System, for example, the duel role that it demonstrated was the evolving from the backing of the Jim Crow System, to the integration of public schools through our Supreme Court, not to mention, the admission of our first Black Supreme Court Justice, Honorable Thurgood Marshall in the year of 1961, which shows a breakthrough of progress in an imperfect Court System (History, 2009). There are many imperfections in our court systems, which needs work, but because of brave groups of people that are willing to stand up in the face of injustice, which began with brave Americans as a whole, equality is slowly evolving (Graber, n.d.) Our Law Enforcement System, regardless of some flaws, has favorable points, because, most of our Law Enforcement Officers are dedicated people who are trying to keep our streets safe from criminals. Regardless of the many problems that are existent, even in both our Court Systems, along with Law Enforcement issues, we have still come along way, and still have a long way to go as long as diversity exists (McNamara, & Burns, 2009).

Reply to Jon 100 words listed below

The Civil Rights Movement has been an ongoing process throughout the United States. “The Civil Rights Movement is an umbrella term for the many varieties of activism that sought to secure full political, social, and economic rights for African Americans in the period from 1946 to 1968 (Khan, 2019).” For years African Americans were treated as being inferior to Caucasians. During these times African Americans were not allowed to eat, sleep, drink, or go to school in the same places that white people did. African Americans were rejected by the public as well as local law enforcement. On several occasions Blacks were beaten and had dogs and fire hoses turned on them by the very people who took an oath to protect.

Law enforcement during the civil rights movement was used as a scare tactic. During protests they stood with batons, weapons draw, and/or dogs waiting to unleash terror on African Americans who were peacefully protesting. During the Birmingham Campaign in May of 1963, “Police dogs, held by officers, jump at a man with torn trousers during a non-violent demonstration (Bond-Nelms, C., 2018).” Even though slavery was over the hatred still lingered on. Even after the Supreme Court stepped in, Whites still did not want to conform to the fact that blacks were no longer considered slaves.

The landmark case during the civil rights movement was Brown v. Board of Education. Once schools were desegregated whites still did not want to go to school with blacks and blacks were kept out of these schools. In this case “the Court reasoned that the segregation of public education based on race instilled a sense of inferiority that had a hugely detrimental effect on the education and personal growth of African American children (Brown, 2019).” The Court stepped up to the place and put an end to segregation which would allow blacks to receive the same education as their white counterparts.

Reference

Question 14: Business

This is geared towards a teams in my class.

Team Leadership Development Plan Part B: Post-Course Assessment

Articulate 3 development goals and propose a plan for meeting those goals in the future

Question 15: Mathematics

1.
Use properties of exponents to rewrite each of the following complex numbers in a simpler form.
where e = euler’s number and i the sqrt(-1)

e^(ix) *e(iy)
e^(ix)^n
(e^(ix))/(e^(iy))

This is for precalculus with BYU.

I believe the problem wants me to convert the complex numbers into polar form but I have no idea. I could really use a full explanation.

Question 16: Engineering

Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below

Cost Analysis and Bidding- Graduate Students Assignment 3 Q1: If 1,490 compacted cubic yards of in-place soil is required for a project, how many loads of import will be required? The import material has a swell of 14 percent and shrinkage of 95 percent. The trucks can haul 12 loose cubic yards. Q2: Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below. A two-foot working distance is required and the excavation will be sloped 1:1.75 (1.75 vertical feet for every horizontal foot). Also, determine the amount of backfill needed for the continuous footing and foundation in compacted cubic yards. Q3: An asphalt paving crew is used to pave a 500-foot by 300-foot parking lot. The parking lot will be paved in 12-foot-wide strips running the long (500-foot) direction. The machine paves 11 lineal feet of 12-foot-wide parking lot per minute. A single lift of asphalt will be used on the parking lot. After completing a pass, it takes the crew 10 minutes to turn the paving machine around and get ready for the next pass. The crew consists of a foreperson, six operators, and a laborer. Using a system efficiency of 50 minutes per hour, determine the number of labor hours required to place 1 lineal foot of parking lot 12 feet wide.

Question 17: Finance

As a pratical matter, East Coast Yachts is unlikely to be willing to raise external equity captital, in part because the owners don’t want to dilute their existing ownership and control positions. However, East Coast Yachts is planning for a growth rate of 20 percent next year. What are your conclusions and recommendations about the feasibility of East Coast’s expansion plans?

Sales

Cost of goods sold

Other expenses

Depreciation

Earnings before interest and taxes

Interest

Taxable income

Taxes (40%)

Net income

Dividends $4,759,301

Addition to retained earnings $11,103,499

$210,900,000

148,600,000

25,192,400

6,879,000

$30,229,800

3,791,000

$26,483,000

10,575,200

$15,862,800

Asset		Liabilities

Current Asset		Current liabilities
Cash	3,285,600	Account payable	$ 6,977,700
Account receivable Inventory	5,910,800 6,627,300	Note payable Total	14,342,600 21,320,300
Total Fixed Assets	$15,823,700	Long-term debt Owner’s equity	36,400,000
Net plant and equipment	$101,481,200	Common stock and paid- in surplus	5,580,000
		Retained earnings	54,004,600
Total asset	117,304,900	Total Total liabilities and equity	59,584,600 117,304,900

Question 18: Other

Need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholarly sources must include in text citation.. Question is listed below.

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

Question 19: Mathematics

An insurance company sells automobile liability and collision insurance. Let X denote the percentage of liability policies that

Question 20: Other

need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholoary sources must have in text citation as well the question is listed below

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

Question 21: Finance

Q (5 pts) A bank purchased $ 250 mln cap of 6% at a premium of 0.50% of face value. A $ 250 mln floor of 3% is also available at 0.40% of face value.
If interest rates rise to 7% what is the amount received by the bank? What is the net saving after deduction of the premium?
If the bank purchased also the floor what are the net savings if interest rates rise to 9%?
What are the net savings if interest rates fall to 3%?

Show calculations

Question 22: Business

300-500 words (Tesla)

Be specific with concrete examples. Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

Give examples of how Tesla addresses:

Corporate Social Responsibility (2 examples required)
Environmental Sustainability (2 examples required)

If they are not involved In any activities, suggest what they might best become involved in. Be specific with concrete examples. Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

Question 23: History

Why was the Civil War fought? Was it unavoidable or could you propose a solution that would have spared bloodshed?

Question 24: Other

2 pages give a description of the Toronto Raptors team and metrics
used to evaluate its effectiveness…..

Question 25: Other

Need help with an assignment must reply 100 words listed below.

Reply to Brandon Cart 100 words

The eyes of criminal justice should be blind regarding “race, creed or color” (Weedmark); but their eyes should be kept open to respond appropriately to the differences in culture. Training is essential for all aspects of criminal justice in order to learn how to interact with different cultures. Social diversity is more widespread in criminal justice than any other profession. The American Bar Association reported that African American males have a higher incarceration and is likely to serve time in prison. Whereas, the rate is lower for Hispanic and white males (Weedmark).

Social awareness is important because criminal justice professionals must understand multicultural differences. When a certain group of people feel they are being alienated by the criminal justice system due to disparities, their distrust of the system is will likely increase (Weedmark).

In addition, there has always been tension between the United States regarding people of different “races, ethnicity, sexual orientation and religion” (McNamara & Burns 2009). The belief of America being a society that mixes individuals from all backgrounds and cultures in a positive manner is inaccurate. Certain cultures who do not have certain power as a dominant group, feel they are treated differently and unjustly (McNamara & Burns 2009).

When law enforcement agencies are constantly singling out certain individuals due to their race or ethnicity (racial profiling), they are likely to have a negative view of law enforcement. If the citizens feel law enforcement cannot be trusted or will act unjustly, officers will “lose their ability and authority to function effectively” (Race, Trust and Police Legitimacy 2016).

Quality treatment is important because individuals tend to base their opinions regarding law enforcement by their personal experiences with them. If the encounter was a bad experience, they are likely to tell others about the encounter; which will cause many to form a negative view of law enforcement due to experiences of others (Horowitz 2007)

Re3ply to Melinda 100 words listed below

Diversity is a concept that people can embrace to increase their knowledge of different cultures to enhance being comfortable interacting and communicating with other people from different cultures (McNamara & Burns, 2009). Diversity is not an inherent characteristic of anyone, regardless of the person’s race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, or gender. Diversity is based on an individual’s ability and openness to learning. Diversity is a belief that promotes incorporating various cultures within a society’s major institutions (Yockey, 2019). This idea is usually applied to the demographics of different major organizations of cities, neighborhoods, businesses, and schools (Yockey, 2019). In a society that practices diversity, a school would represent the demographic makeup of the population of that area. The school’s population would mirror the same statistical breakdown as the population (Yockey, 2019). When diversity exists in an environment, there is a diverse presence of individuals, all of whom represent unique and different attitudes, beliefs, and characteristics.

Culture is the shared norms, behaviors, and values that are shared by people and passed on generationally over lifetimes (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity in the criminal justice system would reflect certain attributes such as advocacy of equal respect given to the various cultures in society, promotion of the maintenance of cultural diversity, and policies in which people of various ethnic and religious groups are addressed by the authorities that are defined by the group to which they belong (Bronsther, 2019). Cultural diversity avoids presenting any specific ethnic, religious, or cultural values as central. Culture signifies a custom of shared beliefs that are held by people who belong to the same group and their social interaction is regulated by norms that are primarily determined by their culture (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity is necessary for all areas of criminal justice because if society does not see all citizens in this country as Americans, then stereotypes of cultures, practices, and racial characteristics will persist (Bronsther, 2019). This will result in the continued mistreatment of people because of poor or misunderstood values, attitudes, and beliefs of members of different groups.

The criminal justice system in the United States is viewed as a functioning group of agencies that respond to and process crimes and criminals. This system relies on humans participating and interacting with one another to dispense justice fairly for all (Entrikin, 2019). When individuals working in the system interpret the laws and procedures with their personal ethnocentric views, this creates a bias against people with different cultural beliefs (Entrikin, 2019). One example of where a lack of cultural understanding could cause for there to be tension between the community and law enforcement is the way Middle Eastern people are mistreated or ostracized since the 9/11 attacks on the United States. Some people behave as if all Muslims are terrorists and treat them all as terrorists. The United States is definitely a blended society more than other countries, but not necessarily blended cohesively.

References:

Bronsther, J. (2019). Torture and respect. Journal of Criminal Law & Criminology, 109(3), 423-490. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2246152015?accountid=56725

Entrikin, J. L. (2019). The death of common law. Harvard Journal of Law and Public Policy, 42(2), 351-487. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2215510088?accountid=56725

McNamara, R. H., & Burns, R. G. (2009). Multiculturalism in the criminal justice system. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.

Question 26: Psychology

Question 27: Psychology

Essay 1 Questions

Answer these questions in essay format, using the instructions provided in the Assignment Instructions folder. Review the Essay 1 Grading Rubric to see how your essay will be graded.

In this question you will make up an experiment using classical conditioning. Please create an example using the following scenario.

Explain how you would evoke a startle response (reflex) using classical conditioning in an unsuspecting friend using an abnormal signal (produces the reflex). Describe your friend’s reflex response and a signal that will produce that reflex response; then choose another signal for the reflex and predict the outcome of using that signal. Clearly label the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS), Unconditioned Response (UCR), Conditioned Stimulus (CS), and Conditioned Response (CR). Include a description of the setting and process for this hypothetical situation. Below is an abbreviated example.

For example, every time your roommate opens the refrigerator door you make an alarm goes off on your phone and the roommate jumps. After this happens several times, the roommate will jump when they open the refrigerator door even without the alarm going off.

Signal (NS)	Opening the refrigerator
UCS	Sound of an alarm
UCR	Jumps
CS	Opens refrigerator
CR	Jumps

Describe how you would use operant conditioning, with a program of shaping, to get a messy roommate to make his/her bed neatly. Include and label the antecedent stimulus, response, and reinforcement of the changing program standards, and a method of self-regulation for the roommate.

In a hypothetical psychology internship, you have encountered a child with destructive tendencies. She bites herself, her dog, and your bag of supplies. Being afraid for her safety and your own well-being, you institute a plan to change her behavior. Suggest a punishment, with her possible reactions to that punishment. Then, try substituting an alternative behavior by reinforcing an incompatible response. Label the antecedent stimulus for the biting response, Punishment I or II, escape or avoidance, and the reinforcement for the new named response. What do you consider to be the best theory or method for improving this child’s behavior?

Give an example of a situation where you can model more effective behavior for someone whom you could positively influence. Describe in detail: yourself (the model), the observer, the behavior, and the reinforcement using at least 5 principles of Social Learning Theory.

This assignment is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Question 28: Business

I need understanding of what to do.. I’m not sure how to start it and I have a hard time understanding what exactly what to do with this Microsoft Project Software for this particular project.

I need a tutorial if possible.

Project Instructions

The project for this class is the “Red Zuma Project,” discussed in the Larson and Gray textbook pg 621. Refer to your textbook for all instructions for this assignment. This project will be divided into 2 submissions:

Project Submission 1 will consist of Parts 1–2.
Project Submission 2 will consist of Parts 3–4.

You must submit a Microsoft Word file that contains properly labeled sections, (that includes appropriate screen shots from Microsoft Project), answers all the questions, AND contains all your completed Microsoft Project files.

It is very important that you label your work as you are answering the questions and preparing your various tables, charts, and diagrams. Credit will only be given to the work that is clearly marked and organized.

Project Submission 1 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Project Submission 2 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

Question 29: Psychology

Discussion Board Forum 3– MUST BE 300 words

Dual-Store Model of Memory

Question/Prompt: Discuss all 3 components of the Dual-Store Model of Memory. Give an example of the development of a piece of information through all 3 structures of your memory according to the Dual-Store Model. At each stage, give the verbal or visual stimulus and the cognitive processing for transferring information between stages. Include clear biblical principles in your response.

Question 30: Business

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml),

Write a four to six 4 page paper in which you:

Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

Determine ways in which the vision, mission, and stakeholders of a firm impact that firm’s overall success.

Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

Week 3 Assignment 1

Student Full Name

Strayer University

BUS499 Business Administration Capstone

Dr. Grizzell

Dr. Gardner

Date

Everything in Blue should be deleted

Due Week 3 and worth 115 points

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. For a list of companies you can choose from, go to https://www.forbes.com/top-public-companies/list/5/#tab:overall . Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other credible sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.

Read chapters 1 -3 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-3 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources!

Begin your paper on Page 2 below and write a minimum of four (4) pages. The minimum page count does not include the Title or Source pages.

Week 3 Assignment 1

Write your introduction here. Include one (1) paragraph (not more than 6 lines of text) that explains what your paper will discuss. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment instructions (in your own words). Read all assignment resources to understand what should be included in your paper. Be sure to review the assignment instructions in Blackboard, the grading rubric, and the recorded writing workshop to understand the requirements. Do not exceed 6 lines of text in this introduction. There should be no direct quotes in this introduction.

Globalization

Thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how your chosen company has been involved in expanding globally, how it has been impacted by global competition, and the global economy. Do not simply define the term globalization. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact globalization has had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the globalization concepts covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about globalization in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company has locations in other countries, do not simply list the various countries in which the company does business. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted your chosen corporation. Do not Google “globalization” or simply provide a definition. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation.

Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the globalization concepts covered in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Globalization that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Technology

Thoroughly assess how technological changes have impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how the company has been impacted by cloud computing, social media, crowdfunding, program apps, email, texting, websites, mobile, automation, robotics, IOT (Internet of Things), AI (Artificial Intelligence), e-commerce, data and analytics, etc. Research how the company may have been impacted by diffusion and disruptive technologies as explained in the textbook. Do not simply define the term technology. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact changes in technology have had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the concept of technology covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about technology in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company is technologically advanced, do not simply list the various technologies they possess but rather evaluate how changes in technology have impacted the corporation. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation. Do not Google “technology” or simply provide a definition. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how changes in technology have impacted your chosen corporation.

Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the technology concepts covered in this course. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Technology that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Industrial Organization Model

Thoroughly apply the industrial organization model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). This model is based upon the corporation’s external environment which is anything outside of the corporation that can influence or impact its business (macro)/operations (micro). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn above average returns (hint: see figure 1.2 in the textbook). Do not Google “Industrial Organization Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Resource-Based Model

Thoroughly apply the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). Consider the corporation’s unique resources (corporate culture, land, location, equipment, brand, reputation, trademarks, patents, etc.) and capabilities (skills, experience, capabilities, etc. that set it apart from its competition). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn superior returns (hint: see figure 1.3 in the textbook). Do not Google “Resource-Based Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Vision

Thoroughly assess how the vision statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual vision statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding vision in your assessment of your selected corporation’s vision statement. Do not simply provide a definition of vision or general statements. In addition to the actual vision statement for your corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of vision, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s vision statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on vision that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

Mission

Thoroughly assess how the mission statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual mission statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding mission in your assessment of your selected corporation’s mission statement. Do not simply provide a definition of mission or general statements. In addition to the mission statement of your selected corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of mission, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s mission statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on mission that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

Stakeholders

Thoroughly evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of your selected corporation. Do not Google “stakeholders” and simply provide a definition or list. You must provide an evaluation that demonstrates your understanding of each classification of stakeholders, as described in this course. Do not write in general terms about stakeholders. Your evaluation must describe how each classification of stakeholders impacts your selected corporation’s success (hint: see figure 1.4 in the textbook). Study Chapter 1 for additional background on Stakeholders as it provides a solid background on stakeholders that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Sources

Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.

List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.

Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course text book to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.

Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.

The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.

Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic

source requires logging in).

When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:

Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)

The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.

Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.

Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?

Additional things to keep in mind.

You will be graded on the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

Question 1: Communications

MGTS2606 Individual Assignment Final (USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 2: Health Care.

NUR 460 review-exam-spring-semester-2018(893 questions)

Question 3: Health Care

Final Exam Nurs 6531

When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Answer YES

Question 4: Health Care

Walden University NURS 6630 midterm

QUESTION 1

A noncompliant patient states, “Why do you want me to put this poison in my body?” Identify the best response made by the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP).

“You have to take your medication to become stable.”

“Most medications will increase the number of neurotransmitters that you already have in the brain.”

“Most medications used in treatment are either increasing or decreasing neurotransmitters that your body already has.”

“Why do you believe that your medication is poison?” I received 0/1 for this answer??

1 points

QUESTION 2

Which statement about neurotransmitters and medications is true? My correct answer was several psychiatric meds were developed after discovery of endogenous neurotransmitters. (The answer wording is different.

Natural neurotransmitters such as endorphins have been discovered after the development of medications.

Some medications were developed after the discovery and known action of the neurotransmitters in the brain.

Neurotransmitters receive messages from most medications.

The neurotransmitter serotonin is directly linked to depression. Following this discovery, the antidepressant Prozac was developed.

1 points

QUESTION 3

When an unstable patient asks why it is necessary to add medications to his current regimen, the PMHNP’s best response would be:

“In an extreme case such as yours, more than one medication is often needed.”

“Due to the ineffectiveness of your current medication, we need to try something else that can possibly potentiate its effects.

“Medications are often specific to the neurotransmitter(s) they are affecting and, due to more than one neurotransmitter involvement, it is often necessary to use more than one medication to improve symptoms.”

“I understand your concern. We can discontinue your current medication and switch to a different one that may better manage your symptoms.”

1 points

QUESTION 4 ?

During gene expression, what must occur prior to a gene being expressed?

Transcription factor must bind to the regulatory region within the cell’s nucleus.

RNA must be converted to mRNA.

The coding region must separate from the regulatory region. This is wrong

RNA polymerase must inhibit the process of changing RNA to mRNA.

1 points

While genes have potential to modify behavior, behavior can also modify genes. How do genes impact this process?

Genes impact neuron functioning directly.

Changes made to proteins lead to changes in behavior.

Neurons are able to impact protein synthesis.

Genes impact the DNA of a cell, leading to changes in behavior.

1 points

QUESTION 6

Though medications have the ability to target neurotransmitters in the synapse, it is not always necessary. The PMHNP understands that this is because:

Neurotransmission that occurs via the axon allows for transport of a neurotransmitter.

Active transport is a different type of energy that allows the transport of certain neurotransmitters.

Neurotransmitters can spread by diffusion.

The postsynaptic neuron can release the neurotransmitter.

1 points

QUESTION 7

Why is the cytochrome P450 enzyme system of significance to the PMHNP?

The kidneys play a role with excretion of the medication, and if a patient has kidney damage, the dose must be increased to be effective.

The bioavailability of the medication after it passes through the stomach and liver can be altered. Correct answer

The medication’s chemical composition changes when it comes in contact with the acid in the stomach.

The CYP enzyme system is a steady and predictable process that prescribers must understand to treat conditions effectively.

1 points

QUESTION 8

It is important for the PMHNP to recognize differences in pharmacokinetics to safely prescribe and monitor medications. Which of the following statements does the competent PMHNP identify as true?

About 1 out of 5 Asians requires l

lower-than-normal doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

The term polymorphic refers to the body’s ability to break a medication down several ways, and this patient may require higher doses of certain antidepressants and antipsychotics.

About 1 out of 30 Caucasians requires lower doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

Most enzyme pathways do not have interactions between the newer medications.

1 points

QUESTION 9

1. As it relates to G-protein linked receptors, what does the PMHNP understand about medications that are used in practice?

Most medications that act on G-protein linked receptors have antagonistic traits.

The majority of medications used in practice are full agonists and are used to stimulate the body’s natural neurotransmitters.

Most medications act as partial agonists because they allow the body to use only what is needed.

Medications used in practice may act as inverse agonists if the dosage is too high.

1 points

QUESTION 10

1. The PMHNP is considering prescribing a 49-year-old male clozapine (Clozaril) to treat his schizophrenia and suicidal ideations. The PMHNP is aware that which factor may impact the dose needed to effectively treat his condition:

The patient smokes cigarettes. This is correct!

The patient has hypertension.

The patient has chronic kidney disease, stage 2.

The patient drinks a cup of coffee a day.

1 points

QUESTION 11

1. A patient is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is currently taking carbamazepine (Tegretol), aripiprazole (Abilify), and melatonin. The PMHNP has just written an order to discontinue the carbamazepine (Tegretol) for drug-induced thrombocytopenia. The PMHNP is aware that his next best action is to:

Alert staff to possible seizures

Write an order for a different mood stabilizer For some reason I got 0/1 points for this??

Decrease the amount prescribed for aripiprazole (Abilify)

Explain to the patient that it will be more difficult to control his temper

1 points

QUESTION 12

1. A patient recently transferred following a suicide attempt has a history of schizophrenia, depression, and fibromyalgia. He is currently taking Amitriptyline (Elavil), Lisinopril, aspirin, and fluoxetine (Prozac). Which is the best action for the PMHNP to take for this patient?

Review Amitriptyline (Elavil) level Correct answer

Order a liver function test

Check the patient’s blood pressure and pulse

Order a stat platelet count

1 points

QUESTION 13

1. A patient with schizophrenia is given an inverse agonist that acts on the receptor 5HT and neurotransmitter serotonin. What is the rationale for prescribing a medication such as this?

To promote the availability of serotonin

To decrease serotonin

To indirectly increase the amount of dopamine in the body

To help decrease the amount of serotonin and dopamine

1 points

QUESTION 14

1. The PMHNP is caring for four patients. Which patient statement indicates that benzodiazepines would be beneficial?

“I have trouble staying asleep in the middle of the night.”

“My spouse told me that I seem to have trouble remembering things sometimes.”

“I really want to stop smoking, but the cravings are too strong.”

“I feel nervous to go outside and be in large crowds.”

1 points

QUESTION 15

1. Ms. Harlow is a 42-year-old patient who is prescribed a drug that acts on ionotropic receptors. She is curious about the effects of the drug and how it will act on her symptoms. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper understanding of Ms. Harlow’s prescription?

“The drug will have an almost immediate effect.”

“The drug can take a while to build up in your system.”

“The drug is slow to release but lasts for a long time.”

“The drug will make a subtle difference in your symptoms.”

1 points

QUESTION 16

1. A patient is seeking pharmacological treatment for smoking cessation. Which drug class does the PMHNP prescribe to the patient?

Benzodiazepine

Mirtazapine (Remeron)

Ketamine

Varenicline (Chantix)

1 points

QUESTION 17

1. The PMHNP is caring for a new patient who has been transferred from another office. When meeting with the new patient, the patient reports, “I feel like I am improving with the stabilizers.” The PMHNP immediately recognizes that the patient is describing which kind of drug?

Full agonists

Antagonists

Partial agonists

Inverse agonists

1 points

QUESTION 18

1. A patient presents with frequent episodes of mania. Which statement describes an appropriate treatment approach for this patient?

“The patient needs to have an inverse agonist.”

“The patient could benefit from an anticonvulsant.”

“The patient’s calcium, sodium, chloride, and potassium levels must be regulated.”

“The patient should have a drug that acts on ligand-gated ion channels.”

1 points

QUESTION 19

1. The PHMNP is caring for a patient who would benefit from nicotine cholinergic, serotonin 3, or glycine receptors. What kind of agent does the PHMNP want to prescribe for this patient?

Ligand-gated ion channels with a pentameric structure

Ligand-gated ion channels with a tetrameric structure

Voltage-sensitive ion channels

Anticonvulsants

1 points

QUESTION 20 ?

1. Which statement made by the patient suggests the patient will need to be treated with antipsychotics that target paranoid psychosis?

“It’s my fault that all of this is happening. I don’t think I could ever forgive myself.” Not correct

“I have to talk to the President because I’m the only one who can help him.”

“I’m not sure why that lady is wearing a red jacket since it’s the dogs who need food.”

“I don’t know that I even want to go to that meeting. It doesn’t seem worth it anymore.”

1 points

QUESTION 21

1. A patient has been treated with a number of novel psychotropic drugs. How is it theoretically possible to identify cognitive improvement in the patient using neuropsychological assessment batteries after the pharmacologic therapy? I did not have this question

Obtaining raw normative metrics and using them to assess functionality

Having the patient report on cognitive function based on personal experiences

Monitoring the patient in a controlled setting

Measuring symptoms of psychosis

1 points

QUESTION 22

1. Mr. McCullin is 64 years old with Parkinson’s disease. The PMHNP caring for Mr. McCullin wants to start him on a dopamine agonist to help manage and treat his condition. The PHMNP selects this agent because of which action it has on patients like Mr. McCullin?

Dopamine is terminated through multiple mechanisms.

The D2 autoreceptor regulates release of dopamine from the presynaptic neuron.

MAO-B presents in the mitochondria within the presynaptic neuron.

D2 receptors are the primary binding site for dopamine agonists. Correct answer

1 points

QUESTION 23

1. Mrs. Trevor is a 44-year-old patient who does not have a diagnosis of schizophrenia but occasionally reports symptoms of psychosis, followed by severe fatigue. Mrs. Trevor inquires about the use of amphetamines to help with her energy levels. Which response made by the PMHNP is most appropriate?

“Amphetamines may help you, as they can alleviate psychotic conditions.”

“Amphetamines can inhibit negative symptoms of schizophrenia, so this might be a good choice for you.”

“Amphetamines can cause hallucinations, so I would advise against this type of prescription.”Correct

“Amphetamines can lead to a dopamine deficiency, so I will not prescribe this for you.”

1 points

QUESTION 24

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with schizophrenia and is considering a variety of treatment approaches. The PHMNP selects a viable treatment that is consistent with the “dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.” What action does the PMHNP anticipate this treatment having on the patient?

Blocking the release of dopamine facilitates the onset of positive schizophrenia symptoms.

Hyperactivity in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway mediates the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

Antipsychotic drugs that open D2 receptor pathways can treat schizophrenia.

The neuroanatomy of dopamine neuronal pathways can explain symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points

QUESTION 25

1. A patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What increases the patient’s potential to mediate the cognitive symptoms of the disease?

Achieving underactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

Achieving underactivity of the mesocortical projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

1 points

QUESTION 26

1. The PMNHP is assessing a 29-year-old patient who takes antipsychotics that block D2 receptors. What patient teaching should the PMHNP include related to the possible side effects of this type of drug?

Hypersexuality

Amenorrhea

Dystonia

Tardive dyskinesia correct answer

1 points

QUESTION 27

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient who is taking antipsychotics heard the psychiatrist tell the patient that the patient would be placed on a different antipsychotic agent. Which of the following requires the longest transition time for therapeutic benefit?Not on my test

Olanzapine to clozapine

Asenapine to Risperidone

Aripripazole to ziprasidone

Aripripazole to clozapine

1 points

QUESTION 28

1. The PMHNP is assessing a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver and anticipates that the patient will be prescribed an antipsychotic. Which medication does the PMHNP suspect will be ordered for this patient?Not on my test

Quetiapine

Paliperidone

Lurasidone

Clozapine

1 points

QUESTION 29

1. Which statement made by the PMHNP exemplifies correct teaching of physiological effects in the body?

Muscarinic antagonists are more likely to cause decreased prolactin levels.

D2 antagonists decrease the likelihood of EPS symptoms.

D2 antagonism is linked to antidepressant properties.

D2 partial agonists are associated with increased efficacy in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points

QUESTION 30

1. Mrs. Schwartzman is a 52-year-old patient with schizophrenia and no established history of depression. When meeting with the PMHNP, she presents with apathy and withdrawn social behavior, and she reports a loss of joy from enjoyable activities. What does the PMHNP infer from this encounter with the patient?

An underlying depressive disorder

The recent change of a 2nd generation antipsychotic to a conventional one This is correct

The recent change of a 1st generation antipsychotic to a 2nd generation antipsychotic

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 31

1. The PMHNP is taking a history on a patient who has been on antipsychotics for many years. Which risk factors are most likely to contribute to a person developing tardive dyskinesia (TD)?Not on mytest

Long-term use of antipsychotics

Genetic disposition

Age

A and C

2333326

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 32

The student inquires about antipsychotic medications. Which response by the PMHNP describes nthe factors that contribute to reduced risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) for patients who take antipsychotics?

Those that are potent D2 antagonists

Those that are potent D2 antagonists with 5HT2A antagonism properties

D2 receptors that are blocked in the nigrostriatal pathway

Potent D2 antagonists that block the muscarinic anti-M1 cholinergic receptors

1 points

QUESTION 33

Mr. Gordon is a middle-aged patient who is taking antipsychotics. When meeting with the PMHNP, he reports positive responses to the medication, stating, “I really feel as though the effects of my depression are going away.” Which receptor action in antipsychotic medications is believed to be the most beneficial in producing the effects described by Mr. Gordon?

5HT2 antagonism

D2 antagonismThis was wrong 0/1

Alpha-2 antagonism

D2 partial agonist

1 points

QUESTION 34

A patient who was recently admitted to the psychiatric nursing unit is being treated for bipolar disorder. Which neurotransmitter is the PMHNP most likely to target with pharmaceuticals?

Norepinephrine

Dopamine

Serotonin

A and C

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 35

Ms. Ryerson is a 28-year-old patient with a mood disorder. She recently requested to transfer to a new PMHNP, after not getting along well with her previous provider. The new PHMNP is reviewing Ms. Ryerson’s medical chart prior to their first appointment. Upon review, the PMHNP sees that the former provider last documented “patient had rapid poop out.” What does the PMHNP infer about the patient’s prescription based on this documentation?

The patient has an unsustained response to antidepressants.

The patient has antidepressant-induced hypomania.

The patient has a depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters.

The patient has an adverse effect to atypical antipsychotics.

1 points

QUESTION 36

The PMHNP recognizes that which patient would be contraindicated for antidepressant monotherapy?

Patient with a bipolar I designationI don’t know why but this was marked 0/1 for me

Patient with a bipolar II designation

Patient with a bipolar III designation

None of the above

1 points

QUESTION 37

Why does the PMHNP avoid treating a patient with cyclothymia, and has major depressive episodes, with antidepressant monotherapy?Not on my test

The patient may experience paranoid avoidant behavior.

The patient may experience severe depression.

The patient may experience auditory hallucinations.

The patient may experience increased mood cycling.

1 points

QUESTION 38

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with the s genotype of SERT. What does the PMHNP understand regarding this patient’s response to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)/SNRI treatment?

The patient has a higher chance of tolerating SSRI/SNRI treatment.

The patient will have a positive response to SSRI/SNRI treatment.

The patient will develop severe mood cycling in response to treatment.

The patient may be less responsive or tolerant to the treatment.

1 points

QUESTION 39

Ms. Boeckh is a 42-year-old patient with major depression. The PMHNP understands that which action of norepinephrine will affect Ms. Boeckh’s serotonin levels?

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a2 postsynaptic receptors.

Norepinephrine inhibits 5HT release through a2 receptors.

Norepinephrine inhibits α2 receptors on axon terminals.

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a1 and a2 receptors.

1 points

QUESTION 40

Which statement made by the PMHNP correctly describes the relationship between NE neurons and pharmaceutical treatment?

“Drugs inhibit the release of NE.”

“Drugs can mimic the natural functioning of the NE neuron.”

“Drugs are unable to simulate the effects of NE neurons.”

“Drugs prevent the natural functioning of the NE neuron by stopping the presynaptic a2 neuron.”

1 points

QUESTION 41

The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the psychiatric emergency room. The patient tells the PMHNP that he does not understand why his depression has not lifted after being on four different antidepressants over the course of a year. Which of the following symptoms can be residual symptoms for patients who do not achieve remission with major depressive disorder?

Insomnia

Suicidal ideation

Problems concentrating

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 42

Fluoxetine (Prozac) has been prescribed for a patient. Which of the following statements is true regarding the action of this medication?

Neuronal firing rates are not dysregulated in depression.

Blocking the presynaptic SERT will immediately lead to a great deal of serotonin in many synapses.

Upon the acute administration of a SSRI, 5HT decreases.

The action at the somatodendritic end of the serotonin neuron may best explain the therapeutic action of SSRIs. Correct

1 points

QUESTION 43

The nurse educator knows that teaching was effective when one of the students compares fluvoxamine to sertraline and notes which of the following similarities?I had different answer choicesthe correct answer was Both have actions at sigma receptors that contribute to both anxiolytic and antipsychotic effects

Both have a sedative-like, calming effect.

Both contribute to antipsychotic actions.

Both demonstrate favorable findings in treating depression in the elderly.

Both are known for causing severe withdrawal symptoms such as dizziness, restlessness, and akathisia.

1 points

QUESTION 44

A 45-year-old female patient with allergic rhinitis and normal blood pressure has had no reduction in depressive symptoms after trying bupropion, paroxetine, and venlafaxine. What precautions are needed in considering monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) in treating her depression?

Since all MAOIs require dietary restrictions, the patient will need to avoid all cheeses and aged, smoked, or fermented meats.

The patient cannot take any antihistamines.

The patient cannot have two wisdom teeth extracted while on a MAnOI.

The patient will need to minimize dietary intake of foods such as tap and unpasteurized beer, aged cheeses, and soy products/tofu.

1 points

QUESTION 45

After sitting in on an interdisciplinary treatment team meeting, the student nurse asks the instructor to explain a system-based approach to the treatment of depression. What is the appropriate response?

Symptoms help create a diagnosis, then symptoms are deconstructed into a list of specific symptoms experienced by a patient.

Symptoms are matched first with the brain circuits that hypothetically mediate them and then with the known neuropharmacological regulation of these circuits by neurotransmitters.

Treatment options that target neuropharmacological mechanisms are selected to eliminate symptoms one by one.

All of the above.

1 points

QUESTION 46

A 51-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of depression, including lack of motivation and difficulty sleeping. What risk factors would increase her vulnerability for a diagnosis of depression?

First onset in puberty or early adulthood

Late onset of menses

Premenstrual syndrome

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 47

A nurse overhears that a patient has failed single therapy with an SSRI and SNRI. She also learns that the patient has been on dual SSRI/SNRI therapy without adequate symptom control. She approaches the PMHNP and asks what the next treatment option could be in this seemingly treatment-resistant patient. The PMHNP tells the nurse she will treat the patient with the following regimen:

MAOI plus SNRI

SSRI/SNRI plus NDRI

NDRI/SNRI plus mirtazapine

NDRI plus modafinil

1 points

*Q/UESTION 48

Mrs. Radcliff is a 42-year-old patient who is considering stopping paroxetine. Why does her PMHNP advise against this abrupt discontinuation of the medicine?

She may experience withdrawal symptoms.

She may experience increased trauma.

Effects of abrupt cessation are unknown.

It can lead to difficulties with concentration.

1 points

QUESTION 49

A patient is prescribed fluoxetine but is concerned about the side effects. Which statement demonstrates accurate patient teaching when discussing the side effects associated with fluoxetine?

Weight gain can be problematic.

Sedation is very common.

Induction of mania is rare.

Seizures are not unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 50

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with anxiety who develops mild to moderate hepatic impairment. Which action does the PMHNP take regarding the use of venlafaxine?

Stop the venlafaxine

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 25-40%

Increase the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

1 points

QUESTION 51

A 25-year-old female patient is being prescribed milnacipran to treat fibromyalgia, and expresses concern regarding “how she will feel and look” from taking the medicine. Which statement correctly describes the side effects as a result of taking this medication?

It can affect her menstruation.

Suicidality can be common among young adults.

Sedation may be problematic.

Weight gain is unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 52

Mr. Ruby is a 33-year-old single father who is requesting pharmacological intervention to treat his fibromyalgia. The PMHNP sees in the medical chart that he has a recent diagnosis of arrhythmia and a BMI of 29. During his assessment, the PMHNP learns that Mr. Ruby works 40-50 hours a week as a contractor and “manages his stress” by smoking 3-4 cigarettes a day and having 8-10 drinks of alcohol each week. Why would duloxetine be contraindicated for Mr. Ruby?

He has fibromyalgia.

He has arrhythmia.

He uses alcohol.

He is overweight.

1 points

QUESTION 53

A patient is prescribed sertraline to treat panic disorder. Knowing that sertraline can initially cause anxiety or insomnia, what should the PMHNP do?

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

1 points

QUESTION 54

A patient is prescribed 50 mg of desvenlafaxine to take every other day for major depressive disorder. What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

The patient has hepatic impairment.

The patient has moderate renal impairment.

The patient has severe renal impairment.

The patient has cardiac impairment.

1 points

QUESTION 55

The PMHNP understands that which mechanism contributes to a worse tolerability profile for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

Histamine H1 receptor blockade can cause insomnia.

Muscarinic M1 receptor blockade causes blurred vision.

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor blockade causes weight gain.

Muscarinic M3 receptor blockade causes sedation.

1 points

QUESTION 56

A patient who was prescribed an MAO inhibitor is learning about dietary modifications. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper teaching of the food-drug interactions for MAO inhibitors?

“You must avoid soy products, such as tofu.”

“You should not consume processed meats.”

“You may consume fermented foods, like sauerkraut.”

“You may continue to drink beers on tap.”

1 points

QUESTION 57

A patient who is prescribed MAO inhibitors asks about whether he can continue taking pseudoephedrine to relieve his congestion. Which response by the PMHNP indicates proper understanding of drug-drug interactions?

“Decongestants are fine to continue taking with MAO inhibitors.”

“Decongestants are okay to take with MAO inhibitors in moderation.”

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of serotonin syndrome.”

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of hypertensive crisis.” Correct

1 points

QUESTION 58

Ms. Skidmore presents for a follow-up appointment after being prescribed phenelzine (Nardil), and reports “I take my 45 mg pill, three times a day, just like I’m supposed to.” What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

Ms. Skidmore is taking the correct dose of phenelzine (Nardil).This was marked 0/1 for me

Ms. Skidmore is not taking enough of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking three times that amount.

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking the 45 mg in three doses.This is probably the right answer

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she is supposed to take 45 mg every 24 hours.

1 points

QUESTION 59

The PMHNP is caring for several patients who present with various symptoms and health issues. For which patient does the PMHNP prescribe pregabalin (Lyrica)?

Patient with PTSD

Patient with partial seizures

Patient with galactose intolerance

Patient with Lapp lactase deficiency

1 points

QUESTION 60

Mr. Gutier is 72 years old with anxiety and depressive symptoms. His PMHNP is prescribing lorazepam (Ativan). What does the PMHNP understand regarding this prescription?

The PMHNP will prescribe less than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

The PMHNP will require Mr. Gutier to take 2-4 doses of lorazepam (Ativan) per day.

The PMHNP will prescribe more than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

The PMHNP will have Mr. Gutier take 6 mg of lorazepam (Ativan) as a PRN.

1 points

QUESTION 61

A patient is being prescribed a sedating antidepressant, but is concerned about weight gain. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed to addresses the patient’s concerns?

mirtazapine (Remeron)

doxepin (Silenor)

alprazolam (Xanax)

trazadone (Oleptro)

1 points

QUESTION 62

A patient who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder without mania, asks the PMHNP why he is being prescribed a mood stabilizer. What is the appropriate response?

Mood stabilizers are only prescribed to treat manic phases of bipolar depression

Mood stabilizers can consistently treat both mania and bipolar depression

Mood stabilizers can target mania and mania relapse and also reduce symptoms of bipolar depression and relapse of bipolar depression symptoms but no drug has been proven to target all four therapeutic actions

Certain mood stabilizers, such as lithium, are able to consistently target mania and bipolar depression

1 points

QUESTION 63

The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the emergency room. The patient shares that he has been on lithium (Lithobid) for many years. What blood tests does the PMHMP order?

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

Platelet Count

1 points

QUESTION 64

A 39-year old female patient presently on lithium would like to try a new medication to treat her bipolar disorder. She has had concerns about side effects from lithium and wants to learn more about Lamotrigine (Lamictal) as a treatment option. The PMHNP conveys some of the unique aspects of this agent, including which of the following? I don’t think I had this question

There is some indication lamotrigine can prevent progression from mild cognitive impairment to Alzheimer’s disease

Lamotrigine may cause rashes, including the life-threatening Stevens-Johnson syndrome

It was one of the first anticonvulsants approved by the FDA to treat bipolar depression

There is a risk for amenorrhea and polycystic ovarian disease in women of childbearing age

1 points

QUESTION 65

A nursing student is seeking clarification on the use of anticonvulsants to treat depression and is unclear about most effective outcomes. Which of the following agents does the PMHNP convey as having uncertain outcomes?

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

Valporoic Acid (Depakene)

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 66

A 46-year old male patient mentions several alternative treatments to Carbamazepine (Tegretol) as a way to manage symptoms of his bipolar depression. Which of the following does the PMHNP indicate would not be an agent to treat bipolar depression?didn’t have this question I

Omega-3-fatty-acids

Soybean lecithin

Inositol

L-methylfolate

1 points

QUESTION 67

The PMHNP is meeting with a new mother who would like to begin taking medication again to treat her bipolar depression; she is breastfeeding her 2-month old daughter. The PMHNP recognizes that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this patient?

Valporic Acid (Depakene)

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Lithium (Lithobid)This question is repeated and on one I got 1/1 and the other I got 0/1 for this sameexact question.

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

1 points

QUESTION 68

The PMHNP assesses a 10-year old male child in the ER and suspects mania. Which of the following symptoms and recommendations for follow-up evaluation are appropriate?

Irritability, euphoria, anger; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

Irritability, violent outbursts, hyperactivity; the child should also be evaluated further for ADHD

Irritability, lethargy, anger; the child should be evaluated further for ADHD.

Irritability, acute mania, hyperactivity; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

1 points

QUESTION 69

A patient was diagnosed with GAD 4 weeks ago and was placed on Clonazepam (klonopin) twice a day and citalopram (citalopram (celexa)) once daily. When he asks the PMHNP why it is necessary to wean him off of the Clonazepam (klonopin) the best response is:

Clonazepam (klonopin) may interfere with citalopram (celexa)s targeted areas in the brain

Clonazepam (klonopin) is not recommended for long term use due to possible sedation

Clonazepam (klonopin) was used as an aid to treat your condition while you were adjusting to citalopram (celexa)

Clonazepam (klonopin) and citalopram (celexa) target the same area in the brain and after long-term use they will begin to compete making one more or less effective than the other

1 points

QUESTION 70

During assessment a patient states “Why are you asking me about my heart, I am here for my head”, the PMHNP’s best response is:

“Some medications can cause heart issues so it is necessary to rule those out before you begin medication.”I got 0/1 for this answer I don’t know why??

“This is a part of our routine admission and it is important that you give me truthful answers.”

“Chronic conditions such as Lupus can cause an area in your brain to malfunction, specifically your hippocampus.”

“Anxiety can cause cortisol levels to increase and when this happens frequently it puts you at risk for comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes.”

1 points

QUESTION 71

The PMHNP understands that the potential of alcohol abuse in the anxious patient is higher for the following reason:The answers are phrased differently.. The correct answer is that alcohol works onthe GABA A receptor

Alcohol is legal and is a common way that most people deal with their problems.

Alcohol works similar to benzodiazepines

Up to 30% of people with anxiety use alcohol to self-medicate

Alcohol increases serotonin at the synapse and the patient may temporarily feel happy

1 points

QUESTION 72

After ordering flumazenil (Rumazicon) the PMHNP cautions the staff to monitor for which possible effect?

Respiratory depression

Sedation and restlessness

Sweating and nausea (This question was marked wrong but I think the answers are different too)

Bradycardia and tachypnea

1 points

QUESTION 73

A patient is prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for his anxiety. When he asks why he was given an antidepressant the PMHNP’s best response is: I didn’t have this question

“SSRIs are used to treat anxiety because serotonin has been proven to help with feelings of fear and worry.”

“Even though you were diagnosed with anxiety there is a very high chance that you also have depression due to the similarities of both diseases.”

“Antidepressants are prescribed prophylactically to prevent symptoms of depression.”

“Escitalopram (Lexapro) is very effective with treating the panic attacks that can occur with anxiety.”

1 points

QUESTION 74 ?

The PMHNP evaluates the patient for “fear conditioning” when he asks:

Have you ever experienced any type of trauma?

What do you do when you feel fear?

Does your mother or father have a history of fear and/or worrying?

What makes your fear better?

1 points

QUESTION 75

A patient diagnosed with PTSD is prescribed propranolol (Inderal) and the PMHNP understands that he was prescribed this medication for what purpose:

He has uncontrolled high blood pressure and this must be treated before focusing on his PTSD.

Beta blockers are linked to reconsolidation.

This medication will allow the patient to sleep throughout the night.

This medication is linked to the increase of serotonin in the brain.

1 points

Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers.

Here are some parts of other questions I had that I jotted down a enough of the ? so you know what Its about and my answers and if they were right or wrong:

What is an accurate description of psychosis? It’s a syndrome associated with a number of psychiatric disorders (Correct)

Mrs. Schwalzman 52 has schizophrenia and has no history of depression. She has apathy and no joy in life. What can the PMHNP infer?Her new medication is blocking D2 receptors in the mesolimbic system corre

Question 5: Health Care

NUTR1023 EXERCISE AND DIET PLAN Workout Plan……..

Question 6: Health Care

MHA 622 Virtues and values…………………

Question 7: Health Care

MHA 612 Zero-based budgeting in health care

Question 8: Health Care

IHP 525 Final Milestone Project…………..

Question 9: Health Care.

HIST 200 OBESITY IN CANADA………………………

Question 10: Health Care

NUR 2058 Dimensions Of Nursing Final Exam | Complete

True or False: Energy Systems in the body are used by both conventional and integrative medicine.

Select the most effective method that nurses can use to gain power over their practice.

An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof serious injury including loss of limbs or function is:

What is the purpose of spiritual modes of healing?

True or False: QSEN or Quality of Safety Education for Nurses is built on 8 competencies developed by the Department of Health.

Which best describes The Leapfrog Group and its recommendations?

A client’s blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg is an example of which of the following?

With which of the following clients does the nurse determine to be the most appropriate time to discuss their discharge teaching?
What is the definition of the ethical principle of nonmaleficence?

These characteristics are difficult to identify, but have an even more profound effect on an individual’s cultural identity.

Which of the following is a key element to effective education of nursing students?

Which of the following would NOT be considered an invasion of privacy:

Which of the following is an appropriate response from the nurse when caring for a client using complimentary medicine?

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Integrative medicine?

When reviewing the term spirituality, which of the following would not be included in its definition?

This is the single most obvious barrier to providing culturally competent care.

Which situation is the nurse allowed to breech a client’s right of confidentiality?

Which of the following best describes conventional and integrative medicine?

Which characteristic is required in a person to be able to resolve difficult crises?

Where would a nurse look to find their scope of practice as defined by state law?

Identify an important aspect of the role of forensic psychiatric nurses

The student nurse asks, “Why is there such an emphasis on spirituality in health care?” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse preceptor?

A) Each hospital establishes its own policy regarding spirituality. B) The American Association of Colleges of Nursing mandates a policy related to spirituality in health care C) The Joint Commission has a standard of patient care with inclusion of spirituality. D) Spirituality remains at the discretion of the chaplain or pastoral care.

What is the first step in the delegation process?

A) Allowing the person to observe the RN performing the task before making the assignment B) Determining the skill level of the person to whom the task is to be delegated C) Obtaining permission from the client for another care provider to help with the care D) Instructing the person to whom the task is delegated about the assignment

What is the mos

What is the most important element for the nurse navigator to include in the planning of care for a client?

A) The client’s perceptions and beliefs about the disease process and the modalities of treatment B) The distance the client lives from the primary health-care facility C) The age difference between the client and the nurse D) What type of insurance coverage the client has

Identify a secured setting for the practice of forensic nursing.

A) Crime scenes B) Women’s shelters C) Emergency rooms D) Correctional institutions

What would be a likely result of the development of a universally agreed upon nomenclature and taxonomy for nursing clinical information and management data?

A) A failure to determine the impact nurses have on outcomes B) The inability to identify what the nursing staff actually does C) The establishment of appropriate reimbursement for nursing activities D) A decrease in the number of nursing diagnoses

A particularly vocal staff nurse on a busy obstetric unit has been complaining to the other nurses about the unit manager’s preferential treatment of the night-shift nurses. Select the action that the unit manager should take to resolve this problem, which best demonstrates the use of the assertive approach to conflict resolution.

A) Sets up a time and place for a one-on-one meeting with the staff nurse B) Arranges for the transfer of the staff nurse to the night shift C) Waits until there is an opportunity to use the incident to confront the staff nurse in front of his or her colleagues D) Notes that the vocal staff nurse is not intelligent enough to understand the situation, and disregards her comments as worthless

When do most health-care expenditures occur in a person’s life?

A) As old age sets in due to the development of multiple chronic illnesses B) During the last 6 months of life C) During childhood due to the large number of broken bones and traumatic injuries D) During and shortly after being born

Which assignment is most appropriate for a CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) floated to the medical-surgical unit from the outpatient clinic?

A) Completing the admission vital signs and assessment on a 44-year-old woman who just returned from the post anesthesia care unit after nephrectomy B) Obtaining a temperature on a 29-year-old woman with gastrointestinal bleeding during the last 30 minutes of a whole-blood transfusion C) Changing the sterile dressings on a 22-year-old man 2 days after undergoing skin graft for burn injuries D) Assisting a 72-year-old man 1 day post–cerebrovascular accident with dysphagia to eat lunch

What is the primary goal of the nurse navigator role?

A) Lower the risk factors that cause poor or adverse client outcomes B) Elimination of the barriers to care to make moving through the treatment maze easier C) Starting a business by combining nursing experience and knowledge with business knowledge D) Provide health care for inmates in correctional facilities such as juvenile centers, jails, and prisons

True or False: It is estimated that 98,000 people die per year due to adverse events & medical errors in hospitals.

A) False B) True

Identify a communication style that involves interpersonal behaviors that permit people to defend and maintain their legitimate rights in a respectful manner that does not violate the rights of others.

A) Aggressive B) Assertive C) Dishonest D) Submissive

Which nursing intervention is of limited effectiveness in addressing the needs of a client with a nursing diagnosis of Spiritual Distress?

A) Explain the nurse’s religious beliefs and values immediately when requested to do so by the client. B) Contact an appropriate spiritual leader or community for conduct of spiritual rituals sought by the client. C) Express a willingness to assist and cooperate with religious practices that are not detrimental to the client’s health in the treatment setting. D) Communicate acceptance of the client’s spiritual needs and acknowledge their importance.

When does the encoding process of communication take place?

A) The message is sent in a way that causes confusion in the receiver. B) The receiver thinks about the information, understands it, and forms an idea based on the message. C) The sender sends the message. D) The receiver responds to the message and gives feedback.

Who is called the “father of modern medicine”?

A) Hippocrates B) Emperor Darius C) Cyrus the Great D) William Harvey

Identify the task that may be delegated to an LPN (LVN) if all of the clients are stable.

A) Developing the nursing diagnosis for a newly admitted client B) Turning a client with a CVA every 2 hours C) Teaching a new diabetic patient how to administer insulin injections D) Adding potassium to an intravenous (IV) bag of D6W that was already hanging

A patient is anxious about a procedure. Knowing the patient loves the beach, the nurse instructs them to close their eyes and picture the ocean, sand, and rays of the sun. Which of the following practices is the nurse implementing?

A) Transcendental Meditation B) Guided Imagery C) Therapeutic Talking D) Visualization

Identify the primary change that increased the need for many more certified RN-coders and certified RN-auditors.

A) The development of new oversight procedures for Medicare and Medicaid B) The switch to the new ICD-10 coding system C) The new regulations that came into effect with the Affordable Care Act D) The closing of many college programs that teach or offer degrees in health-care coding

Identify the four concepts that are common in most nursing theories.

A) Client, health, environment, nursing B) Hospital, nursing home, clinic, physician’s office C) Nurse, physician, client, other providers D) Care, adaptation, system, cure

Which of the following demonstrates the planning phase of the nursing process?

A) The nurse specifies short and long term outcomes for the client B) The nurse determines whether or not the client’s short term outcomes were met C) The nurse performs a physical exam and collects a health history D) The nurse identifies that the client is at risk for pressure ulcers

What is the best way to increase the motivation to learn in the elderly population?

A) Use negative reinforcements when an elderly person does not change behavior appropriately B) Link positive reinforcement to changes in behavior. C) Ignore their life experiences so that the learning is not contaminated by misinformation from the past. D) Use the power disparity between the teacher and the client to reinforce basic principles

Why is it important for nurses in general practice to have an awareness of forensic knowledge?

A) They may one day wish to become certified in forensic nursing B) Forensic knowledge is a part of nursing curricula and is necessary for passing the National Council Licensure Examination C) Nurses are often in positions to report crimes or preserve evidence. D) With the increasing involvement of nurses in malpractice suits, forensic knowledge will help them win their cases

Why is term healing preferred to medicine when referring to alternative and complementary modalities?

A) Clients might associate alternative treatments with hospital care. B) Nurses have had a strong influence in naming this modality. C) The treatments are based on holistic philosophies that go beyond treatment or cure of the physiological dimensions of care. D) Medicine implies that only physicians can carry out the treatment

An example of civility in the classroom consists of keeping cell phones on silent and using proper cell phone etiquette?

A) False B) True

What primary skills are required of the nurse to provide cultural competent care?

A) All of the above B) Sensitivity C) Understanding D) Communication

Both nursing models and theories help explain and direct nursing actions.

A) True B) False

Which of the following statements is most accurate about the vast majority of the elderly?

A) They make up the single largest expenditure for the federal government budget B) They are relatively healthy and most manage their chronic conditions at home C) They all have chronic diseases and are in assisted-care facilities. D) They have high levels of depression and are usually in bad spirits.

Although the assessment techniques used for different individuals may be identical, the nurse needs to know the basic biological and physical variations among ethnic groups.

A) True B) False

The client’s short term outcome was to sit up in a chair at bedside for 30 minutes. The nurse reviews the client outcome, determines that it was not met, and modifies the interventions. Which phase of the nursing process is this?

A) Evaluation B) Assessment C) Planning D) Diagnosis

This lengthy assessment tool provides a thorough overview of a client’s culture.

A) Minority Model B) Purnell’s Model C) Non-English Model D) Bio-Cultural Model

True or False: By law, supplements are regulated be the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

A) False B) True

Which of the following describes Callista Roy’s definition of nursing as indicated in her nursing model?

A) Multistep process that helps the client adapt and reach the highest level of functioning B) Assistance in self-care activities to help the client achieve health C) Dynamic process that identifies and meets the client’s health-care needs D) Identifies boundary disruption and helps clients in activities to restore stability.

An ethical code does which of the following?

A) dictates decisions B) provides a framework for decision-making C) sets firm rules D) provides a group of legally binding values

To which individual can the charge nurse delegate the task of completing the history and physical assessment for a newly admitted client?

A) LPN B) CNA, level II C) CNA, level III D) RN

A client sustained a complete C2 spinal cord injury after a motor vehicle crash. He is unable to move bilateral upper and lower extremities. He requires total nursing care including assistance eating, turning, and voiding. Which of the following describes the level of care the nurse provides according to Orem’s self-care model?

A) Partially compensated care B) Supportive developmental care C) Self-care D) Wholly compensated care

Function in nursing informatics focuses on which of the following?

A) A well-articulated theoretical basis to guide the gathering of data B) Areas of research that lead to new knowledge C) The levels of special interest, including technology and concepts of nursing theory D) How the management and processing of information helps nurses enter, organize, or retrieve information

Identify the best method for a nurse to acknowledge a client’s autonomy

A) Incorporate the ethical principle of paternalism into all client care activities B) Follow only the instructions of the client’s family C) Use the ethical principle of best interest when making decisions about the client’s care needs D) Know and understand the state’s laws that address living wills

Select the most appropriate client for the RN to assign to the CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel).

A) A client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube who is receiving continuous tube feedings B) A client with difficulty walking and requires assistance to the bathroom C) A client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids D) A client with a colostomy who requires irrigations

What is best described as the concepts, ideals, behaviors, and significant themes that give meaning to a person’s life?

A) Laws B) Values C) Morals D) Ethics

Which of the following is known as a healing practice that uses the human energy system?

A) Visualization B) Therapeutic Touch C) Hypnosis D) Guided Imagery

The analysis that tracks events leading to error, identifies faulty systems and processes, and develops a plan to prevent further error in a blame-free environment is called:

A) Quality Improvement B) Root Cause Analysis C) Case Management D) Leapfrog

Nurses who learn about another person’s culture is enough to guarantee the nurse will have cultural awareness.

A) False B) True

Using errors as learning opportunities is a key element in building which of the following?

A) Magnet hospital B) Shared decision-making environment C) system of improvements and quality care D) Just culture organization

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates they are appropriate and successful.

A) True B) False

Which of the following is considered the best preferred strategy to dealing with conflict?

A) Choose your battles B) Confront the conflict C) Postpone the conflict D) Ignore the conflict

Which statement made by a nursing student during a class on delegation indicates that the student needs additional study of the topic?

A) “The RN who delegates is also responsible for education about the task to be performed.” B) “When nurses delegate, they are delegating nursing.” C) “Assessing clients is a task of the RN.” D) “The tasks delegated should have expected and predictable outcomes.”

Which statement by a nurse manager during a staff meeting best demonstrates use of an assertive style of communication?

A) “I am the manager and we will do it my way.” B) “You have made some good points, but I have another suggestion.” C) “I’m sorry, but your suggestion was useless to solving the problem.” D) “I really don’t care; do it the way you think is best.”

A physician writes a DNR order for a competent client. Which individual may give permission for this order?

A) The client’s next of kin B) The client C) The client’s spouse D) The client’s only child

A client asks what the Affordable Care Act is. What best explains this act?

A) “The law requires that most of the assets be absorbed.” B) “The law is only for those on Medicare Part D.” C) “The law has been written for those seniors who are under Medicaid.” D) “The law has been written for those of all ages for a positive outcome.”

Clients may develop this when they view that the nurse is an authority figure or expert in health-care matters.

A) Passive Obedience B) Active Obedience C) Health Care Aversion D) Communication Synergy

Which is the principle upon which Nightingale’s spirituality was based?

A) Scientific rationalism B) A sense of a divine intelligence who creates and sustains the cosmos as well as an awareness of her own inner connection with this higher reality C) Adherence to a set of rules of behavior, the participation in prescribed rituals, prayer, and the study of sacred texts D) The beliefs of her Unitarian and Anglican parents

Client Satisfaction is not another way to measure quality of care.

A) False B) True

What is one disadvantage to the electronic health care system that health care workers are concerned about?

A) Computer glitches B) Inexpensive computer systems C) Improved communication D) May be used by multiple users at one time

Which is not part of the role of the forensic correctional nurse?

A) Provide health screenings B) Respond to emergency situations C) Prescribe medications D) Develop health-care plans

The nurse identifies a problem list for the client. Which of the following phases of the nursing process is this a part of?

A) Assessment B) Diagnosis C) Evaluation  D) Planning

What is the federally funded national health insurance program in the United States for people older than 65 years?

A) Medicare B) Exclusive Provider Organization C) Long-term care insurance D) Medicaid

T.S is a 75 year old man who sustained a left hip fracture after a fall. He is normally independent and lives at home with his wife who suffers from dementia. He currently requires a heavy assist of 2 to pivot transfer to a chair. He is not currently ambulating more than a few steps with a walker. His goal is to go back home to help care for his wife. Which of the following is the most appropriate hospital discharge plan for T.S.?

A) Rehabilitation Center B) Long-term care facility C) Home with homecare D) Assisted living

What is the primary reason some nurses have difficulty in their role of managing the needs of the elderly or dying client?

A) Death of a client may indicate that the care they were providing was insufficient B) Their education has focused them on keeping clients alive and promoting health. C) They have an internal conflict in coping with their own fears of death. D) They become very emotional when clients they are caring for die.

What is the most effective method nurses can use to gain power over nursing practice?

A) Confront hospital administrators about inadequate staffing B) Leave the nursing profession when better jobs are available C) Join professional organizations in large numbers D) Use union tactics to increase salaries

The establishment of a professional organization is one of the most important defining characteristics of a profession.

A) False B) True

Why is heritage consistency important to cultural groups?

A) It allows them to advance within the larger culture B) It allows them to retain many of their cultural elements C) It allows them to fit in with the larger culture D) All of the above

Identify the term used when a person lives with consciousness of a reality beyond what is knowable through the five senses and is aware of a transcendent reality.

A) Religion B) Spirituality C) Truth D) Meditation

True or False: Total quality improvement is based upon the organization with the higher-quality service that will capture a greater share of the market than competitors with lower-quality services.

A) False B) True

Which of the following is not a reason the State Board of Nursing may revoke a nursing license?

A) Conviction of a serious crime B) Ethical conduct in the practice of nursing C) Use of illegal drugs while providing client care D) Failure to renew a nursing license while still practicing nursing

What would be a characteristic of the ideal electronic health care record?

A) The system is unique to the institution it resides in. B) It reflects only the past medical history. C) The system reflects the lifelong, continuous record of all care the client has received. D) It depicts the current health status, but does not provide the medical history

The type of reimbursement system that pays a fixed-rate based on diagnosis (or DRG) is called what:

A) Capitated Payment System B) Managed Care Organization C) Preferred Provider Organization D) Prospective Payment System

Which of the following organizations provides nursing with a code of ethics?

A) Institute of Medicine B) Department of Health C) Board of Nursing  D) American Nurses Association

Which of the following reasons is not a reason for the increasing use of alternative and complementary healing practices?

A) Desire for greater control over one’s health B) Traditions passed on from parents C) Belief in the effectiveness of alternative therapies D) Dissatisfaction with conventional health care

Identify the primary driving force behind the development and use of telehealth or telemedicine.

A) Easy access to computers B) Consumer concerns about access to health care C) Increase sophistication of physicians’ computers skills D) Large segments of the population located in congested urban areas

The establishment of a professional organization is insignificant in defining characteristics of a profession.

A) True B) False

A registered nurse (RN) is assigned to a step-down coronary care unit with 20 clients in various stages of recovery. What is the primary consideration in assigning the unit staff that includes two RNs, two licensed practical nurses (LPNs), and one certified nursing assistant (CNA) or UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) ?

A) Skill level of each staff member B) Staff preferences for specific clients C) Distance of client rooms from the nurses’ station D) Developmental needs of clients

What is acute care of sick persons that is provided in hospitals called?

A) Primary intervention B) Assistive intervention C) Secondary intervention D) Tertiary intervention

Identify the characteristics of a task that is to be delegated that would require it to be assigned to an RN.

A) The task is routine in nature and follows hospital policies. B) The client is relatively stable. C) The client requires a dressing change at the beginning of the shift. D) The task requires decision-making to complete it.

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates that they are appropriate and successful.

A) True B) False

Identify the health-care area in which the use of computers has improved the efficiency of care.

A) Physician record keeping B) Interdepartmental communication C) Documentation D) Medication administration

What is a major benefit for the elderly who now have easy access to and use of technology such as the Internet and smartphones?

A) They can reach hospitals and family if they need help. B) They generally are so confused by the technology, they abandon it. C) They have opportunities to obtain screening and treatment that they might not otherwise seek. D) They now have a new source of entertainment to keep their minds active and delay the effects of dementia.

This federally funded program is known for financing a large portion of maternal and child care for the poor.

A) Medicaid B) Medicare C) Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) D) Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)

What is the primary purpose for the development of the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) project?

A) Focus nursing education on competencies to reduce the number of medical errors B) Increase the number of students in nursing programs C) Shift nursing education to a more medical model due to increased client acuity D) Decrease the number of associate degree nursing programs

Which behavior indicates that a nurse, who is forced to confront a conflict situation, is using a submissive approach to communication?

A) Refers the problem to a supervisor B) Confronts the other person loudly and in front of an audience C) Uses the incident as a threat D) Sets up a one-on-one meeting at a specific time

What advantage does the electronic health record system have over traditional paper systems?

A) More portable B) Fewer privacy issues C) Unbreakable D) Reduces redundancy

Question 11: Health Care

NCS 1201 Client Teaching Activity(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 12: Philosophy

PHI-103 Libertarianism vs. Compatibilism Worksheet

Question 13: Philosophy

SCIE1000 Philosophy Essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 14: Philosophy

PHIL 201 Response Paper Mccloskey Article(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 15: Sociology

SOC-102 Bureaucracy essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 16: Computer Studies

Case study 3 assignment IFS(ST. LUKE’S HEALTH CARE SYSTEM(USE AS GUIDE ONLY)

Discussion Questions

Visit the NetMotion Web site (www.netmotionwireless.com) and access and read other Mobility XE success stories. Discuss the patterns that can be observed in the benefits that Mobility XE users have realized via its deployment and use.
Do some Internet research on the security implications of HIPPA requirements for hospital networks. Discuss the major types of security mechanisms that must be in place to ensure hospital compliance with HIPPA requirements.
Do some Internet research on the use of VLANs in hospitals. Summarize the benefits of using VLANs in hospitals and identify examples of how St. Luke’s could further enhance its wireless network by implementing VLANs.

Read the Case Study and answer the “Discussion Points” in a clear but concise way. Be sure to reference all sources cited and use APA formatting throughout.

I prefer you to upload your file in a .docx format – but if you don’t have MS Word- please convert the file to PDF and upload.

Refer to the Case Study Rubrics for more detailed criteria.

Question 17: Computer Science

CIS 525 Week 2 Assignment 1 Agile versus Waterfall

Assignment 1: Agile versus Waterfall

Due Week 2 and worth 110 points

The following resources may be helpful when completing this assignment:

“WATERFALL vs. AGILE METHODOLOGY”(You may also view the article at http://agileintro.wordpress.com/2008/01/04/waterfall-vs-agile-methodology/.)
“Understanding the pros and cons of the Waterfall Model of software development”(You may also view the article at http://www.techrepublic.com/article/understanding-the-pros-and-cons-of-the-waterfall-model-of-software-development/6118423.)
“Transitioning from waterfall to iterative development”(You may also view the article at http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/rational/library/4243.html.)

Agile approach to project management has become more and more popular in recent years. Agile framework is different from traditional waterfall model. It has considerable impact on how projects are planned and executed.

Imagine that you have been assigned as a project manager to manage your company’s e-Commerce Website where customers can browse the company’s products, place orders, and interact with the company’s customer service representatives. Your project must be completed in three (3) months and you have about twelve (12) people in the team. There are three (3) offshore developers in Ireland and two (2) QA testers in Dallas, TX. The rest of the project team and the product owner are in San Diego, CA.

Write a five to six (5-6) page paper in which you:

Compare and contrast agile and Waterfall models of managing a project in the context of building an e-Commerce Website. Include diagrams or tables through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Word or Visio, or an open source alternative such as Dia to show the differences and similarities. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
Evaluate the pros and cons in agile and Waterfall project management in terms of planning and the execution of projects and collaboration among project team members.
Determine whether you would use an “Agile” or “Waterfall” model to manage the project for your company. Support your rationale.
Identify and analyze the major pitfalls and misconceptions inherited in your chosen approach. Propose key actions that you, as a project manager, could take in order to mitigate the risks associated with the previously identified misconceptions.
Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. You may use the resources above or others of your choosing.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Dia and OpenOffice. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Compare and contrast agile project management methods with traditional project management.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in advanced agile project management topics.
Write clearly and concisely about advanced agile project management topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Question 18: Computer Science

DECO2500 Exam2013-human-computer-interaction Set 1 & 2

DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 1

What is the best description of a conceptual model?
A high level description of how a system is organised and how it operates
Interaction paradigms and interaction modes
A diagram showing the mental model of the user and the system

image

The problem space faced by the designer when gathering user requirements.
Which statement best reflects interaction design?
Interaction design is a new discipline
Interaction design is multidisciplinary
Interaction design combines the disciplines of software engineering and psychology
Interaction design is an application of common sense.
What are the elements of the Gulf of Execution?
Information processing elements involved in working out what the system did
Information processing elements involved in working out how to interact with the system
Forming intentions, specifying right action, selecting appropriate interface mechanism.
Processing the interface, interpreting interface information, and assessing information meaning.
How do recent approaches to “embodied interaction” differ from earlier accounts of the role of cognition in humancomputer interaction?
Accounts of interaction focus on the cognitive activity of multiple individuals, not just one individual
Accounts of interaction support cognitive strategies such as annotating and cognitive tracing.
Accounts of interaction put greater emphasis on how emotions are embodied in people.
Accounts of interaction are more grounded in the ways people experience the world through physical interaction.
What was an important early drawback of the Clearboard system by Ishii et al. (1993).
It required people to move to a dedicated video conferencing facility at their workplace
As people moved closer to the board to talk with a remote colleague, the video system no longer picked them up
People found it uncomfortable to interact “looking down” at a colleague.
All of the above.
According to Quintanar (1982) how do users rate an interface/system that gives them personalised feedback?
They rate it as more honest
They rate it as less honest
They rate it as more likeable
They rate it as less likeable.
What is a principal limitation of multimedia as a means for presenting educational material, according to Rogers and Aldrich (1996)?
Learners may fixate on just one medium, such as text, and not process further information available in other media.
Learners may hop between media and only partially process the information in each one
Learners may feel that they are being patronised
Learners may need tools to help them keep track of the information with which they have and have not yet engaged.
Which of the following options best represents the core values of usercentred design, as originally articulated by Gould & Lewis (1985)?
Focusing on users and their tasks in the design process
Measuring progress towards usability goals throughout development
Developing and testing in several cycles
All of the above.
When conducting an investigation with human participants for research or commercial reasons, which provision(s) for consent must be made?
Approval of the research by a properly constituted ethics committee independent of the researchers
Participants informed they do not have to take part if they do not want to
Participants fully informed of their right to withdraw from the investigation without consequences to them
All of the above.
How did Buchenau and Suri (2000) use “experience prototyping” in a study described in Rogers et al. (2011)?
They built a game prototype that broke accessibility rules to make it frustrating for anyone to use
They built a “third age empathy suit” to help designers experience the loss of mobility and sensory perception in the elderly
They used contextual design meetings to get different people’s perspectives on the prototype
Their prototyping gave designers an idea of what wearing a chestimplanted automatic defibrillator might be like.
Which of the following is an important disadvantage of usability laboratory studies?
They emphasize controlled experimentation
They do not capture the context of people’s work or home activities
They do not exercise sufficient control to really understand users’ thinking
They do not directly involve users.
What did physiological monitoring show in the game evaluation study by Mandryk and Inkpen (2004)?
Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
Participants’ heart rate was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer.
Participants’ heart rate was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
According to many experts, how many users should be included in a usability test?
Seven plus or minus two (59 users)
Between 5 and 12, depending on needs
A large enough sample of users to perform statistical tests
At least 10 users.
What is the fundamental insight underlying the “cognitive walkthough” method of evaluation?
The idea that cognitive processes are the most important aspect of the user experience
The idea that users can sometimes be left out of evaluation
The idea that users learn by exploring an interface
The idea that experts need to work handinhand with users to develop an optimal user experience.

DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 2

Which of the following is a better example of a user experience goal than a usability goal?
Effectiveness
Learnability
Helpfulness
Safety.
What is an “affordance” according to Norman (1999):
Property of an object that indicates to people how to use the object.
The return on investment of the usercentred design process.
The opportunity cost of not using usercentred design.
An instruction on an interface signalling how to use the interface.
According to Rogers et al. (2011) what was the primary reason for the success of the iPod?
Powerful functionality
User experience
Access to content
Conceptual design.
Which is the best definition of an interaction paradigm?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
Which is the best definition of an interaction mode?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
Which is the best definition of an interface metaphor?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)
The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
What interaction paradigm did the Xerox Star use?
Conversation
Knowledge of a physical desktop
Embedded computing
Windows, Icons, Mouse, and Pointer (WIMP).
Which of the following is the most likely interface metaphor used by a smart phone calendar function?
Restaurant menu
Touchscreen interface
A paper diary
Mobile technology.
What is the principal interaction mode for a Wii system?
Gesture and body movements
Haptic (touch) interface
Exploring and browsing
Infrared position detection.
Which of the following is a design implication of our understanding of human attention?
Tactile feedback should make the same kinds of distinctions that a person would feel in the world (e.g. pushing vs. pulling)
Text should be legible and distinguishable from its background under different lighting conditions.
Avoid cluttering the interface with more information than is needed at the present moment for the user.
Sounds should be audible and distinguishable.
Why is Miller’s (1956) theory that our working memory can hold 7 +/ 2 items of information not a useful design guideline for number of menu items, tool bar icons, etc?
We can scan such items: we don’t need to remember them
People can actually hold much less than 7 +/ 2 items in memory
People can actually hold much more than 7 +/ 2 items in memory
This was not Miller’s theory – it was Norman’s theory.
What issue do Rogers et al. (2011) raise about contextaware reminding systems such as comMotion (Marmasse & Schmandt, 2000)?
Context is hard to define
The kind of reminding such systems provide is probably more useful to those with memory problems than to those with normal memory
Such systems are cumbersome to carry and may distract the user from other tasks that they are doing.
The comMotion system does not have a good mental model of the user.
What was the feature of the Hydra system that distinguished it from other telepresence/teleconferencing systems?
It embedded a robot in the remote location to interact with remote colleagues in different locations.
It created a video wall that allowed people in two remotely located common rooms to interact with each other informally.
It used the principle of “translucence” to make the participants and their activities more visible to all participants.
The spatial arrangement of Hydra units created a spatial layout of face images and speech sounds that could happen in a physical environment.
What is affective computing? Select the best answer.
Computing that produces interfaces than engage human emotions.
Computing that produces interfaces in an efficient manner.
Interfaces that apologize to their users
Interfaces that look and behave like people.
The character Rea is an example of what?
A realestate agent
A zoomorphic interface
A persuasive technology
An embodied agent.
Based on informal tests, what was the most effective way in which the WaterBot system change domestic water usage?
By coloring the water when usage was high
By providing a colored graph that indicated a person’s water use
By sounding chimes when water usage was high
None of the above.
Which is the best example of triangulation in data gathering?
Collecting information about designer’s model, user’s mental model, and system image.
Using different theories with which to interpret data.
Using multiple researchers in a usercentred evaluation.
Collecting data from users in different ways with different methods.
What is a disadvantage of unstructured interviews for gathering

information about users’ tasks?

Information about how tasks are actually performed, rather than ideally performed, may be gathered.
Answers to all potentially relevant questions may not be gathered.
The data collected are rich and complex.
Different interviewees may give different answers to the questions.
What is a disadvantage of using focus groups to elicit user requirements?
Users may not be able to articulate what their requirements are.
Diverse or sensitive issues may be raised.
People don’t necessarily respond the same way in a test as they would do in real life.
Differences of opinion may emerge that confuse the requirements gathering process.
A question format that collects users’ opinions on a verbal scale (eg.,

strongly disagree to strongly agree) is called what?

A psychometric scale
A Likert scale
A questionnaire
An openresponse questionnaire item.
What is a “participant observer”
An observer who partly participates in the activity they are observing.
A participant who observes the activity they are participating in.
An observer who watches participants.
A participant who watches observers.
Which set of properties best characterises an “ethnographic” study?
Participant observation, cultural engagement, collection of diverse forms of evidence and data
Participant observation, scientific objectivity, removal of cultural bias
“Anthropological strangeness”, collection of audiovisual data.
Use of the model human processor to analyse findings.
What was an important feature of the process by which the Mobiphos photograph sharing application (Patel et al., 2009) was evaluated?
Agile programming methods were interlaces with iterative user testing.
Four different data gathering techniques were used.
Participatory design was used.
Vibrations indicated the arrival of new photos in the application.
In the following data set, which number is the mode? 4 5 5 5 6 7 8 8
5
5.5
6
None of the above.
What is an affinity diagram?
A diagram showing the degree of connection between people in social networks
A diagram used to show people’s cultural affinities or sense of belonging to groups.
A diagram that organises individual ideas and insights into a hierarchy showing themes.
A variant of a tag cloud that is generated from thinkaloud protocols.
Select the best way of analysing qualitative user comments collected during a user test.
Classify the comments into categories and count number of comments in each category.
Find the average and the standard deviation of the data and report it in the body of the report.
Use a scatterplot to graph users on the x axis and comments on the y axis.
Look for critical incidents to report.
What are web analytics?
Online methods for performing usability tests through the cloud.
Webbased methods for performing analysis of video records and electronic logs of user interaction
Webbased methods for performing statistical analysis of data, using tools such as SPSS.
Online methods for analysing and visualising patterns of visiting a website, viewing pages, etc..
How would a researcher perform an analysis of user data from the perspective of Activity Theory?
Classify user comments according to the tool, subject, object, community, rules, division of labor, and outcome expressed.
Classify user comments according to the representational state or medium the user is handling at each point in time.
Analyse data in successive passes, including open coding, axial coding, and selective coding.
Try to determine the mental model of the user on the basis of the activity they are carrying out.
Which of the following is not one of Saffer’s (2010) four approaches to

interaction design?

Usercentred design
Systems design
Genius design
Conceptual design.
Should endusers always have a high degree of participation in software development?
Yes: the fundamental principle of interaction design is early involvement of endusers, which should be universally applied.
Not always: different levels of participant are warranted for different kinds of projects and different project stages.
Never: endusers do not know how to articulate their own requirements and do not necessarily have enough technical expertise
None of the above.
What is the Volere shell?
An operating system similar to Unix.
A template for specifying system requirements.
A framework for defining personas and scenarios
A template for creating cultural probe packages.
What is Contextual Inquiry?
A component of Contextual Design.
A way of asking about user context for awareness applications.
Participant observation in relevant use contexts
A component of Contextual Embodiment Theory.
“An informal narrative description of human activities or tasks in a story that allows exploration and discussion of contexts, needs, and requirements”. This best describes which of the following?
Use case
Essential use case
Storyboard
Scenario.
Which of the following is a problem with lowlevel prototyping?
Testers tend to comment on superficial aspects and not content.
They take too long to build.
User expectations can be set too high.
None of the above.
What is the most important property that a prototype should have?
It should support a wide range of user tests.
It should look like the final product.
It should allow the key design concepts to be tested with users.
It should be easy to throw away.
Where would a cardbased prototype best fit in the design process?
After conceptual design, before scenario design
After scenario design, before storyboarding.
After storyboarding, before lowlevel prototyping.
After lowlevel prototyping, before highlevel prototyping.
What kind of activity does the D.E.C.I.D.E. acronym support?
Planning and conducting an evaluation and analysing the data.
Conducting user tests.
Deciding what kind of prototype to use for user tests.
Deciding whether to perform empirical or analytical evaluations.
You are running a user test session and your participant wants to leave half way through the session. What do you do?
Ask them to stay until the end as planned, so you can collect your

data.

After ensuring they do not need medical help, let them leave, with your thanks.
Offer them an incentive payment to encourage them to finish the session.
Refuse to let them leave until they have finished the session.
Which professional groups are most appropriately involved in preparation and performance of the classic kind of cognitive walkthrough?
End users and designers
Designers and usability experts
Usability experts and marketing personnel
Designers and marketing personnel.
How was the GOMS (Goals, Operators, Methods, Selection rules) used in Project Ernestine (Gray et al., 1993)?
GOMS allowed researchers to predict how long it would take telephone operators to use a new computer interface.
GOMS predicted the errors that telephone operators would make before the operators used the new software.
GOMS predicted the increase in mental workload experienced by the telephone operators
Interface metaphors.

Question 19: Mathematics

MAT 510 Week 11 Final Exam | Complete

Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
Question 13 Process models are used to:
Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

Question 20: Business

ACCT1501 Practice Exam Questions & Solutions

QUESTION 1 (6 Marks)Bank Reconciliation

The following information is given about Nadak Co.:

The August 31 balance shown on the bank statement is $9,810.
There is a deposit in transit of $1,260 at August 31.
Outstanding cheques at August 31 totalled $1,890.
A bank charge of $40 for cheques was made to the account during August, as shown on the bank statement. Although the company was expecting a charge, its amount was not known until the bank statement arrived.
In the process of reviewing the cheques, it was determined that a cheque issued to a supplier in payment of accounts payable of $361 had been recorded as $631.
The August 31 balance in the general ledger Cash account, before reconciliation, is $8,950.

Required:

Part A: Prepare a bank reconciliation as of August 31, 2011.(4 marks)

Part B: Prepare any necessary adjusting journal entries.(2 marks)

QUESTION 2 (9 Marks) Financial Reporting Principles, Accounting Standards and Auditing, & Sustainability Reporting

Provide short answers to the following:

What are generally accepted accounting principles?(2 Marks)
Going concern assumption is one of the key assumptions to financial reports. What is going concern assumption? Why is assumption important in the preparation of financial statements?(4 marks)
Describe Scope 1 and Scope 2 emissions and provide an example for each of them. (3 marks)

QUESTION 3 Financial Statement Analysis (8 marks)

BPS Ltd, a supplier of telecommunications equipment, retails its products through suburban outlets. Shown below are the calculations of some of its key financial ratios for 2011 and 2012.

2012 2011

Return on Equity 13% 12%

Return on Assets 8% 9%

Profit margin 20 18%

Asset turnover 0.40 0.50

Days in inventory 72 days 55 days

Days in debtors 42 days 42 days

Current ratio 1.6 1.5

Quick ratio 0.7 1.1

Debt-to-Equity ratio 1.4 1.0

Return on Equity Operating Profit after Tax/ Shareholders’ Equity

Return on Assets Operating Profit after Tax/Total Assets

Financial Leverage Total Assets/Total Shareholders’ Equity

Profit Margin Earnings Before Interest and Tax/Sales

Asset Turnover Sales/Total Assets

Days in Inventory Average Inventory/ COGS x 365

Days in Debtors Average Trade Debtors/Credit Sales x 365

Current Ratio Current Assets/Current Liabilities

Quick Ratio Current Assets – Inventory/Current Liabilities

Debt to Equity Ratio Total Liabilities/Total Shareholders’ Equity

Required

Analyse BPS’s profitability, asset management,liquidity and financial structure for 2012 using the ratio information.

QUESTION 4 (15 marks)Control Accounts

Rupert Ltd maintains subsidiary ledgers for debtors and creditors. At 31 May 2014, the debtors control account has a debit balance of $50,120 and the creditors control account has a credit balance of $30,670. An extract of totals from the special journals for the month of June 2014 is as follows:

Credit sales

86,500

Cash sales

6,100

Credit purchases

93,200

Cash received from debtors

67,800

Cash paid to creditors

55,890

Cash purchases

4,300

Discount received from

7,500

creditors

Discount allowed to debtors

3,500

Complete the debtors and creditors control accounts as they would appear in the general ledger.

QUESTION 5 ADJUSTING ENTRIES AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS (23 Marks)

The following pre-adjusted trial balance has been prepared for Sydney Company as at 30 June 2014 (for the 12 months beginning on 1 July 2013):

DR CR

$ $

Bank Overdraft 10,000

Accounts Receivable 200,000

Allowance for Doubtful Debts 1,000

Inventory 100,000

Prepaid Rent 10,000

Property, Plant and 450,000

Equipment

Accumulated Depreciation – PPE 200,000

Accounts Payable 60,000

Bank loan 50,000

Contributed Capital 310,000

Retained Profit at 1 July 2013 34,000

Sales revenue 4,50,000

Cost of Goods Sold 265,000

Interest Expense 5,000

Wages Expenses 80,000

Rent Expense 5,000

The following information is given which may give rise to year end adjustments:

Depreciation on Property, Plant and Equipment is provided for on a straight line basis at 10% per annum, and it is assumed that it will have no salvage value.
The balance in Prepaid Rent relates to the 12 month period from 1 January 2014 to 31 December 2014.
An ageing analysis shows that $4,000 of Accounts Receivable is estimated to be uncollectible.
On 30 June 2014, the directors declared a dividend of $5,000, which the shareholders authorised. The dividend is to be paid on 15 September 2014.
It is discovered that $10,000 cash received during the year and credited to sales are actually related to services to be delivered in July 2014.
$5,000 of wages relating to June 2014 have not been paid and need to be accrued.

Part A (12 Marks)

Prepare journal entries for the necessary end of period adjustments.

Part B (7 Marks)

Prepare an Income Statement for the year ended 30 June 2014:

Part C (4 Marks)

In the Balance Sheet as at 30 June 2014, what would be the closing balance of retained profits? Show all workings.

QUESTION 6 (15 marks) Inventory

The following information relates to inventory transactions of Promises Ltd for the month ending 30 June 2014:

Date Cash Purchases Cash Sales Balance

1 June 100 units @ $10

10 June 80 units @ $12

18 June 140 units @ $20

25 June 30 units @ $14

30 June 50 units @ $25

Promises Ltd uses FIFO (first-in-first-out) and perpetual inventory control.

Calculate the cost of goods sold based on the costs of units sold. (3 Marks)

Prepare the journal entries for inventory purchases and cost of sales for the month of June 2014. (12 Marks)

3 MARKS FOR THE CALCULATION

4 MARKS: 2 MARKS EACH FOR INVENTORY PURCHASE JOURNALS

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 18 JUNE

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 30 JUNE

QUESTION 7 (10Marks) Noncurrent assets

On 1 July 2011, Promises Ltd purchased equipment at a cost of $150,000. The equipment is depreciated using the reducing balance method at the rate of 40% per annum.

Prepare the journal entries for depreciation for each year 30 June 2012, 30 June 2013 and 30 June 2014. (9 Marks)

What is the book value of the equipment at 30 June 2014? (1 Mark)

3 MARKS EACH FOR EACH JOURNAL (NO HALF MARKS)

1 MARK FOR BOOK VALUE (ALLOWANCE FOR CARRYFORWARD ERRORS)

Question 8 Management Accounting and Cost Concepts (13.5 marks)

Part A (2 marks)

For each of the items 1-4 in the table below, indicate whether the item is a product cost or a period cost

Item Cost Classification

1)A food retailer purchases milk for resale

2)Depreciation of head office computers

3)Salaries of production line workers for a

manufacturer

4)Advertising costs to promote a manufacturer’s

½ mark each entry

Part B (9.5 marks)

Bandcamp Ltd manufactures guitars. In the month of January 2014, Bandcamp Ltd recorded:

direct labour cost of $200 000
raw materials purchased of $400 000
total overhead cost of $500 000.

The following information was supplied by Bandcamp Ltd’s accountant about the opening and closing inventory:

31 January 1 January

(ending) (beginning)

Raw materials inventory $80 000 $95 000

Work in progress inventory $110 000 $60 000

Finished goods inventory $255 000 $75 000

Required:

Prepare a cost of goods manufactured statement for January 2014.
Prepare a cost of goods sold statement for January 2014.

Part C (2 marks)

Tree & Woods Corp., an international furniture company, manufactures and sells furniture of unique natural material. In 2010, the company sold all 25,000 chairs that it produced at $200 each. Total costs amounted to $3,300,000 comprised of $1,300,000 variable costs and $2,000,000 fixed costs. In 2011, the company purchases a new saw mill for $110,000. The useful life is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of $10,000. Each year, the same amount of depreciation expense is recorded. The usage of the new saw mill allows Tree & Woods to reduce variable costs for producing one chair by $7. All other costs remain the same as in 2010.

What was Tree & Woods Corp.’s break-even point in number of units in 2010?

Question 9 – MCQ practice questions

You have seen samples of MCQ in the lectures and in your quiz attempts.

Question 21: Business

MKTG1280 Sample Practice-Exam-2016-Chapter-1-10

Question 22: Business

HTF 201 Part 1 & 2 Questions(Answered)

Part 1: Multiple Choice Questions (50 Credits)

A restaurant manager notes that actual labor costs exceed the expected labor costs for the volume of business during the week. The manager calls a management meeting to discuss the situation and, if necessary, take corrective action to prevent excessive labor costs for upcoming weeks. Which of the following management functions best describes the kind of work that the management team will be performing?

planning
staffing
controlling
organizing

Effective control systems can help food and beverage managers:

identify mistakes and plan tactics to correct them.
create a mission statement.
identify new menu items to offer.
define strategic objectives.

Which of the following statements about the role of standards in the control process is TRUE?

Industry averages are the best source of information for establishing standards.
Financial standards should always be set on the basis of past financial statements.

Standards can be established for revenue goals and sales targets as well as for employee attendance and safety records.

Standards are effective only if they state an expected level of performance for individual employees.

Robert, the newly hired manager at the independently owned Seasons Restaurant, has discovered that calculations of actual food costs include the cost of providing employee meals. However, employee meals are not included as costs in establishing the restaurant’s standard food costs. Which of the following principles of developing an effective control process has been violated?

Information about actual operating results must be simple and easy to collect.

Actual information must be collected in a manner consistent with the procedures and formats used to establish performance standards.
Checks on the controls should be part of the control system itself.

Actual information generated for control purposes should be compatible with the formats used in accounting systems.

A shopper service is a(n):

service offered by many businesses to assist guests who are unable to visit the operation in person.

Internet-based buying service that offers managers greater control of the purchasing and receiving function.
system of supply in which vendors automatically resupply the restaurant on a schedule

determined by the food and beverage manager.

control tactic that involves observing and reporting the actual operations of a business.

The cost effectiveness of a control system is measured by:

comparing the cost of implementing the control system with the cost reductions achieved by using the system.

evaluating how well the control system helps identify what corrective action is necessary to bring actual operating results closer to established standards of performance.
assessing the timeliness by which control information is made available to managers.

determining if the control system gives priority to factors that are most relevant to attaining the operation’s goals.

Service has been slow at the Season’s Restaurant. The manager has traced the problem to the flow of products from the storeroom to production areas. Which of the following control points is likely to be the focus of corrective action?

preparing
serving
issuing
storing
purchasing

A formula for producing a food and beverage item is called a(n):

product specification.
portion control percentage.
algorithm.
standard recipe.

Which of the following control tools links a restaurant’s suppliers and receiving staff, ensuring that the proper quality of products is available for food production and service?

yield percentage worksheets
standard purchase specifications
standard recipes
standard portion size specifications

If the original yield for a standard recipe is 25 portions and the desired yield is 125 portions, what is the adjustment factor?

To produce a desired yield of 20 pounds from a standard recipe with a standard yield of 5 pounds, the amount of each recipe ingredient used should be multiplied by:

5.0.
4.0.
0.4.
0.25
The information is not enough

Which of the following budgeting processes ensures that plans are specifically geared to individual operations within multi-unit food service companies?

reforecasting
bottom-up budgeting
top-down budgeting
mark-up budgeting

Which of the following is most likely to be classified as a variable cost?

general manager’s salary
rent expense
property taxes
food costs

At the 120-seat Riverside Restaurant, total variable costs for September were $12,000. For October, the manager expects to sell 10 percent more meals than in September. If the increase in sales volume occurs, the manager should expect the total fixed costs for October to be:

lower than in September.
higher than in September.
relatively the same as in September.
impossible to forecast with any accuracy.

At the Virtual Cafe, the average price per meal sold is $15 with an average variable cost of $7. Fixed costs for July are expected to be $30,000. If the restaurant manager expects to sell 5,000 meals in July, the net income (or loss) for the month would be:

$25,000 net income.
$10,000 net income.
$0 (breakeven).
$10,000 net loss.
The information isn’t enough

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor influencing decisions to change a menu?

consumer demand
menu mix
supply levels
competition

A chicken dinner has a standard food cost of $3.50. If a 30-percent food cost is desired, what would be the base selling price using the ingredients mark-up method?

$11.67
$12.60
$14.76
cannot be determined

According to the information in the following table answer the questions from 18 to 20.

RU Prime-rib burger

10 Servings

Purchase

Cost/Purchase

Ingredient

Amount Needed

Unit

ground prime rib

lb.

10-lb box

$60.00

crispy fried onions

cup

1 gallon

$32.00

Worcestershire sauce

cup

1 gallon*

$16.00

pre-sliced mushrooms

#10 can

6 #10/case

$18.00

hamburger buns

a dozen

$6.00

spreadable cheddar cheese

lb.

5 lb.

$15.00

*1 gallon = 16 cups

The standard portion cost of the ground prime rib is:

$5.40
$1.80
$2.00
$6.00

The standard portion cost of each prime-rib burger is

$3.40
$14.70
$3.50
$3.20

If the budgeted food cost is 35%, according to the ingredients markup pricing method, the base selling price for this menu item should be:

$5.14
$10.00
$9.14
$9.71
cannot be determined

After analyzing menu items, the management team at the Sports Bar & Grill decided that they could increase the prices of several menu items, sell fewer of them, but increase overall revenues. The demand for these menu items would best be characterized as:

inelastic.
high.
elastic.
low.

The corporate management team of a theme restaurant chain recently evaluated the chain’s menu items and identified several puzzles. Which of the following would be reasonable strategies for the management team to adopt in relation to these items?

Decrease prices.
Place the items in more visible locations on the menu.
Shift demand to these items by using suggestive selling techniques.
All of the above are reasonable strategies.
None of the above are reasonable strategies.

Menu engineering classifies menu items that are low in popularity and low in contribution margin as:

puzzles.
plowhorses.
stars.
dogs.

The Night Owl Restaurant expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. Total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000. The average selling price per meal sold at the breakeven point would be:

$10.

The Daylight Diner expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. If total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000, what would the average selling price per meal sold be if the operation is to meet its $12,000 profit goal for the month?

In relation to the food service purchasing cycle, which of the following positions is generally responsible for completing an issue requisition when items are needed in food production areas?

chef
purchasing agent
receiving agent
storeroom clerk

Which of the following terms describes a series of records, documents, or reports that trace the flow of resources through an operation?

purchase specification
audit trail
delivery invoice
inventory checklist

In relation to the purchasing function, the term quality refers to:

highest price.
popularity of a menu item.
suitability for intended use.
greatest value.

A stockout can occur as a result of:

employing a perpetual inventory system.
over-purchasing.
inadequate menu engineering.
under-purchasing.

With the minimum/maximum ordering system, the quantity of the order point of an item in storage is determined by the:

usage rate plus the minimum level.
usage rate plus the lead-time quantity.
lead-time quantity plus the safety level.
lead-time quantity minus the safety level.

According to the information in the table below, minimum/maximum ordering system is used in determining the quantity of the purchase order, answer the questions from 30 to 32:

Purchase unit

10-lb poly bag (frozen chicken)

Usage rate

100 lb per day

Order period

5 days

Lead time

1 day

Safety level

100 lb

The order point quantity of this item should be at:
100lb
200lb
300lb

Question 6: Business

Instruction:

Now that you have had an opportunity to learn about our lesson subject matter it is now time for you to complete your Poster Project

Remember the target audience for the poster. The poster should demonstrate knowledge of the particular topic or event being talked about (promoted), and its importance to the society and culture as well as an understanding of this subject matter. Your poster should be colourful and well laid out. The poster should demonstrate thoughtful consideration and careful planning.

assess the challenges facing a business that wants to market a product internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

compare the approaches taken by various companies to market their products internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

demonstrate an understanding of the logistics of, and challenges associated with, distribution to local, national, and international markets

Question 7: Health Care

Instruction

In a 2- to 3-page essay, answer the following questions: List and describe five elements of system control. What happens if one of these systems is skipped or not specifically addressed? Provide evidence from personal examples. As a healthcare manager, how will you ensure these issues are addressed? Support your opinions with evidence from your prior learning experiences and external, peer-reviewed sources available through the WCU Library. You may cite particular courses or readings from prior coursework in your paper. Your paper should be 2–3 pages in length and follow current APA formatting and citation.

Question 8: Health Care

Instruction

In this activity, you are expanding a business into an international market by examining economic systems and choosing appropriate entry modes based on host country circumstances. Click the link below to access the activity. After completing the activity, click the button to download the PDF file and attach it to this assignment. Write a reflection in which you address the following: What did you learn about entrepreneurship during this activity? Provide a detailed real-world example of a situation in which you could apply these concepts. Your reflection should be 1–2 pages in length, include evidence or information from at least one credible source, and follow APA formatting and citation.

400lb

The purchase units (bag) should be ordered at the order point are:

The number of pounds at the maximum inventory level would be:

500lb
600lb
300lb
200lb

Which of the following best characterizes the purchasing function of franchisees of a multi-unit food and beverage company?

Franchisees may purchase products such as fresh produce and bakery items locally, but must buy all other items from the franchisor company.
Franchisees are required to purchase all products—regardless of type—from their franchisors.

Franchisees are not required to purchase products from specific sources such as company commissaries, but they are required by franchisors to adhere to company-developed specifications in products purchased from any supplier.

As part of their agreement with franchisors, franchisees are permitted to purchase both food and non-food products for their operation from any supplier without restriction.

Ownership of product is transferred from the supplier to the food and beverage operation when the receiving employee signs the:

delivery invoice.
daily receiving report.
purchase order.
standard purchase specification sheet.

To help make the receiving function secure and efficient, the physical transfer of food and beverage products to the storage area should be the responsibility of:

supplier delivery personnel.
assigned staff from the property.
the food and beverage controller.
either a or c above.

How would fresh meats be categorized by an ABCD inventory classification system?

Class A: high in perishability and high in cost per serving
Class B: low in perishability and high in cost per serving
Class C: high in perishability and low in cost per serving
Class D: low in perishability and low in cost per serving

Which of the following statements about food products classified as “directs” is TRUE?

Usage rates and inventory levels determine the purchasing pattern for directs.
Directs are recorded in inventory records.

Directs are considered part of the food costs for the day on which they are received and stored.
Directs are controlled by a minimum/maximum inventory system.

Which of the following food service control points links receiving and issuing functions?

issuing
storing
purchasing
accounting

When a distributor shreds whole cabbages and places the shredded cabbage in bags for sale to restaurants, the distributor has added __________ value to the product.

form
time
informational
place

According to the reading: Food Distribution, which of the following is not a distribution alternative in theory?

Self-distribution
Order from national or regional broad-line distributors
Developing a primary-vendor relationship with a broad-line distributor
Contracting for delivery with a systems specialist
Catalog online ordering

Answer the questions 41 and 42 based on the following table.

Physical Inventory

Type of Products _____________________ Month _______________

Amount in

product

Storage unit

storage

purchase cost

ground beef

10-lb bag

6 bags

2.55/lb

canned peaches

6#10/cs

3-3/6 cs

39.00/cs

flour

50 lb/bag

2 bags

24.10/bag

In the table above, “3-3/6 cs” denotes

3.83 cases
3.50 cases
3.36 cases
3.30 cases

According to the table above, the total value of the physical inventory is:

$212.87
$200.00
$194.54
$192.20
$337.70

Several yield tests for roasting rounds of beef have been carefully undertaken. A summary of results (average per round) follows:

As purchased (AP) Weight = 22lb 8 oz

Servable (EP) weight = 18 lb

Cost (AP) = $8.00 per lb

According to the above test results, answer the questions from 43 -45

The cost per servable pound is:

$10.13

$10.00
$8.00
Cannot determine

How many pounds of rounds should be purchased for a weekend event being planned for 275 guests, if the edible portion served on each plate should weighs 6 oz?

129 lb

131 lb
103 lb
Cannot determine.

If the purchase price (AP) per pound raises to $10, the cost of servable pound is:

$12.00

$ 11.00
$12.50
$ 11.50

Perpetual Inventory

Product Name: Frozen lobsters (case)

Carried forward: __0______

Date

Out

Balance

1/7

1/9

1/10

1/12

1/15

According to the perpetual inventory sheet shown above, there should be ______ cases in the inventory on Jan. 15.

Part II. Short Answer ( 24 credits)

What are the major differences between restaurants within hotels and freestanding restaurants (2 credits)? How these differences may create unique operation challenges to the food service operations within lodging facilities (2 credits)?
The following are the main factors suggested to consider when designing cost control systems for food operations. Circle ONLY five of them and explain how these factors should be considered when designing food cost control systems for a restaurant. (5 credits)
(1) What is a purchase specification (1 credit) ? (2) What essential piece of information must a written purchase specification include (3 credits) ? (3) Write a purchase specification for a RU Dinning menu item ingredient, beef patty, used for the Prime Rib burger (2 credits); (4) list the major benefits of developing a purchase specification for a food and beverage operation. (3 credits)
Select any one of the following control points and describe in details what an ideal cost control system should be for this control point (including control methods, measures, standards and standard procedures, if it is used for an independent freestanding restaurant (6 credits).

Question 23: Business

MGT 498 Final Exam Answers | Complete

1) In a survey of 50 corporations, which of the following was rated as a benefit of strategic management?

2) Research suggests that strategic management evolves through four sequential phases in corporations. The first phase is

3) Strategic management is that set of managerial decisions and actions that determine the long-run performance of a corporation. Which one of the following is NOT one of the basic elements of the strategic management process?

4) The relationship among the board of directors, top management, and shareholders is referred to as

5) The concept that proposes private corporations have responsibilities to society that extend beyond making a profit is known as

6) Who said that the social responsibility of business is a “fundamentally subversive doctrine” and that the one social responsibility of business is “to use its resources and engage in activities designed to increase its profits so long as it stays with the rules of the game…”?

7) Which of the following is NOT descriptive of external environmental scanning?

8) According to Porter, the corporation is most concerned with

9) When a company determines a competency’s competitive advantage, Barney refers to this issue as

10) An acronym for the assessment of the external and internal environments of the business corporation in the process of strategy formulation/strategic planning is

11) In the development of a SFAS matrix, the first step is to

12) The technique that illustrates how management can match the external opportunities and threats with its strengths and weaknesses to yield four sets of strategic alternatives is called a (an)

13) Which strategy specifies the firm’s overall direction in terms of its general orientation toward growth, the industries or markets in which it competes, and the manner in which it coordinates activities and transfers resources among business units?

14) Continuous improvement is an operations concept developed in

15) The process by which a firm approaches its cross-border activities and those of competitors, and plans to approach them in the future, is called

16) What question must managers ask concerning the relationship between economic logic and international strategy?

How does our international strategy contribute to the economic logic of our business and corporate strategies?

17) Which strategy is developed to pull together the various activities and competencies of each department so that corporate and business unit performance improves and resource productivity is maximized?

18) The strategy that deals with product and process innovation and improvement is known as a ________ strategy.

19) The hiring of new people with new skills, firing of people with inappropriate or substandard skills, and/or training existing employees to learn new skills are included the process of

20) The strategy implementation tool used to determine what actions are going to be taken, by whom, during what time frame, and with what expected results is called a(n)

21) Executives with a particular mix of skills and experiences may be classified as an executive type and paired with

22) According to the text, what is the “key” to effective management of change in culture?

23) The sum total of the activities and choices required for the execution of a strategic plan is known as in

24) Who typically implements strategy in large, multi-industry corporations?

25) Which one of the following is NOT a part of the evaluation and control of performance?

26) The end result of activity is known as

27) Which is the MOST commonly used measure of corporate performance (in terms of profit)?

28) Because of the belief that accounting-based numbers such as ROI, ROE, and EPS are not reliable indicators of a corporation’s economic value, which method of corporate performance is now preferred?

29) Which company experienced a tarnished reputation and scandal after experiencing behavior substitution when employees altered their behavior on the job to fit the reward system?

30) Suboptimization occurs when

Question 24: Business

ACC 349 Final Exam | Complete Solution

1) What is the best way to handle manufacturing overhead costs in order to get the most timely job cost information?

The company should add actual manufacturing overhead costs to jobs as soon as the overhead costs are incurred.
B. The company should determine an allocation rate as soon as the actual costs are known, and then apply manufacturing overhead to jobs.
C. The company should account for only the direct production costs.
D. The company should apply overhead using an estimated rate throughout the year.

2) At the end of the year, manufacturing overhead has been over applied. What occurred to create this situation?

The company incurred more manufacturing overhead costs than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
B. The actual manufacturing overhead costs were less than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
C. The company incurred more total job costs than the amount budgeted for the job.
D. Estimated manufacturing overhead was less than actual manufacturing overhead costs.

3) Luca Company overapplied manufacturing overhead during 2006. Which one of the following is part of the year end entry to dispose of the overapplied amount assuming the amount is material?

A decrease to work in process inventory
B. A decrease to applied overhead
C. An increase to finished goods
D. An increase to cost of goods sold

4) Which of the following would be accounted for using a job order cost system?

The production of textbooks
B. The production of town homes
C. The pasteurization of milk
D. The production of cans of spinach

5) Which one of the following is NEVER part of recording the issuance of raw materials in a job order cost system?

Debit Manufacturing Overhead
B. Debit Finished Goods Inventory
C. Debit Work in Process Inventory
D. Credit Raw Materials Inventory

6) What is unique about the flow of costs in a job order cost system?

It involves accumulating material, labor, and manufacturing overhead costs as they are incurred in order to determine the job cost.
B. Each job is costed separately in a Work in Process subsidiary ledger.
C. Job costs cannot be measured until all overhead costs are determined.
D. There are no costs remaining in Work in Process at year end.

7) Which one of the following costs would be included in manufacturing overhead of a lawn mower manufacturer?

The cost of the fuel lines that run from the motor to the gas tank
B. The cost of the wheels
C. Depreciation on the testing equipment
D. The wages earned by motor assemblers

8) What broad functions do the management of an organization perform?

Planning, directing, and controlling
B. Directing, manufacturing, and controlling
C. Planning, directing, and selling
D. Planning, manufacturing, and controlling

9) Which of the following represents the correct order in which inventories are reported on a manufacturer’s balance sheet?

Work in process, finished goods raw materials
B. Raw materials, work in process, finished goods
C. Finished goods, work in process, raw materials
D. Work in process, raw materials, finished goods

10) In traditional costing systems, overhead is generally applied based on

machine hours
B. direct labor
C. direct material dollars
D. units of production

11) An activity that has a direct cause-effect relationship with the resources consumed is a(n)

overhead rate
B. product activity
C. cost driver
D. cost pool

12) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with

computing the activity-based overhead rate
B. analyzing the activities performed to manufacture a product
C. identifying the activity-cost pools
D. assigning manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products

13) Which of the following factors would suggest a switch to activity-based costing?

Overhead costs constitute a significant portion of total costs.
B. Production managers use data provided by the existing system.
C. Product lines similar in volume and manufacturing complexity.
D. The manufacturing process has been stable.

14) All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT that

the objective of installing ABC in service firms is different than it is in a manufacturing firm
B. the general approach to identifying activities and activity cost pools is the same in a service company as in a manufacturing company
C. activity-based costing has been widely adopted in service industries
D. a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs in service industries

15) What sometimes makes implementation of activity-based costing difficult in service industries is

identifying activities, activity cost plus, and cost drivers
B. attempting to reduce or eliminate nonvalue-added activities
C. the labeling of activities as value-added
D. that a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs

16) One of Astro Company’s activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?

$60,000
B. $90,000
C. $150,000
D. $75,000

17) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Mini A using activity-based costing is

$1,536,000
B. $1,664,000
C. $1,920,000
D. $1,200,000

18) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Maxi B using activity-based costing is

$1,536,000
B. $1,664,000
C. $2,000,000
D. $1,280,000

19) Seran Company has contacted Truckel Inc. with an offer to sell it 5,000 of the wickets for $18 each. If Truckel makes the wickets, variable costs are $11 per unit. Fixed costs are $12 per unit; however, $5 per unit is avoidable. Should Truckel make or buy the wickets?

Buy; savings = $10,000
B. Make; savings = $20,000
C. Make; savings = $10,000
D. Buy; savings = $25,000

20) Rosen, Inc. has 10,000 obsolete calculators, which are carried in inventory at a cost of $20,000. If the calculators are scrapped, they can be sold for $1.10 each (for parts). If they are repackaged, at a cost of $15,000, they could be sold to toy stores for $2.50 per unit. What alternative should be chosen, and why?

Repackage; revenue is $5,000 greater than cost.
B. Scrap; incremental loss is $9,000.
C. Repackage; receive profit of $10,000.
D. Scrap; profit is $1,000 greater.

21) The cost to produce Part A was $10 per unit in 2005. During 2006, it has increased to $11 per unit. In 2006, Supplier Company has offered to supply Part A for $9 per unit. For the make-or-buy decision,

incremental costs are $1 per unit
B. net relevant costs are $1 per unit
C. differential costs are $2 per unit
D. incremental revenues are $2 per unit

22) Hartley, Inc. has one product with a selling price per unit of $200, the unit variable cost is $75, and the total monthly fixed costs are $300,000. How much is Hartley’s contribution margin ratio?

37.5%
B. 150%.
C. 266.6%
D. 62.5%.

23) Which statement describes a fixed cost?

The amount per unit varies depending on the activity level.
B. It varies in total at every level of activity.
C. It remains the same per unit regardless of activity level.
D. Its total varies proportionally to the level of activity.

24) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company’s net income increase?

$28,000
B. $18,000
C. $6,000
D. $12,000

25) Variable costing

is required under GAAP
B. is used for external reporting purposes
C. is also known as full costing
D. treats fixed manufacturing overhead as a period cost

26) Which cost is NOT charged to the product under variable costing?

Direct labor
B. Direct materials
C. Fixed manufacturing overhead
D. Variable manufacturing overhead

27) Orbach Company sells its product for $40 per unit. During 2005, it produced 60,000 units and sold 50,000 units (there was no beginning inventory). Costs per unit are: direct materials $10, direct labor $6, and variable overhead $2. Fixed costs are: $480,000 manufacturing overhead, and $60,000 selling and administrative expenses. The per unit manufacturing cost under absorption costing is

$18
B. $16
C. $27
D. $26

28) Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of using standard costs?

Standard costs can be useful in setting prices for finished goods.
B. Standard costs can reduce clerical costs.
C. Standard costs can make employees “cost-conscious.”
D. Standard costs can be used as a means of finding fault with performance.

29) The difference between a budget and a standard is that

a budget expresses management’s plans, while a standard reflects what actually happened
B. standards are excluded from the cost accounting system, whereas budgets are generally incorporated into the cost accounting system
C. a budget expresses a total amount while a standard expresses a unit amount
D. a budget expresses what costs were, while a standard expresses what costs should be

30) If a company is concerned with the potential negative effects of establishing standards, they should

offer wage incentives to those meeting standards
B. set tight standards in order to motivate people
C. not employ any standards
D. set loose standards that are easy to fulfill

31) The per-unit standards for direct materials are 2 gallons at $4 per gallon. Last month, 11,200 gallons of direct materials that actually cost $42,400 were used to produce 6,000 units of product. The direct materials quantity variance for last month was

$2,400 favorable
B. $5,600 unfavorable
C. $3,200 unfavorable
D. $3,200 favorable

32) The standard number of hours that should have been worked for the output attained is 8,000 direct labor hours and the actual number of direct labor hours worked was 8,400. If the direct labor price variance was $8,400 unfavorable, and the standard rate of pay was $18 per direct labor hour, what was the actual rate of pay for direct labor?

$15 per direct labor hour
B. $18 per direct labor hour
C. $19 per direct labor hour
D. $17 per direct labor hour

33) The total variance is $10,000. The total materials variance is $4,000. The total labor variance is twice the total overhead variance. What is the total overhead variance?

$2,000
B. $4,000
C. $3,000
D. $1,000

34) Manufacturing overhead costs are applied to work in process on the basis of

standard hours allowed
B. actual overhead costs incurred
C. ratio of actual variable to fixed costs
D. actual hours worked

35) The overhead volume variance relates only to

variable overhead costs
B. both variable and fixed overhead costs
C. all manufacturing costs
D. fixed overhead costs

36) If the standard hours allowed are less than the standard hours at normal capacity,

the overhead volume variance will be unfavorable
B. the overhead controllable variance will be favorable
C. variable overhead costs will be overapplied
D. variable overhead costs will be underapplied

37) Gottberg Mugs is planning to sell 2,000 mugs and mugs during April. Each mug requires 2 pounds of resin and a half hour of direct labor. Resin costs $1 per pound and employees of the company are paid $12.50 per hour. Manufacturing overhead is applied at a rate of 120% of direct labor costs. Gottberg has 2,000 pounds of resin in beginning inventory and wants to have 2,400 pounds in ending inventory. How much is the total amount of budgeted direct labor for April?

$12,500
B. $25,000
C. $27,500
D. $13,750

38) Lewis Hats is planning to sell 600 straw hats. Each hat requires a half pound of straw and a quarter hour of direct labor. Straw costs $0.20 per pound and employees of the company are paid $22 per hour. Lewis has 80 pounds of straw and 40 hats in beginning inventory and wants to have 50 pounds of straw and 60 hats in ending inventory. How many units should Lewis Hats produce in April?

600
B. 580
C. 630
D. 620

39) At January 1, 2004, Barry, Inc. has beginning inventory of 4,000 widgets. Barry estimates it will sell 35,000 units during the first quarter of 2004 with a 10% increase in sales each quarter. Barry’s policy is to maintain an ending inventory equal to 25% of the next quarter’s sales. Each widget costs $1 and is sold for $1.50. How much is budgeted sales revenue for the third quarter of 2004?

$57,525
B. $63,525
C. $42,350
D. $63,000

40) In most cases, prices are set by the

customers
B. largest competitor
C. selling company
D. competitive market

41) A company must price its product to cover its costs and earn a reasonable profit in

all cases
B. its early years
C. the long run
D. the short run

42) The cost-plus pricing approach’s major advantage is

it considers customer demand
B. that sales volume has no effect on per unit costs
C. it is simple to compute
D. it can be used to determine a product’s target cost

Question 25: Economics

ECON 205 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE

Exam #1

A resource is anything that:
A) can be used in production.
B) you pay for.
C) is in scarce supply.
D) can be consumed.

Scarcity in economics means:
A) not having sufficient resources to produce all the goods and service we want.
B) the wants of people are limited.
C) there must be poor people in rich countries.
D) economics are clearly not doing their jobs.

Opportunity cost is:
A) about half of the monetary cost of a product.
B) the dollar payment for a product.
C) the benefit derived from a product.
D) the value of the best alternative forgone in making any choice.

Margo spends $10,000 on one year’s college tuition. The opportunity cost of spending one year in college for Margo is:
A) $10,000
B) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead.
C) whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
D) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead and whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.

We are forced to make choices because of:
A) exploitation.
B) efficiency.
C) scarcity.
D) the margin.

A choice made ________ is a choice whether to do a little more or a little less of something.
A) at the fringe
B) in the beginning
C) at the margin
D) after the fact

A production possibility frontier illustrates the ______ facing an economy that ______ only two goods.
A) prices; sells
B) trade-offs; produces
C) trade-offs; consumes
D) shortages; produces

When moving along a production possibility frontier, the opportunity cost to society of getting more of one good:
A) is constant.
B) is measured in dollar terms.
C) is measured by the amount of the good that must be given up.
D) usually decreases.

Use the following to answer questions 9-11:

Figure: Guns and Butter

(Figure: Guns and Butter) On this figure, points A, B, E, and F:

A) indicate combinations of guns and butter that society can produce using all of its factor efficiently.
B) show that the opportunity cost of more guns increases, but that of more butter decreases.
C) indicate that society wants butter more than it wants guns.
D) indicate constant costs for guns and increasing costs for butter.

(Figure: Guns and Butter) This possibility frontier is:
A) bowed out from the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
B) bowed in toward the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
C) bowed in toward the origin because of constant costs of guns and butter.
D) linear because of constant costs.

(Figure: Guns and Butter) If the economy were operating at point B, producing 16 units of guns and 12 units of butter per period, a decision to move to point E and produce 18 units of butter:
A) indicates you can have more butter and guns simultaneously.
B) makes it clear that this economy experiences decreasing opportunity costs.
C) involves a loss of 8 units of guns per period.
D) involves a loss of 4 units of guns per period.

An economy is said to have a comparative advantage in the production of one good if it:
A) can produce more of all goods than another country.
B) can produce less of all goods than another country.
C) has the highest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.
D) has the lowest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.

In one hour, the United States can produce 25 tons of steel or 250 automobiles. In one hour, Japan can produce 30 tons of steel or 275 automobiles. This information implies that:
A) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.
B) the Unites States has an absolute advantage in the production of steel.
C) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of both goods.
D) the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.

Free trade between countries:
A) should be based on absolute advantage.
B) will allow wealthy countries to exploit less developed nations.
C) will shift the domestic production possibility frontier to the right.
D) will allow for greater levels of consumption than without trade.

Use the following to answer questions 15-17:

Figure: Comparative Advantage

Eastland and Westland produce only two goods, peaches and oranges, and this figure shows each nation’s production possibility frontier for the two foods.

(Figure: Comparative Advantage) The opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of peaches for Westland is:
A) 1 unit of oranges.
B) ¼ unit of oranges.
C) 4 units of oranges.
D) 10 units of oranges

(Figure: Comparative Advantage) Westland has an absolute advantage in producing:
A) oranges only.
B) peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.

(Figure: Comparative Advantage) Eastland has a comparative advantage in producing:
A) oranges only.
B) peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.

The economy’s factors of production are not equally suitable for producing different types of goods. The principle generates:
A) economic growth.
B) technical efficiency.
C) resource underutilization.
D) the law of increasing opportunity cost.

Economists generally believe that a country should specialize in the production of a good or service if:
A) the production possibility frontier is larger than that of any other country.
B) the production possibility frontier is smaller than that of any other country.
C) the country can produce the product using fewer resources than any other country.
D) the country can produce the product while forgoing fewer alternative products than any other country.

The demand curve for videos has shifted to the right. What could have caused it?
A) a fall in the price of videos
B) an increase in the price of videos
C) an increase in the supply of videos
D) an increase in the incomes of buyers

The law of demand states other things equal:
A) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase.

B) as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right.
C) as the price increases, the demand will decrease.
D) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease.

A shift of the demand curve for Luis’s Pizza would not be caused by a change in the:
A) buyer’s incomes.
B) price of Luis’s Pizza.
C) price of Humberto’s Pizza.
D) popularity of Luis’s Pizza.

If goods A and B are substitutes, a decrease in the price of good B will:
A) increase the demand for good A.
B) increase the demand for good B.
C) decrease the demand for good A.
D) increase the demand for good B and decrease the demand for good A.

Use the following to answer questions 24-25:

Figure: Demand for Coconuts

(Figure: Demand for Coconuts) If a coconut is a normal good and the price of coconuts increases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) A to B.
B) B to A.
C) C to A.
D) E to B.

(Figure Demand for Coconuts) If coconuts are considered a normal good and there is an expectation on the part ofconsumers that the prices of coconuts will rise significantly in the near future, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) C to A.
B) A to B.
C) B to E.
D) E to B.

When the price of gas goes up and the demand for tires goes down, this means tires and gas are:
A) substitutes.
B) complements.
C) both expensive.
D) both inexpensive.

Which of the following would shift the demand curve for new textbook to the right?
A) a decrease in the price of paper
B) a fall in the price of used textbooks
C) an increase in college enrollments
D) a fall in the price of new textbooks

A good is normal if:
A) when income increases, the demand remains unchanged.
B) when income increases, the demand decreases.
C) when income increases, the demand increases.
D) income and the demand are unrelated.

Exam #2

The typical supply curve illustrates that:
A) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is inversely related to the price of a good.
B) other things equal, the supply of the good created its own demand for the good.
C) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is positively related to the price of a good.
D) price and quantity supplied are unrelated.

Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
A) expectations regarding future prices
B) the technology of production
C) the cost of production
D) consumer tastes

Use the following to answer questions 3-5:

Figure: Supply of Coconuts

(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the price of coconuts decreases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) A to B
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) E to B

(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the prices of inputs (e.g. labor, fertilizer, and fuel) used to produce and transport coconuts are increasing, then the movement in the model could be:
A) A to B
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) E to B

(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If there is an improvement in the technology used to harvest coconuts (e.g. a faster, less expensive coconut picker), then the movement in the model could be:
A) A to C
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) B to E

The market for soybeans is initially in equilibrium. Because of “mad cow disease,” cattle feed producers decided to replace bone meal with soybeans in cattle feed. The likely effect is that:
A) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will fall.
C) the equilibrium quantity of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium price.
D) the equilibrium price of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium quantity.

Excess supply occurs when:
A) the price is above the equilibrium price.
B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
C) the price is below equilibrium price.
D) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied and when the price is below the equilibrium quantity.

The market for milk is initially in equilibrium. Milk producers now engage in a costly advertising program to encourage milk drinking. Assume that the advertising campaign succeeds in shifting consumer tastes toward drinking milk and that milk producers provide more milk to the market. More milk producers enter the market. Standard demand and supply analysis tells us that:
A) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will fall.
C) the equilibrium quantity of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium price will be affected.
D) ) the equilibrium price of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium quantity will be affected.

Use the following to answer question 9:

Figure: DVD Market

(Figure: DVD Market) At a rental price of $3, there will be
A) equilibrium in the rental market for DVDs.
B) an increase in demand.
C) an excess supply of 40 DVD rentals.
D) an excess demand of 40 DVD rentals.

In the market for corn tortilla chips, what would cause a price increase?
A) Your doctor tells you that you cannot have junk food anymore.
B) There is a technological advancement in the tortilla chip production process.
C) There is a fungus that kills much of the corn crop in Nebraska.
D) The price of salsa triples.

Consumer surplus for an individual buyer is equal to:
A) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the marginal cost of producing the good.
B) the price of the good, minus the marginal cost od producing the good.
C) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the price of the good.
D) the marginal cost of the good, minus the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good.

Along a given demand curve, an increase in the price of a good will cause consumer surplus to:
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) not change.
D) cannot be determined without information about the supply curve.

Use the following to answer questions 13-14:

Figure: Consumer Surplus II

(Figure: Consumer Surplus II) At a price of P1, consumer surplus equals the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF

(Figure: Consumer Surplus II) If the price rises from P1 to P2, consumer surplus decreases by the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF

The price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the change in:
A) quantity demanded to a change in price.
B) price to a change in quantity demanded.
C) the slope of the demand curve to a change in price.
D) the slope of the demand curve to a change in quantity demanded.

Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 0.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is:
A) price elastic.
B) price inelastic.
C) price unit-elastic.
D) perfectly price inelastic.

Use the following to answer question 17:

Figure: Consumer Surplus III

(Figure Consumer Surplus III) If the price of the good is $2, consumer surplus will equal:
A) $30.
B) $45.
C) $60.
D) $90.

Suppose at a price of $10 the quantity demanded is 100. When the price falls to $8, the quantity demanded increases to 130. The price elasticity of demand between the priced of $10 and $8, using the midpoint method, is approximately:
A) 1.17
B) 1.50
C) 0.85
D) 1.00

The publisher of an economics textbook finds that when the book’s price is lowered from $70 to $60, sales rise from 10,000 to 15,000. Using the midpoint method, you can calculate that the price elasticity of demand is:
A) 500
B) 50%
C) 3.5
D) 2.6

If total revenue goes down when price falls, the price elasticity of demand is said to be:
A) price-inelastic
B) price unit-elastic
C) price-elastic
D) positive

To say that two goods are complements, their cross-price elasticity’s of demand should be:
A) less than 0
B) equal to 0
C) positive, yet almost equal to 0
D) greater than 0

A perfectly elastic supply curve is:
A) horizontal
B) downward-sloping
C) upward-sloping
D) vertical

The income elasticity of demand of a normal good is:
A) between 1 and 0
B) less than 0
C) equal to 0
D) greater than 0

To maximize her grade in economics, Stacey should study until:
A) her marginal cost of studying begins to increase.
B) her marginal benefit of studying begins to decrease.
C) her marginal benefit of studying equals her marginal cost of studying.
D) her marginal cost of studying reaches zero.

According to the optimal output rule, if marginal benefit:
A) exceeds marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
B) is less than marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
C) is equal to marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
D) exceeds marginal cost, net benefit is maximized.

To maximize total net benefit, consumers and firms evaluate each activity at the:
A) average.
B) top.
C) margin.
D) end.

Use the following to answer question 27:

Figure: Marginal Cost Curve

(Figure: Marginal Cost Curve) Using the marginal cost curve in the figure provided, we can determine that the total cost of mowing five lawns is approximately:
A) $68.50
B) $100
C) $50
D) $10

If the marginal benefit received from a good is greater than the marginal cost of production, then:
A) society’s well-being can be improved if production increases.
B) society’s well-being can be improved if production decreases.
C) society’s well-being cannot be improved by changing production.
D) the market is producing too much of the good.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

Question 11

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

Question 12

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

Question 15

0 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

Question 16

0 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

Question 18

0 out of 1 points

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

Question 20

0 out of 1 points

Matthew’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

Question 41

0 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”

Question 43

0 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 44

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

There is no purposeful arrangement to the letters as they are presented in the New Testament.

Question 48

0 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

Question 50

0 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 31: Psychology

PSY 203 Week 4 Personality Perspectives Paper

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper comparing the main themes of the social-cognitive perspective with the humanistic perspective.

Describe the main concepts involved in each perspective.
Explain how the perspectives differ from one another.
Identify possible limitations of each perspective.

Include a minimum of two peer-reviewed articles.

Format citations in your paper consistent with APA guidelines

Question 32: Psychology

PSYC 10004 Sample Practice-Exam-2015 MCQS Personality-Psychology

Sample Personality Exam Questions (answers at bottom of document)

How many trait dimensions did Cattell propose?
2
3
5
16
Which statement best describes how Allport and Odbert attempted to define the trait universe?
correlational analysis of trait adjectives
factor analysis of trait adjectives
selection of trait adjectives that describe psychological differences between people
selection of trait adjectives that people use to evaluate each other
Which is of the following statements about factor analysis is correct?
finds groups of variables that have similar meanings
finds groups of variables that correlate with one another
finds groups of variables that can be factored
finds groups of variables that have similar means
Which of the following is not an established alternative label for the relevant Big Five factor?
Extraversion & “Surgency”
Conscientiousness & “Morality”
Neuroticism & “Emotional instability”
Openness to Experience & “Culture”
Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationships between Big Five traits and emotion dimensions?
Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s and Gray’s theories is incorrect?
For Eysenck, Neuroticism is related to limbic system reactivity.
For Gray, the “behavioural activation system” is linked to sensitivity to reward and pleasure.
For Gray, Impulsivity involves having a weak “behavioural inhibition system”.
Gray’s Anxiety dimension corresponds to a mixture of Neuroticism and Introversion in Eysenck’s system.
Which of the following statements about traits and values is incorrect?
the structure of values appears to differ across cultures more than the structure of traits
values are cognitions, traits are not
traits appear to have more dimensions than values
unlike traits, values are inherently desirable to the person who has them
Which of the following is NOT one of the six virtue classes in the VIA classification of strengths?

Justice
Transcendence
Humanity
Creativity
Which two vocational interest types are next to one another in Holland’s model?
Realistic & Enterprising
Conventional & Social
Artistic & Investigative
Realistic & Artistic
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding biological research and theory

on personality?

extraverts’ brains are typically over-stimulated
shared environmental factors are more important than nonshared factors
the heritability of personality traits is sometimes calculated from twin studies
2D:4D digit ratio research shows the importance of circulating levels of neurotransmitters in the brain
Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s work on personality is correct?
Introverts have highly arousable autonomic nervous systems
Neuroticism is associated with stimulus hunger
Extraverts tend to like stimulant drugs more than Introverts
High levels of Psychoticism put people at risk of depression
Roughly what proportion of the variability in most personality traits tends to be heritable?
20%
40%
60%
80%
Which Freudian defence mechanism does this statement illustrate: “I’m not jealous, you are”?
projection
repression
sublimation
denial
Which of the following is CORRECT about Freud’s genetic model of personality?
the anal stage takes place in the first two years of life.
it recognises that personality has a large heritable component.
fixations in the oral stage can lead to passivity and dependency.
it has received extensive empirical support from developmental psychologists.
One of these four lists contains concepts from Freud’s topographic, structural and genetic models, in that order. Which is it?
Unconscious, ego, repression
Unconscious, id, reaction formation
Preconscious, superego, regression
Preconscious, superfly, fixation
Psychoanalytic theory is NOT often criticized for which of the following?
being unfalsifiable
being unscientific
being deterministic
being simplistic
Which of the following statements about cognitive approaches to personality is correct?
the repertory grid assesses people on a standard set of personal constructs
pessimistic explanatory style involves explaining negative events using internal, stable and global causes
self-complexity has repeatedly been shown to protect against depression
emotional intelligence is a component of verbal intelligence
Which of the following is an external, unstable attribution for why something happened to a person?
fate
the weather
hard work
bad mood
Which of the following statements about research on the self is incorrect?
High self-complexity buffers people against stressful life events
High self-complexity is associated with having more self-aspects with less overlap
Self-esteem is more a side-effect of achievement than a cause of it
Average self-esteem levels may be rising in Western societies
Which of the following does NOT accurately reflect research on self-esteem?
it is more likely to be a byproduct of academic achievement than a cause of it
it makes people secure so that they are less likely to act aggressively when they are insulted.
having stable self-esteem may be more important than having high self esteem.
defensive self-esteem involves having high explicit self-esteem but low implicit self-esteem.
Which of the following forms of coping illustrates the indicated kind of coping

strategy?

Emotion-focused: attacking a person who is making you unhappy
Problem-focused: recognizing that an issue is causing you difficulties
Emotion-focused: imagining that a problem will just go away
Problem-focused: actively trying to change how you feel about a stressor
Which of the following statements about personality change is NOT correct?
mean levels of internal attribution have increased in recent decades
there is much evidence of mean level change in adulthood
rank order stability is measured by correlation coefficients
rank order stability increases with age
Which of the following statements about rank-order stability of personality is NOT correct?

it may be partially due to environmental selection (i.e., people selecting environments that support their traits).
it increases with age.
it is incompatible with evidence that the mean levels of Big Five traits change with increasing age.
it is measured by re-test correlations in longitudinal studies.
According to Erikson, what contrasts with Industry in one of his eight stages?
Shame & doubt
Isolation
Guilt
Inferiority
Which statement about “lay theories” of personality is false?
entity theorists believe personality is not malleable
entity theorists stereotype people more than incremental theorists
incremental theorists hold a ‘dynamic’ view of personality
incremental theorists attribute differences between social groups to innate factors

26 . The items in a personality test correlate strongly with one another. What kind of reliability or validity does this imply?

convergent validity
content validity
internal consistency
retest reliability
Which kind of validity or reliability does NOT match the description that follows it?
re-test reliability: people get similar scores when they do a test on different occasions.
discriminant validity: a test of one personality characteristic does not correlate with tests that measure different characteristics.
convergent validity: people get similar scores on a test when different people administer it to them.
internal consistency: the items in the test all correlate with one another.
Which kind of validity scale is designed to detect random patterns of responding on a personality inventory?
infrequency scale
incompatibility scale
lie scale
defensiveness scale
Which of the following is NOT a weakness of many projective personality tests?
poor predictive validity
poor inter-rater reliability
susceptible to faking good bias
susceptible to poor incremental validity relative to inventories
Which of these potential flaws of psychobiographies is correctly defined?
originology: over-emphasis on early life events in explaining the person
pathography: insufficiently empathic interpretation of the person
determinism: focussing too much on a single factor in explaining the person
hagiography: portrayal of the person as extremely ugly

Question 33: Psychology

Psych 2230 Sample Practice-Exam2014-questions-and-answersChapters-1-13

Question 34: Psychology

PSYC 215 SOCIAL PSYCH EXAMS CHAPTER 3 to 8

Exam #3

The amount by which an additional unit of a good or service increases a consumer’s total utility, all other things unchanged, is:
A) marginal utility
B) maximum utility
C) average utility
D) required utility

The principle of diminishing marginal utility means that when Sarah eats pizza, her satisfaction from the second slice of pizza is probably:
A) greater than that from the first.
B) equal to that from the first.
C) less than that from the first.
D) not comparable to that of the first.

Assume that the marginal utilities for the first three units of a good consumed are 200,150, and 125, respectively. The total utility when two units are consumed is:
A) 150
B) 200
C) 350
D) 475

Suzy knows she has maximized her utility, because she is on her budget constraint and:
A) consumption of Good X equals consumption of God Y
B) what is sent on Good X equals what is spent on Good Y
C) MUx/Px = MUy/Py
D) MUx = MUy

Joesph consumes pizza and soda. He is currently consuming three units of pizza and two units of soda. The price of pizza is $5 and the price of soda is $1. If he is consuming the optimal consumption bundle and his marginal utility of pizza is 50, then his marginal utility of soda is:
A) 50
B) 10
C) 5
D) impossible to determine unless you know Joseph’s income.

While at the grocery store, Sidney sees that the price of Grape-Nuts is twice that of Cheerios. If Sidney buys both goods, then Sidney must:
A) get twice as much marginal utility from Grape-Nuts as from Cheerios.
B) get twice as much marginal utility from Cheerios as from Grape-Nuts.
C) not be maximizing her utility.
D) buy twice as much Cheerios.

Use the following to anser questions 7-8:

Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples

(Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if his income decreases to $2.50?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D

(Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if the price of an orange falls to $0.25?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D

Use the following to answer questions 9-10:

Table: Total Product and Marginal Product

(Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) The marginal product of the second worker is:
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30

(Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) Negative marginal returns begin when the _______ worker is added.
A) fifth
B) sixth
C) seventh
D) eighth

A planning period during which all of a firm’s resources are variable is the:
A) long run
B) fixed run
C) short run
D) nominal run

Use the following to answer question 15:

Figure: Short-Run Costs

(Figure: Short-Run Costs) A is the _______ cost curve.
A) average total
B) average variable
C) marginal
D) total

If marginal cost is greater than average total cost, then:
A) average total cost is increasing.
B) average total cost is decreasing.
C) average total cost is unchanged.
D) marginal cost is decreasing.

A firm’s marginal cost is:
A) the ratio of the change in fixed cost to the change in the quantity of output.
B) the slope of the total cost curve.
C) the slope of the average variable cost curve.
D) the ratio of the change in total output to the change in the quantity of labor.

When an increase in the firm’s output reduces its long-run average total cost, it experiences:
A) economies of scale
B) diseconomies of scale
C) constant returns to scale
D) variable returns to scale

In the model of perfect competition:
A) the consumer is at the mercy of powerful firms that can set prices wherever they prefer.
B) individual firms can influence the price, but only slightly.
C) no individual or firm has enough power to

Question 26: General Question

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?

Question 1 options:

Lysosomes

Peroxisomes

Ribosomes

Oxyhydrosomes

Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?

Question 2 options:

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.

Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?

Question 3 options:

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.

Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

Question 4 options:

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?

Question 5 options:

Respiratory distress

Sun intolerance

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

Death(not confirm)

Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:

Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.

Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

Question 7 options:

a)Oncotic pressure

b)Buffering

c)Net filtration

d)Hydrostatic pressure

Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?

Question 8 options:

a)Capillary hydrostatic

b)Interstitial hydrostatic

c)Capillary oncotic

d)Interstitial oncotic

Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:

Question 9 options:

a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:

Question 10 options:

a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.

Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?

Question 11 options:

a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.

Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:

Question 12 options:

a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+

b)Intracellular and extracellular K+

c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?

Question 13 options:

a)Hypopolarization

b)Hyperexcitability

c)Depolarization

d)Repolarization

Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:

Question 14 options:

a)20:1

b)1:20

c)10:2

d)10:5

Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:

Question 15 options:

a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response

c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

d)Sodium and water retention

Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:

Question 16 options:

a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis

Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:

Question 17 options:

a)Are antigen-presenting molecules

b)Bind antigens to antibodies

c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:

Question 18 options:

a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:

Question 19 options:

a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations

Save

Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

Question 20 options:

a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)

Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 21 options:

a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:

Question 22 options:

a)Complement-mediated cell lysis

b)Phagocytosis by macrophages

c)Phagocytosis in the spleen

d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

Question 23 (5 points)

Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:

Question 23 options:

Question 9: Psychology

Instruction

develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development). SEE ATTACHED for more detailed instructions on requirements.

Final Project: Marriage, Couple, and Family Counseling

Families face many challenges in today’s world and marriage, couple, and family counselors (MCF) are the professionals who help families navigate difficult times. Families are a working system and each element of that system impact the operation of the system and the individual members. Issues such as substance abuse, family violence, divorce, mental illness, infidelity, and child abuse present counselors with numerous treatment challenges. As an MCF counselor, will you be ready to address them?

For the Final Project, you will consider the clients in the solution focused YouTube videos you viewed earlier in the course (see: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tjdJhdA9mE4&list=PLgswj8XPfriWqAECgkNLXLjG vjUXdfSYQ)

For your Final Project, you are to develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development).

Your project should include all of the following sections:

Legal and ethical considerations regarding the family circumstances 2. Multicultural considerations
3. Identify any family life cycle considerations
4. Theoretical counseling model you would use in the case with rationale 5. Specific issues facing the family
Assessment techniques you would use in the case with rationale
7. Intervention plan for the family
8. Research (at least five references) that support your intervention plan
9. Prognosis for the family
10. A reflection on your learning experience in this course and your preparedness for working as a marriage, couple, and family counselor.

Although the Final Project is not to be submitted until Day 7 of Week 12, you should become familiar with the project requirements and have them in mind as you proceed through the course. The Final Project will be evaluated according to the final project rubric. Be sure that the Final Project is written using APA format. Information on scholarly writing may be found in the APA Manual (6th ed.) and at the Purdue OWL Writing Center site (http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/). The Final Project is due (in Blackboard AND TK20) on Day 7 of Week 12.

Question 10: Science

Instruction

For this paper you must cite and reference 2 sources. The paper should be 2–3 pages and written using current APA format. Your paper should address the following: a. How would you prepare for the following situation? (provide realistic examples and details for safety and survival) (Scenario) At this moment, you are sitting at home working on your class. Suddenly, the National Weather Bureau sends an alert across your cell phone—a tornado is headed your way. You have 15 minutes before touchdown in your neighborhood. What is your plan? This is a ‘shelter in place’ scenario, you cannot outrun the tornado. Identify a safe place in your home to take shelter. You must include research. Cite and reference two sources and explain the recommended safety measures in a tornado emergency and how you would apply them to your specific living arrangements. b. How prepared are you in the event of a disaster? Describe your level of disaster preparedness using specific examples and references to your “go-bag” and preparedness checklist assignments. Example: “I am more prepared for a water-related disaster than a fire-related disaster even though I live in a highly secluded, forested area. I have a boat as transportation in the event of flooding, but I do not have rain barrels or fire barrier supplies on hand.” Example: “There were many missing items on my preparedness checklist. I realized that I do not own a flashlight. If I had to use my phone as a light it would drain the battery very quickly. c. Reflect on how prepared you were before this class and compare it with how prepared you are now. Have you acquired any new emergency items? Do you plan to take any additional trainings or certification courses? Have you shared your knowledge with friends and family? Review the rubric for more information on how the assignment will be graded.

Question 11: General

INTL725 INSTRUCTIONS FOR GROUP PROJECT

INTERNATIONAL MARKET RESEARCH

Worth 25% of final mark

Week 8: 5% group research proposal (in-class)
Week 11-12: 5% group presentation on research proposal
Week 12: 5% group progress report (in-class)
Week 13: 10% group final report (in-class)

Each student will receive a different mark, depending on his/her contribution.

Instructions

Select trade agreement, market and sector
Have an idea of a market and a sector that you know well.
Consult the list of Canada’s trade agreements to find the one that your market and sector can benefit (filter Status to “5 In force”).

https://www.international.gc.ca/trade-commerce/trade-agreements-accords-commerciaux/agr-acc/index.aspx?lang=eng

Finalize your market and sector, the ones that can benefit from the selected trade agreement(s).

Work with your group: discussing the trade agreement(s)
Each student prepares a research proposal (due Week 8 in class).
The group will make a presentation (Weeks 11-12).
Each student prepares a progress report (due Week 12 in class).
Each student prepares a final report (due Week 13 in class).

Starting your research
Keep in mind that this is an applied research (see the difference between applied and basic research), and the proposal and report should have a business format (see the difference between a business report and an academic report).
Consult the Market Research section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/market-research.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information. The link “Conducting Market Research” by Canada Business Network is particularly helpful.
Consult the Data and Statistics section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/data-statistics.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information.
Consult the Market Reports section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/market-report-access.jsp
Consult the Related Resources section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/related-resources.jsp
Consult “Step #4: Setting out: Identifying your target market” in GAC “Step-by-step guide to exporting 2017”: http://tradecommissioner.gc.ca/exporters-exportateurs/guide-exporting-guide-exportation.aspx?lang=eng
Consult sources suggested by GAC:

www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca

www.cia.gov (CIA World Factbook)

www.export.gov/mrktresearch/ (U.S. Commercial Service)

www.eiu.com (Economist Intelligence Unit)

www.fitt.ca, www.tradeready.ca

Other governments’ websites

Note: Do not use other sources, unless you can prove that they are good sources. Mark will be deducted if you use other sources without showing that they are credible sources.

Working on your Research Proposal

See Research Proposal – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult the handout on the purpose and layout of a research proposal.

Length:

2 pages, plus cover letter, title page, graphs and references

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

Format:

Cover Letter (to the Canadian company)

Title Page

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity*

Research Objectives*

Methodology* (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Implementation Plan (time and cost estimates)

Conclusion

References

* most important in a research proposal

Required sources (at least 6):

At least five reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
One business journal article

Reminder about writing: Each paragraph should have only one major point. The first sentence is the summary of the paragraph. The length of a paragraph should be 1/3 – ½ of a page.

Working on your Group Presentation

Please prepare PowerPoint for your presentation.

See Research Proposal Presentation – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.
Consult the article “Is your elevator pitch ready?” by Canada Business:

https://canadabusiness.ca/blog/is-your-elevator-pitch-ready-1/

How To Prepare an Oral Research Presentation:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LzIJFD-ddoI

PowerPoint format (one slide each):

Introduction (introduce speakers and structure of presentation)

Background on the trade agreement(s)

For each student, 3-5 slides:

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology / Sampling / Implementation Plan (time and cost)

Thank the audience and ask for questions

Length: 8 minutes presentation + 2 minutes Q&A / group

Working on your Research Report (Progress and Final)

See Research Report – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.

Length:

4 pages, plus cover letter, title page and references, tables, charts, graphs, pictures, maps

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

Format:

Cover Letter

Title Page

Executive Summary *

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Data Analysis

Data Interpretation

Business Implications

Conclusion

References

* most important

Required sources (at least 10):

At least six reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
Three business journal articles from at least two different journals
One printed book (such as the textbook)

Marking Rubric for Research Proposal:

Criteriononsetation

points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc

A-level

B-level

C-level

D-level

Unsatisfactory

Mark

Business opportunity

Identifies significant opportunity

Identifies good opportunity

Identifies adequate opportunity

Identifies some opportunity

Does not identify a clear opportunity

Research objectives, methodology, and sampling

Excellent

Good

Adequate

Acceptable

Unsatisfactory

Use of professional sources

Uses professional sources extensively and effectively

Uses professional sources sufficiently

Uses professional sources adequately

Uses some professional sources

Does not use professional sources

APA format

Documents sources using APA format precisely

Writing effectiveness

Writes clearly, concisely and effectively

Writes clearly, concisely and effectively, with only a few errors

Writes clearly and concisely, with many errors

Writing is unclear, with too many errors

Writing is unclear and unfocused, with many serious errors

/0.5

Total:

Group members:

________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________

Marking Rubric for Group Presentation:

Criteriononsetation points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc	A-level	B-level	C-level	D-level	Unsatisfactory	Mark
Content: Business opportunity	Effectively presents the opportunity	Sufficiently present the opportunity	Adequately presents the opportunity	Present the opportunity acceptably	Does not clearly identify the opportunity	/2
Content: Research objectives, methodology, and sampling	Excellent	Good	Adequate	Acceptable	Unsatisfactory	/2
Documentation: Use of professional sources	All sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	Most sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	Some sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	A few sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	Sources of data are not documented and mentioned in the presentation	/1
Organization	Sequence is logical and interesting; audience can follow easily	Sequence is logical and interesting, additional explanation could be helpful	Sequence is logical; a lot more explanation could be helpful	Sequence not very logical; audience has difficulty following the presentation	Sequence not logical; audience cannot understand the presentation	/1
PowerPoint quality	Attractive, easy to follow, no errors	Attractive, easy to follow, only a few errors	Attractive, easy to follow, many errors	Not attractive, many errors	Not attractive, difficult to follow, many serious errors	/1
Speaking skills (articulation, proper rate, proper pronunciation, good posture, eye contact, enthusiasm, confidence)	Excellent	Good	Adequate	Acceptable	Inadequate	/1
Length of presentation	Uses 10 minutes effectively, does not go overtime	Uses 10 minutes sufficiently, does not goes overtime	Uses 10 minutes adequately, does not goes overtime	Uses 10 minutes adequately, goes overtime	Does not use 10 minutes adequately	/1
Q&A	Handles the questions effectively	Handles the questions properly	Handles the questions adequately	Handles the questions satisfactorily	Does not handle the questions satisfactorily	/1
Total:						/10

Additional comments (for each presenter) ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

throughout

Documents sources using APA format with a few errors

Documents sources using APA format with many errors

Does not use APA format adequately

Does not use APA format

/0.5

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Project Instructions

Project Submission 1 will consist of Parts 1–2.
Project Submission 2 will consist of Parts 3–4.

Project Submission 1 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Project Submission 2 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

Question 1: Other

For the loading and geometry given in the figure below, determine the maximum value of normal stress at both at the hole and the notch. [Hint: σ = Kt . σnom Be careful with the cross-sectional area selection.

Question 2: Other

Need help with an assignment due for Saturday must be at least 1500 words or more with 3 scholoarly sources withing the last past 5 years . Must include in text citation and be APA format. 1. n a narrative format, discuss how white Americans who have not owned slaves nor practiced discrimination in employment, may have nonetheless benefitted from, and have been advantaged by, slavery and discrimination?

What are the primary problems with the concept of race and what are the social and political implications of using race to define and study groups of people?
Why is it so difficult to identify examples of institutional discrimination? If rules apply to everyone, shouldn’t that be enough to prevent unfair treatment? Give examples of real or perceived institutional discrimination to support your argument.

Question 3:Computer Science

Programming Question:

In this program it is required to red and manipulate the scores of ICS 103 exams. The program should define a constant MAXSIZE for the array, declare necessary variables and arrays. Then the program displays the following menu and waits for the user choice (define and use a function getChoice):

Read scores
Convert scores to letter grades and display a table of scores and letter grades
Show statistics (count, maximum, minimum, average, median, mode, standard deviation)
Rank students (first, second, third, etc.)
Show grade distribution
Exit

Based on the user choice the program should use relevant functions to perform the required task. If the user input 6, the program asks the user to confirm if he wants to exit. If the user enters ‘y’ or ‘Y’, the program terminates. Otherwise, it should redisplay the menu and wait for his next choice.

Here is a list of functions that you should define and use:

int getChoice(void) — this function is to show a menu and read a valid choice.

void readArray( double score[], int size) — this function to read the scores and save it in 1D array.

void showLetterGrades(double score[], int size) – this function is to show a table of scores and their corresponding letter grades. It should also use another function to compute letter grades.

void getLetterGrades(double score[], char grades[], int size)

void showStatistics(double score[], int size) — this function is to show all relevant statistics: count, minimum, maximum, median, mode, average, standard deviation. It should also use another function to compute the statistics:

void getStats(double score[], int size, double *min, double *max, double *avg, double *stDev, double *mode, double *median)

void showRanks(double score[], int size) – this function is to show a table of scores and their corresponding ranks (i.e. the highest grade will be 1, the next will be 2, and so on). It should also use another function to compute ranks:

void getRanks(double score[], int ranks[], int size)

void showDistribution(double score[], int size) – this function is to show the distributions of letter grades (i.e. the percentage of students having A, the percentage of students having B, and so on). It should also use void getLetterGrades(double score[], char grades[], int size) to convert scores to letter grades then it uses another function to compute the distributions of each letter grade

void getDistributions(char grades[],int size, double distribution[])

Question 4: Other

need help with an assignment must be at least 250 words with apa format..Must include intext citationa and also have 3 scholary sources that are up to date. The questions is listed …………………………………….

Why is an understanding of cultural diversity necessary in all areas of the criminal justice system?

Give one example of where a lack of cultural understanding could cause for there to be tension between the community and law enforcement

Question 5: Finance

This essay assignment should focus on the important role of commercial banks in a modern economy and dynamic financial system. To do so, you will be required to conduct research on a local business that collaborates with a financial institution resulting in productive financial outcomes. In addition, you will look deeper into the common risks that exist for these financial institutions as a result of the collaboration.

Your essay should begin with an introduction, be well organized, and present a clear discussion of the topic. The steps for completing your assignment are listed below.

Research a local business that collaborates with a financial institution in your area.
Explain the details of the business (e.g., type, years in business, location).
Explain how the business and the financial institution began to collaborate (e.g., loans, investments, marketing).
Explain what risks exist among financial institutions when they choose to collaborate with a local business.
Create a graphic, chart, or image that illustrates the collaboration between the local business and the financial institution. This will be added in as an appendix item at the end of the essay.

Submit your assignment in a Word document. You should have a minimum of four pages (three pages of content and one appendix page). Please include a title page and a reference page, which will not count toward meeting your total page count requirement.

Please use at least two academic sources or industry magazines (this may include the course textbook). At least one source must come from the CSU Online Library. Use APA style formatting for your paper.

Question 6: English

Major Paper #1: The Point of View Essay

We will be working on this paper for the next three units. The final draft of the paper–with all three sections described below–will be due at the end of Unit #4.

Purpose: This paper assignment has several purposes. As the first major paper for this class, the Point of View Essay is designed to re-engage you with the fundamentals of all good writing, including using lush sensory details to show the reader a particular place (rather than tell them about it), basic organization, clear focus, etc. However, this unit does not function as a mere review. The Point of View Essay will also introduce you to the concept of “thinking and seeing rhetorically, and analyzing writing rhetorically”–using the Writer’s Toolbox described in this unit to improve your writing and critical reading skills. Finally, the Point of View Essay allows you to reflect on this process.

The Assignment:

Pleasant/Unpleasant Description of the Place:Choose a place you can observe for an extended period of time (at least 20-30 minutes). Use all of your senses (sight, hearing, touch, smell, even taste if possible) to experience the place, and record all of the sensations that you experience. As you record your data, you may wish to note which details naturally seem more positive, negative, or neutral, in terms of tone. (For instance, a stinky and overflowing trash barrel swarming with flies in a nearby alley might seem more inherently negative than a little white bunny rabbit hopping playfully across the lawn.) Then, you will use this information to help your write descriptions of the place: one positive, one negative. Both descriptions should be factually true (same real time and real place), but you will want one description to be positive in terms of tone and the other to be negative. In addition to including the information and sensory details you’ve collected as the basis for these descriptions, you will also use the Writer’s Toolbox to create your two contrasting impressions for this assignment. (The Writer’s Toolbox is explained in the Lecture Notes section of this unit.) As you revise and refine your descriptions, please be sure you are “showing” your readers your place (really putting the readers “there” in the moment and in this scene), rather than simply “telling” them about it. You will also want to try to eliminate unnecessary linking verbs as much as you can, incorporating verbs that show “action” whenever possible.
Rhetorical Analysis: Looking back at your descriptions, analyze how you created these two very different impressions of the place (one positive, one negative) without changing any of the facts. How did you make your place seem so positive in one paragraph and yet so negative in the other paragraph, without changing the facts? Discuss how you incorporated each of the tools from the Writer’s Toolbox, and cite examples of this from each of your descriptions. (This analysis should be at least 400-500 words in length.)
Reflection: In one to two paragraphs, consider at least one of the following questions: What have you learned about writing through this assignment? How might you apply this knowledge? Has this process of using the Writer’s Toolbox affected your vision of various information media–for instance, television and print news sources, magazines, etc.? If so, how so?

Again, we will be working on the rhetorical analysis in Unit 3 and the Reflection in Unit 4. For this unit, however, you will want to draft the first portion of this paper, the positive and negative descriptions of your place.

The first portion of this assignment is a three step process:

1.) Find your place. This should be one single setting at one particular time. Do not use multiple places. For instance, if you want to write about your house, do not describe your entire house. Choose one particular room, or one particular view. Also, do not use different times. If it’s morning in your positive paragraph, it can’t be evening in your negative paragraph. If it’s completely sunny in your positive paragraph, it can’t be raining in your negative paragraph.

2.) Make a sensory chart of your place, recording all of the sights, smells, sounds, sensations, and even tastes (if applicable). Use your five senses to collect data, and be as specific as possible.

3.) Use the data you have recorded to craft your two descriptions, incorporating the Writer’s Toolbox to shape each of your paragraphs and thus the impression of the place. Remember that in the first paragraph your place should seem positive, while in the second paragraph, your place should seem negative.

The following is a student example of the first portion of this assignment:

“Nature’s Symphony at Pillsbury Crossing”

Nature’s beauty surrounds me. On a calm, mostly sunny day, the leaves flutter as if they were applauding the breath of the land. Green, yellow, and brown hues sparkle in the warm sunlight, offering a mosaic reflection on the water. A short waterfall branches like a limb from the pond, whisking the water down into a misty creek. The clear water rushes through the mossy rocks and falls, creating a soothing melody.

Delicate water birds chitter and trill, voicing their opinions and contributing to the symphony of nature. Two children play at the water’s edge. Their shoes are off, and they dip their toes in the creek’s relieving temperature with delight. Meanwhile, I bathe in the sun like a flower in the springtime, absorbing all the comforting sun’s rays, while the gentle puffs of a relieving breeze soothe my skin and the back of my neck. I sip some iced tea to quench my thirst and sigh. What a perfect afternoon.

“Grim Times at Pillsbury Crossing”

Death has had her way here. On a partly cloudy day at the end of the tropical summer, the leaves look withered and dry, parched by days of scorching sun. A blast of wind brings some of the foliage to its final resting place on the cracked ground. A waterfall sits not far from this leaf cemetery, clogged by clumps of mossy overgrowth and mud. Though this should be a place of relaxation, the noisiness of nature overwhelms me: water crashing violently again rocks, water fowl quacking and flapping in confrontation, bugs buzzing, and worst of all the screaming of a couple of unruly kids. Though the signs clearly warn “stay off the rocks,” these two juvenile delinquents have left their shoes like litter on the shore and seem to be shoving each other in a game of chicken on the slick boulders. Loser gets a trip to the E.R. Attempting to ignore them, I take a swig of my iced tea and sigh in disappointment. It’s warm. Though I’ve been trying my best to attain solace here, all I’ve found is annoyance, three mosquito bites, and a reddening sunburn.

Question 7: Business

*Unit 7 Course Project

Code of Ethics

Begin by preparing of Code of Ethics for a fictional company which should include at minimum ten elements. Once you have compiled the Code of Ethics, respond to the following questions:

Why did you include each of the ten elements?
Why is a Code of Ethics an important part of every business from an employer standpoint?
Why is a Code of Ethics an important part of every business from an employee standpoint?
Once you have written the Code of Ethics, how would you implement to ensure compliance?

Your completed assignment should be two double-spaced pages (one page for the Code of Ethics and one page for question responses). Please use a minimum of two credible sources from the CSU Online Library to support your reasoning. Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines.

Format your essay response in accordance with APA style

*Unit 7 DB

Companies use a code of ethics to preserve a certain level of ethics within their organization. Identify a company that you believe constantly displays ethical behavior and explain why.

Question 8: Business

How important is cash flow in a businesses

Question 9: Accounting

Assume that you contribute an annual sum of money (your choice) to your company’s retirement plan for the next 40 years and contribute that same sum of money to an identical investment outside of your company’s retirement plan (non-tax deferred) for the same period of time, what would be the Future Value of each?

Question 10: English

you should write according to these websites and it should be 3-4 pages https://www.smithsonianmag.com/smart-news/where-we-got-term-banana-republic-180961813/ https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WZFI6dvgOzU&feature=youtu.be

Question 11: Other

What is the leadership paradox? Give some reasons why a leader can encounter difficulty in newly formed teams or groups using a participative management system.
Consider the different leadership styles outlined in this chapter. Some of the leadership styles presented in this chapter are commanding, coaching, pace setting, affiliate, democratic and visionary. What are some of the representative behaviors associated with each style of leadership? What are some of the benefits and drawbacks to each particular style?
How does each of the five types of teams listed in this chapter manage their team boundaries manage their team boundaries? Insulating Teams, Broadcasting Teams, Marketing Teams, Surveying Teams and X-Teams. What are the trade-offs between internal cohesion and external ties within each type of team?
Consider the list of common roles for team members in The identified and outlined leadership styles in the chapter this week include: Task versus Person Leadership, Transactional versus Transformational Leadership and Autocratic versus Democratic Leadership. Which of these roles do you think you play in your own team or group? Why?

Question 12: Business

Unit 6 DB

Think about a company you have worked for, either currently or in the past. Reflect upon the corporate culture with respect to the practice of ethics within the organization. What was leadership’s role in establishing this culture within the organization? How did power and motivation relate to the degree of ethical conduct?

Question 14: Other

climate change, the arctic thaw and climate change mitigation and adaptation

Assignment 3 is worth 60% toward your grade in this course. This assignment provides you with opportunity to investigate the concepts and theories associated with Earth’s energy budget and how positive radiative forcing leads to climate change in Part A (worth 20 marks); a case study of accelerated and most pronounced changes in the Arctic in Part B (worth 20 marks); and lastly Part C (worth 15 marks) in which you consider factors that must be taken into consideration and action that individuals and countries will need to adopt to address the adverse effects of climate change. You also consider how the federal government is responding to climate change and developing policies to reduce the risk factors for Canadians.

In completing the assignment, be sure to provide reference sources for your information to avoid plagiarism by using a standard citation system

Part A. Greenhouse Gases and Earth’s Energy Budget (20 marks)

Environment and Climate Change Canada – https://www.canada.ca/en/services/environment/weather/climatechange.html

List the greenhouse gases that influence climate on the planet. Describe how each of these influences Earth’s energy budget, including their global warming potential, sources, and contributions to positive radiative forcing. (10 marks)
Why carbon dioxide is considered the most significant contributor to positive radiative forcing? (2 marks)
Describe how humans have affected the biogeochemical reservoirs and pathways of carbon that have contributed to climate change. What evidence exists that supports your answer? (8 marks)

Part B. The Cryosphere and Polar Amplification (20 marks)

What is the meaning of polar amplification of climate change in the Arctic? What is the basis of this phenomenon? (5 marks)
Describe the responses expected in each of the following to Arctic climate change. Be sure to describe how the activity is linked to other positive feedback responses and/or the atmospheric carbon reservoir changes where relevant: (15 marks)
Warming permafrost soils
Ocean conveyor belt/thermohaline gradient
Sea ice and Greenland ice sheet loss
Ocean pH
Boreal Forests

Part C. Climate Change Mitigation and Adaptation (15 marks)

Check out the following websites to assist you in completing Part C of the assignment:

Carbon Footprint Calculator – http://www.carbonfootprint.com/calculator.aspx
Cheeseburger Footprint (The Video) http://www.openthefuture.com/cheeseburger_CF.html
Paris Agreement and Canada – https://www.canada.ca/en/environment-climate-change/services/climate-change/paris-agreement.html

Generally speaking, identify and describe 3 strategies that you feel Society needs to adopt to mitigate the effects of climate change. (10 marks)
Governments around the world are now preparing for the impacts of climate change by developing adaptation policies in key areas – e.g., water resources, agriculture, and severe weather. Outline 2 Canadian policies addressing future threats of climate change and describe how each will minimize risk to Canadians. (5 marks)

Gender pay gap exists in almost all occupations. According to Nyhus and Pon’s (2012) study, although the recent increase in participation of women’s labor in the workplace and the implementation of anti-discrimination policies, women’s average income is still lower than men. Research shows that in recent decades if the development of narrowing the gender wage gap continued at the current pace, by 2058 women and men are unlikely to achieve equal pay (Costello, 2016). This paper illustrates the basic facts of the gender wage gap and summarizes data on the differences in income between men and women concerning race, ethnicity, education and occupation. Then it discusses the causes of the gender wage gap, the consequences for women and their families, and how policies can help to close it.

Significant progress made at the end of the gender pay gap between the 1980s and 1990s, but no further improvements showed in the past ten years (Costello, 2016). In 2014, Costello illustrated that women who work full-time throughout the year earn only 79 percent of the income of all career what men earned. One of the reasons for the narrowing of the gender wage gap between the 1980s and 1990s was the substantial stagnation of male incomes, while women’s income continued to grow from a lower base. However, in the past ten years, women’s income has not increased (Nyhus & Pon 2012).

According to Nyhus and Pon’s (2012) research, Hispanic and black women earn much less than whites and Asian women. In 2014, Nyhus and Pon stated that the biggest difference in the average wage per week is Hispanic women, earning $548 a week, just Sixty-one percent of white men’s income (about $897). The authors continue to point that the salary gap for African American women is also considerable, with an average weekly income of $611, sixty-eight percent of white male earnings. Asian and white women and the male wage gap is smaller (ninety-four percent) (eighty-two percent) because of its high average weekly earnings of $841 (for Asian women) and $734 (white women; Hege Vecchi, Ellis, and Hartmann, 2015).

Differences in race and ethnic income partly reflect higher education levels of Asian and white women than African Americans and Hispanic women. However, higher education does not eliminate income differences between women. In 2013, the average weekly income of Asian women with a bachelor’s degree was $1157, compared with $980 for white women, $900 for African American women, and $865 for Hispanic women (Hege, Vecchi, Ellis, and Hartmann, 2015).

Female incomes were close to male counterparts at the beginning of their career, but wage differentials increased over time (Hege, Vecchi, Ellis, and Hartmann, 2015). From 25 to 34, women’s weekly income (full-time workers) is about ninety percent of male income (US Bureau of Labor Statistics, 2015). The gap substantially broadens as women age increase. From the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics showed that the age between 35 to 44 years old female’ income is the 81 percent of the wage of male; the ages between 45 and 54 years old female’s income accounted for about 77 percent of their male counterpart; 55-64 years old women’s income only 76.4 percent of the men (2015). The biggest responsibilities for this widening income gap are the family care childcare duty.

The United State Department of Labor has for many years been trying to close the wage gap that exists between the male and the female gender in their workplaces. The gender pay gap reflects the enduring prejudice and inequalities in the labor market that, in most cases, largely affect the women. Its causes are interrelated and complex. The constant gender wage gap between working men and women in the US Department of Labor presents an obstruction to the success of women. The underpaying and undervalue of women makes it harder for them to pay off their student loans, take care of their families and make savings for retirement.

Some ways may decrease the gender wage gap, establishing strengthen equal pay laws is an important way to reduce the gender pay gap. Also, organizations should provide more choice to women enter the high-income position. Moreover, raising the minimum wage is a useful method to closing the pay gap. Furthermore, the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics suggests that Unionization of working women would also help to narrow the pay gap. Setting up a strengthen work-family policies is also a significant method to closing the gender wage gap, including paid family and medical leave, earned sick days.

There are abundant factors, which cause the gender wage gap. It involved discrimination, occupational segregation, and social responsibilities as caregivers. For example, woman underestimates their capabilities at work. It causes the women search small payment jobs or the low minimum wages. In the past few decades, the most population who work out is males. Just a few female jobs in the workplace are filled with men. On the average, those female occupations earn less money that the male occupation. However, some careers have less requirement to man. For example, the most female who work in the workplaces, which dominate men, have to have at least bachelors’ degrees. Compared to the same position in a field, the requirement for the male to enter this area has less than the requirement for female. The other example is the wage of different salaries. For instance, the payment of school teachers whose majority population is a woman was lower than the civil engineer whose majority population is male. Because of treatment inequality, it causes the gender wage gap.

In nowadays, female have more social responsibilities as caregivers than male have. Because of social responsibilities, mothers spend more twice the time on their offspring than the fathers do. Nyhus and Pon (2012) have the same opinion. They mention that one of the fifth caregivers is females. Some female’s participants claim that because they need to take care of children, parents and disability family members, they suffer financial losses. Some of them lost the opportunity on promotions. Some of them even lost their jobs. They even show the evidence. The evidence reveals that the more time does female take care of family, the more wage disparity between men and women the United States face.

The wage gap has a significant impact on the economic security of women and families. The pay gap can create problems in these areas, which are poverty, lost earnings over a lifetime, retirement income gap, impact on two-earner households, and single mother households (Hege, Vecchi, Ellis, and Hartmann, 2015).

The gender wage gap is the main reason that causes women’s poverty rate higher than men’s. There are 16% of women were living in poverty, but just 13% of people living in poverty (Costello 2016). Besides, women’s lifetime earnings were affected by the gender wage gap with a cumulative way. On the one hand, because of the gender wage gap, women’s lifetime earnings are lower than men’s. On the contrary, because of many kinds of reasons, women couldn’t work full time like people, the gap between the lifetime earnings between women and men is expanded. Furthermore, the gender wage gap also causes gender retirement income gap, the retirement income women who are 65 or older is $10418, but men’s is $13234 (Costello 2016). Moreover, the gender wage gap has a severe impact on single mother households, because of the gender wage gap, making it even harder for single parents themselves and their families to provide economic security，and more single parent households were living in poverty.

References:

Costello, B.C. (2016). The Gender Wage Gap and Public Policy. Briefing Paper, IWPR #C507. Washington DC: Institute for Women’s Policy Research.

Hegewisch, Ariane, Emily Ellis, and Heidi Hartmann. 2015. “The Gender Wage Gap: 2014; Earnings Differences by Race and Ethnicity.” Fact Sheet, IWPR #C430. Washington DC: Institute for Women’s Policy Research. <http://www.iwpr.org/publications/pubs/the-gender-wage-gap-2014-earnings- differences-by-race-and-ethnicity>

Nyhus, K. E., & Pons, E. (2012). Personality and the gender wage gap, Applied Economics, 44:1, 105-118.

Question 15: Biology

What is biology

Question 16: Philosophy

Which Value Theory do you find most convincing? Why?

We have covered three different theories of value: hedonism, desire satisfaction theory, the objective list theory. Please briefly explain and defend whichever theory of value you find most credible. You should approach this task by presenting arguments, evidence, and/or examples that support your chosen theory. You might also consider presenting arguments, evidence, and/or examples that, in your view, discredit alternative theories.

Question 17: Finance

Consider the case of the Cast Iron Company. On each nondelinquent sale, Cast Iron receives revenues with a present value of $1,300 and incurs costs with a present value of $1,000. Cast Iron’s costs have increased from $1,000 to $1,150. Assuming that there is no possibility of repeat orders and that the probability of successful collection from the customer is p = 0.96, answer the following.

a-1. What is the expected profit of granting credit? (Negative amount should be indicated by a minus sign. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

a-2. Should Cast Iron grant or refuse credit?

Grant
Refuse

What is the break-even probability of collection? (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 1 decimal place.)

Question 18: Finance

Here is a forecast of sales by National Bromide for the first 4 months of 2017 (figures in thousands of dollars):

Month:	1	2	3	4
Cash sales		22			31	25	21
Credit sales		135			155	125	105

On average, 60% of credit sales are paid for in the current month, 20% in the next month, and the remainder in the month after that. What are the expected cash collections in months 3 and 4? (Enter your answers in whole dollars not in thousands of dollars.)

(The months arent lined up correctly, they should be on top of each column)

Question 19: Finance

Chapter 19:Managerial Finance

Complete the statement of sources and uses of cash from the following entries:


Net income	$	2,700
Dividends		600
Additions to inventory		240
Additions to receivables		270
Depreciation		210
Reduction in payables		670
Net issuance of long-term debt		420
Sale of fixed assets		180


Sources
Issued long-term debt
Sale of fixed assets
Cash from operations:
Net income
Depreciation
Total sources
Uses
Additions to inventory
Increase in accounts receivable
Decrease in accounts payable
Payment of dividends
Total uses

Question 20: English

Major Paper #2: The Personal Narrative Essay

We will be working on the Personal Narrative essay for the next three units. The Personal Narrative will be due at the end of Unit #7.

A narrative is simply a story. A personal narrative is a true story, focusing largely on the writer’s own life.

For Essay #2, the Personal Narrative, you will be writing a short essay, at least 3-4 pages (roughly 750-1000 words) in length, about a significant event in your own life. This event need not—and probably should not—be inherently, overly dramatic. Sometimes the most influential moments in our lives are smaller moments, events that we may not recognize as influential until years after the experience. In the personal narrative essay, you will want to tell the story as accurately as you can—search your deep memory—and tell the story from your own perspective. You will also want to exercise your selectivity as a writer, choosing to summarize background information/exposition, and really dramatize important scenes for the reader.

During the course of this unit, you will want to read the examples of the Personal Narrative in Chapter 2. You will want to start brainstorming ideas for your own personal narrative, and–by the end of Unit 5–you will want to have selected a significant event that you wish to focus on in this essay.

Here is one sample personal narrative:

Kyle Terry

“Cops”

Even as a law breaking mischievous youth I had always looked up to Police Officers in my neighborhood. I even looked up to them when they would chase my friends and I when we snuck out at night and kicked sprinkler heads off, or got caught drinking underage. I loved to watch the show “Cops” and always pictured myself in the situations being portrayed on television. In my youth I did a lot of things that most people would look down on and police departments may shun you for, but that didn’t stop me from aspiring to join their ranks.

After serving in the military for over five years and attaining the rank of SGT (P), I was sent orders for recruiting. This was not the path I wanted my career to go down, so I opted to decline the orders. Once I had done this I was faced with a decision, what should I do now? I decided I would try to get hired at a local police department. At the time I was stationed in Manhattan, KS and had to choose between Manhattan, Salina, and Topeka. Topeka and Manhattan were testing on the same days and as fate would have it I decided to give Manhattan a try.

Having no navigational skills in the city I was first challenged in finding the testing sight for the physical agility test. The site was located at the RCPD range, which was off of Pillsbury Drive , near Pillsbury Crossing. When I arrived I was shocked to see that I would be up against forty some odd people fighting for five or six slots. Once I got out of my truck and started talking to other hopeful applicants I became worried. What was I going to do if I didn’t get hired I asked myself. I felt as though I was under qualified after finding out that 60%- 70% of the applicants had degrees in Criminal Justice. I thought for sure that college would be a major hiring point. I had come this far though and had no reason to doubt my ability to prove myself on an obstacle course.

The air was thin and cold on this particular day, making just breathing a chore. Gazing out at the course the towers were tall and a long climb, the walls were high with steep drops to the other side. Tires lined the courses isles to test your agility running through them, and at the end of the obstacle course there was a 170 pound dummy that you had to drag to a safe zone. I felt confident since I was still in the Army and was in the best cardiovascular condition in my life. The lieutenant introduced himself to the crowd and began explaining the course, at the end of his explanation and demonstration he asked for volunteers to go first. In my mind I thought it would be good to volunteer, but I had learned early on in the Army not to volunteer for anything. I held my ground and stayed back to gauge the motivated people stepping to the front. I felt as if watching them would give me an edge. I watched several individuals run through the course until it was finally my turn.

Once I stepped up to the starting line my adrenaline was pumping full blast, I felt unstoppable at that point. I had heard the fastest time was 2:09 through the course on this day and I was determined to beat it. I took off up the steep flight of stairs and down the other side simulating a chase. I felt like a wild animal closing on my prey as I hopped the fence and dropped to the other side. Next I ran through a make shift neighborhood setting and to a high wall I had to climb. Once at the top I ran down the steps and around the turnaround point. It was then that I realized how fast I was moving, I was flying through the course and hurting badly inside. I told myself that it was mind over matter and to suck it up for another 30 seconds. I ran to the shooting simulation and picked the bad guy out of the stand up targets, ran to the dummy drag and drug the 170 pounds 20 yards like a dog carries a flea on a daily basis.

Once I was at the end of the line I heard the scorer yell “2:03.” I had done it. At that point I felt as if the job were in the bag. My score got beat by a fraction of a second later in the day, but I was still proud that I was able to overcome the pain to get to the finish line. After several vocabulary tests, spelling tests, writing tests, and a few oral review boards I was hired. I lived my childhood dream of becoming a Police Officer for three years. It was a thankless job in many ways, but it was also gratifying at times. I have since moved to San Antonio and changed professions, but often reflect on some of the experiences I had. I know I wouldn’t have changed it for the world.

***

Here is another sample personal narrative:

Spc Shannon Thomas

Fort Riley, Kansas

“My Dancing Roots”

Like rain showers breaking the silence of midnight, the thunderous applause poured over that final sustained-for-emphasis A-flat and me. My friends were whistling and hooting like they just heard their favorite song by their idolized music artist at a sold-out concert. I was all smiles. Although it was only my first vocal music recital at my new high school, my new friends truly made me feel celebrated. We were all artists, born and made from the same peculiar passion that drives us to dedicate ourselves daily to the perfecting of whatever it is we do. Family oriented by choice, there was a nurturing and supportiveness that was contagious among the students and faculty. This school required a rigorous two auditions and an interview with the principal and a senior faculty member from the students intended major. The end result, I shared the hallway with only 200+ students from grades eight through twelve. I have experience singing in Italian, Latin, French, German, Hebrew, and Spanish. Being a vocal music major with a minor in performance piano is what I have always done and was always perfectly content doing. Imagine the awkwardness when I found out that this small performing arts high-school was so exclusively “artsy” that for Physical Education credits, students are required to take Ballet Technique Level I to fulfill the requirement! I distinctly remember thinking, “This is going to be the biggest, longest, stupidest waste of time.”

Most non-dancers shared this depressing requiem. Over lunch the 16-year-old prodigy trumpet player laments how a dance teacher tried to make him stretch his legs open, “This wide!” with his arms outstretched like the crucified Man Of Sorrows. The Sophomore painter shows a doodle of the dizzying stars she saw when they tried to teach her to just spin and spin from one end of the dance studio to the other. A Communications student described his tragedy at Ballet I, as an event so calamitous it “should have been televised.” Clumsily dodging the other beginners as he fumbled through each combination looked less like dancing and more like these beginners had synchronized the ants in there pants. “Anti-graceful” was the agreed upon description for all non-dancers. I was definitely not looking forward to my “first class” experience.

The dressing room was a mixed territory of veteran ballerinas and the tenderfoot wannabe’s that would dare hold a class within a mile of their talent. The distinctions in dress between the two groups were strikingly obvious to me. We all hold to the same basic standard of black tights, leotard, and hair in a neat bun or chignon out of the face and off the neck. Still, there were details in the clothing itself that separated the novice from the seasoned. The experts wore hundred-times-washed, simple leotards, tights that used to be footed but now had lost fights with a scissor along the way up their bulging calf muscles, some had leg-warmers borrowed from the 1980’s, with functional-looking shoes that looked danced to death. They were quite unashamed of their neat-pauper kind of look. The aspirants were like seventh-graders on the first day of school, all fixated on making a good first impression with every shred of dance apparel brand new. I noted that the vets looked prepared to break a sweat and the wannabe’s were, of course, clueless.

We filed in slowly like wallflowers, utterly afraid of the open space with a tell-all-your-secrets mirror that spanned one entire wall. The instructor pranced in motivated to embarrass a fresh group of victims assembled for his viewing entertainment. He instead graciously encouraged this group of painters, musicians, and playwrights, with words of affirmation and empathy. He began as a graphic artist himself and got wooed into the dance world. A community of racing pulses instantly slowed to a shared sigh of relief as his speech ended with his humble admission of familiarity to our scary and new world. “Now class, approach the barres.” It was time to begin.

Though he moved like molasses through the first combinations it was surprisingly tough to mimic. Contorting into strange twists and bends was taking a toll on my body after the first week. I finally decided to try to embrace and maybe even think about enjoying being a dance student though I truly would have been happy to simply learn the classical piano music we were wasting on the Dance Department. Over the passing weeks the class, as a whole, improved steadily and we began to respect and admire the craft as well as take on new challenges. One morning my teacher required of us an impossible task . In our first lessons we would do each combo with our beloved instructor in front of us as we all faced the mirror for reinforcement. Now we are being required to dance with him out of our sight for cues. Without him front and center to guide our intended outcome, it was much harder to remember what to make your leg and arm do simultaneously, plus when to do it! Not only did my muscles ache, my brain was now a cardholding member of the, “Organs and Muscle Groups Who Hate Shannon Association”. After painful attempts with some few victories, we eventually got used to not being bottle-fed our choreography. A few of us even acquired a hole here and there in our tights and shoes. Yes!!

When women cry, I have heard it said from men that they can never really tell which emotion has surfaced, so either way a well-meaning hug is usually appropriate. The following year and several thousand dance steps later, I signed up for the next level in dance instruction. My request was denied. A knot got stuck in my throat then found it’s way all the way down to my heart and I said to my self, maybe next semester. I cried. Disappointed, I began wrapping my mind around the fact that I was probably destined to just be a singer who played piano. I showed the transcript to a good friend who pointed out that a certain code did not denote a denial, but a skip to the next level higher than I originally requested. My dance teachers had decided I was progressing rapidly enough to skip all intermediate dance courses and proceed to Advanced level 1. I cried, again Then somewhere in between, this happiness made me jump up and down in the hallway clapping.

I remember the day I entered that same locker room with a new attitude. The newbie’s were still dressed as newbies, and the experts were still identifiable as experts. Where do I fit in? I looked in a small mirror to see that I resembled an expert on the outside, but felt like a newbie that secretly acquired a backstage pass to an expert class. The weeks went by and there were a lot of times I felt like I was a kitten breathlessly struggling to run among cheetahs. The combinations were more precise, and the transitions from one combo to the next were quicker, almost seamless. I was beginning to accept my place in the rankings as the least experienced expert. You know the one who, as a peer, you never really go to with a question, but usually approach with your own good advice and tips. Whenever a new dance move is taught, we all attempt the choreography one by one in a sort of conga line across the floor. The student who performs it the most accurate is called out to express it alone so the rest of the class can learn a bit more about how to correctly execute. One day, we were all taught a brand new type of leap and after demonstrating our attempts one by one, I was called out! I thought I had done something so wrong, I would be told that I represent what NOT to do. Turns out I was the only dancer who demonstrated an understanding of what the leap should look like. I did the combination solo and received smiles, pats on the back, and a reassurance that I was in the right place. I leaped the highest I had ever leaped, right into the stride of a cheetah.

My report back at the lunch table that first day of a new school year was one animated with surprise and excitement as I learned that I was maybe multi-talented! My story began like theirs once did, but I discovered the lesson in my experience was in blooming where I was planted. When I perceived I was plopped into a rocky place unfit for the kind of growth I was interested in, I had to uncomfortably tunnel deeper to find that there was good soil beneath. My dancing roots can now be traced to that famous school of the arts where I had begun dancing and have yet to stop to this day.

Question 21: Computer Science

ITEC 1620 Assignment #2

Due: July 16, 11 PM; Late submissions rejected.
Submission upload must be in plain text file; all others will be rejected.
Name your file with your full name, e.g., peggy_carter.txt.
Programs/codes must compile to receive credit.
Include appropriate comments describing significant parts of the program.

Write a program called RollingDice2 that uses the Die class (Ch. 4) to play an interactive game as specified below:

The program creates two instances of the Die class where one is the computer’s die, and the other is the user’s die.
The program should have a loop that iterates 10 times rolling both dice.
In each iteration the die with the higher value wins. If a tie, there is no winner.
The program should keep count of the number of times the computer and the user wins.
When the loop ends, the program displays the number of each wins, ties and the overall winner

as per example below:

e.g. Computer Wins: 3 User Wins: 5

Ties: 2
The User wins overall!

Write a class named DaysOfMonth. The class’s constructor should accept two integer arguments for the month (1 to 12) and the year.

The class includes a method named getNumOfDays that returns the number of days in the specified month.

A year is a leap year if divisible by 100 and if and only if also divisible by 400; otherwise, if and only if divisible by 4.

Write a driver program named DaysOfMonthDriver that asks the user to enter the month (1 -12) and the year. The program should then display the number of days in that month as per the example below.

e.g. Enter a month (1-12): 2 Enter a year: 2019

There are 28 days in that month.

Question 22: Business

For this assignment, you will be the head of a department within a larger organization. Your department has its own highly effective organizational culture. Write to the company leadership to describe your department’s culture, why it’s effective, and what strategies you think the company as a whole might adopt in order to foster your organizational culture company wide.

Include the following:

The type of culture your department exhibits, and why it encourages employee effectiveness
Examples of artifacts, values, and assumptions that support your department’s culture
A suggested plan for creating culture change in the company as a whole

Your paper should be 2-3 pages long, have a title page, and include a minimum of 3 references formatted in APA style.

Question 23: Other

What are the key differences between relationship and task conflict? Why is task conflict more productive in groups than relationship conflict, and what are some of the ways to turn relationship conflict into task conflict for the greater good of the group?
Think of a conflict that occurred in a team you were a part of and analyze it according to the Managerial Grid model.
What are some of the arguments for the ineffectiveness of group brainstorming? What can be done to restructure the design of brainstorming groups to increase productivity and improve performance?

Question 24: Communications

BSCOM 260 Week 1 Technical Communication Review

BSCOM 260 Week 1 Understanding Technical Communication

BSCOM 260 Week 2 Ethics and Audience in Technical Writing and Communication

BSCOM 260 Week 2 Intercultural Considerations in Technical Communication

BSCOM 260 Week 3 Final Project Research Summary

BSCOM 260 Week 3 Application Letter

BSCOM 260 Week 4 Final Project Organizing for Readers

BSCOM 260 Week 5 Online Student Guide

BSCOM 260 Week 5 Final Project Training Instructions

Questions 25: Communications

Write a 350- to 1,050-word list of definitions that responds to the following scenario:

You are working for a university with international online students and need to contribute to a guide written for the new online student. Your task is to come up with a list of commonly used terms and define them.

Write definitions that can be easily understood by someone who is new to the online environment. If you are a ground student, write a list of terms that relate to the ground student’s experience. Draw from your experience depending on your learning modality.

Submit your assignmentas a Microsoft® Word document to your instructor.

Question 26: Communications

BSCOM 260 Weeks 5 Final Project Training Instructions|Complete solution

Write one objective for your training. The objective should be written as a complete sentence and begin with an action verb, such as in the following example:

Apply the format painter to select document headings.

You may have more than one objective. If this is the case, write out your additional objective or objectives.

Submit your complete training on your selected topic in one of the following formats:

A Microsoft® Word document consisting of 2 to 3 pages
A 5- to 7-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation
Another format with the approval of your instructor

Question 27: Communications

BSCOM 260 WEEK 3 Final Project Research Summary|Complete Solution

Submit a 350- to 700-word research summary on your chosen topic for your training due in Week 5. You must review three or four resources for this assignment. Include responses to the following:

What resources have you reviewed?
How did you determine the validity of these resources?
Are they primary or secondary resources?
What are the best practices involved in research for technical writing and communication?
What research best practices are the most important to apply? Why do you think so?

Submit your assignment to the Assignment Files tab.

Question 28: General Question

MHA 516 Consumer And Provider Cost

Question 29: General Question

Penn Nutrition Basics lesson 3 700124RR

Question 30: Business

Before approaching this assignment, be sure that you have watched the following video.

Budgetary Planning featuring Babycakes *FULL VIDEO*. (2016). YouTube.

Babycakes, a specialty bakery, is the company that will be considered for all parts of your budget planning and control report. For this assignment, you will develop a three to four (3 – 4) page paper in which you address the following.

Briefly discuss the ways a realistic budget will benefit the owner of Babycakes versus having no budget at all. Be sure to use Babycakes as the company and any specific product details in your explanation.
Prepare a sales budget for the LA Babycakes store for the 4th quarter of 2016. Present the number of units, sales price, and total sales for each month; include October, November, and December, and a total for the quarter. Use one-half of the Valentine’s Day sales as the basis for a usual day in the new quarter. Use 30 days for each month. Calculate the total sales for each month for October, November, and December.
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Create three (3) new products, one (1) for each of the three (3) holiday seasons in the 4th quarter. Estimate the sales units, sales price, and total sales for each month. Describe the assumptions used to make these estimates. Include an overview of the budget in the report, presenting the actual budget as an appendix with all data and calculations. Add these amounts to your sales budget.
The owner of Babycakes is interested in preparing a flexible budget rather than the static budget she currently uses. She does not understand why, when sales increase, her static budget often shows an unfavorable variance. Explain how a flexible budget will overcome this problem. Use the details of your newly prepared budget for the 4th quarter of 2016 to address her concern.
Imagine that Babycakes is facing a financial challenge that is causing the actual amount of money that it spends to become significantly more than its budgeted amount. Include a discussion of your own unique cause of the overspending. Explain the corrective actions needed to address these challenges.
Integrate relevant information from at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Please do not use your textbook as an academic resource. Also, Wikipedia and other Websites that are unreliable do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements.
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.
An abstract is not required.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Evaluate management control systems and examine their relationship with accounting and planning, including feedback and non-ﬁnancial performance measurements.
Evaluate decision-making tools for capital investments, budgeting, and budgeting controls.
Analyze financial accounting tools and techniques that convert financial accounting data into information for decision making.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in financial accounting for managers.
Write clearly and concisely about financial accounting using proper writing mechanics.

Question 1: Education

Instruction

Discussion: Carly’s Cafe- Analysis of Individual Differences Watch the video: Carly’s Cafe-Experience Autism Through Carly’s Eyes https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KmDGvquzn2k After watching the video, comment on Carly’s perception of the world, or Individual Differences. Discuss and analyze the Individual Differences observed in the clip. This may include any/all of the following (as applicable): Sensory differences Motor planning challenges Difficulties with appropriate social Interactions Communication differences Thoughts related to overall intelligence/ cognition Special Interests Personality Learning Style Please respond to any of the applicable areas listed above (if not applicable, please respond N/A). For each identified area, be sure to note what is observed, what is happening/ why/ what this tells us about the individual as it relates to autism, and how you would help if present. You will comment on the post of 2 classmates.

Question 2: General

Instruction

Pick a Topic related to Parenting (for example, Attachment, Juvenile Delinquency, Identity, or Divorce) and summarize a longitudinal, cross-sectional, or sequential research study article from a peer-reviewed Psychology Journal. Papers must be 700 to 900 words, Times New Roman, 11-point font, with information properly referenced, paraphrased, and/or in quotations. Reference the Journal article using APA style, use 1-inch margins and double-spacing. You will need a cover page, a running head, page numbers, a reference page, etc. No papers sent by e-mail will be accepted. Late papers will have one letter grade deducted for every week late. Please contact me with proper documentation to be considered for any leniency regarding these policies. It is highly recommended that you follow the word count (points will be deducted for word counts substantially under or over), interpret and report the findings in your own words as much as possible, and if necessary visit the University Learning Center for writing assistance. In addition, it is very important that this is an original paper for this class; papers written for previous classes will not be accepted. Turnitin.com will designate which papers have been submitted before and rate them with a high unoriginality index

Question 3: General

Instruction

Tell the class about the public hearing or meeting you observed, summarize the proceedings, and share your personal impressions. What do you think about the meeting and how it was conducted? For the citation credit, be sure to provide the organization/government website, date, time and location of the meeting. One (1) original post and one (1) response post are required per assigned discussion (The system requires you post an original post prior to a response, it will not allow a response without an original post!) The approximate length of an original post is 250 words, 25 lines The approximate length of the response post is 100 words, 10 lines

Question 4 : General

Instruction

Attend in-person any approved public meeting (e.g. city or county commission, planning and zoning meeting, community development association, etc.) directly related to the public sector. Write a 2-3 page reflective summary of the proceedings, and be sure to include the date, time, location and purpose of the meeting. Include a picture of yourself at the meeting or holding up the agenda as proof of attendance. If absolutely necessary, students may watch a televised or online meeting, but will be subject to a 1.5 point reduction to their assignment grade. Please include the website and bios of any officials you spoke to .

Question 5 : Psychology

In 2-3 pages, respond to the following:

Identify the four causes and effects you have selected to incorporate into an integrated critical analysis narrative.
Write an integrated critical analysis narrative that incorporates the four causes and effects you identified.
Explain your reaction to the results of your critical analysis. Could these causes have been prevented? Which one do you think was most important in leading to the problem?

Question 6: English

Student Name: _____________________________ Date: ________________________

Class: ________________________ Teacher: _________________________________

Macbeth Worksheet

Read the statement. Provide a detailed response in complete sentences with supporting evidence from act 5 of Macbeth.

What does the doctor see in the sleepwalking scene, and what does he speculate about the causes for what he sees?

___________________________________________________________________________

What does Macbeth say when he hears of Lady Macbeth’s death? What does his reaction to her death reveal about what he thinks about the Lady Macbeth’s state of mind?

___________________________________________________________________________

What does Macbeth say about the witches when he learns that Birnam Wood is apparently moving and that Macduff “was from his mother’s womb / untimely ripped”? What growing realization do these statements about the witches seem to reflect?

___________________________________________________________________________

What happens in the final scene in act 5?

___________________________________________________________________________

Do you think a tragedy could be written about an ordinary person? Why or why not?

___________________________________________________________________________

Student Name: _____________________________ Date: ________________________

Class: ________________________ Teacher: _________________________________

Shakespeare Treasure Hunt Worksheet

Read the statement. Research the answer. Answer true or false and state the source of the answer, such as an Internet address. If the answer is false, explain why it is false.

The exact date of William Shakespeare’s death is unknown.

Answer: _________________________________________________________________

Source: __________________________________________________________________

Shakespeare wrote in Old English.

Answer: _________________________________________________________________

Source: __________________________________________________________________

Shakespeare’s oldest sister Joan died at the age of 77.

Answer: _________________________________________________________________

Source: __________________________________________________________________

William Shakespeare married Anne Hathaway.

Answer: _________________________________________________________________

Source: __________________________________________________________________

The Earl of Southampton was Shakespeare’s patron.

Answer: _________________________________________________________________

Source: __________________________________________________________________

In the 1600s, during the performance of Shakespeare’s play Henry VIII, the Globe Theatre burned down due to cannon fire that ignited the roof, which was made of straw.

Answer: _________________________________________________________________

Source: __________________________________________________________________

During Shakespeare’s time, boys played the roles of women in the theater.

Answer: _________________________________________________________________

Source: __________________________________________________________________

Shakespeare’s wife was eight years younger than he was.

Answer: _________________________________________________________________

Source: __________________________________________________________________

“To be, or not to be, that is the question” is a quote from the play Hamlet.

Answer: _________________________________________________________________

Source: __________________________________________________________________

Shakespeare’s parents’ names were William and Anne.

Answer: _________________________________________________________________

Source: __________________________________________________________________

Question 7: Computer Science

Instruction

Please refer to attachments and summary.

Network Design Proposal. The writer should be very knowledgeable in network design (preferably Network+ certified) The paper will consist of three separate parts including Network Design, Net Addressing and Security, and Network Customization and Optimization. The writer will have a template to use only for that very reason. All parts should be completed in full and not reiterated from the template. Each part should include 5 references using IEEE-style citations. Please submit each part separately (3 files). The paper needs to be done by the deadline no exceptions. Paper will be turned into Turnitin so please reframe from plagiarism. Attached is the overview and template. Thank you very much and I look forward to working with the assigned writer.

Overview

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https:// Your proposal will be submitted in three major parts:

Use the template as a guide while creating your Network Design Proposal (Parts 1-3). Include at least five scholarly references in each of the three submissions. Thus a total of fifteen scholarly references will be included. Use IEEE-style citations. We do not use APA or MLA-style citations. The use of figures and diagrams is encouraged. Students will properly cite the figures and diagrams according to the IEEE-style citation.

Network Design Part 1

In this section, address each of the following.

Define the network topology that will be used and justify the decision.

Select the appropriate cables and connectors and justify the decision. Describe where wired connections will be used within or across the two new academic buildings and justify the decision. Students must use both wired and wireless technologies.

Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Select the appropriate networking and internetworking hardware for each building, and justify the decision.

Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Select the appropriate Wide Area Network (WAN) design and wireless configuration, and justify the decision. Students must use both wired and wireless technologies.

Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Select the appropriate computer systems hardware to use to support the faculty, students, and overall network design; and justify the decision(s).

Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Net Addressing and Security (Part 2)

In this section, address each of the following.

IP Addressing:

Watch How to Subnet a Network Video provided in Content -> Project Instructions

Security

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Select each of the firewall types to implement, describe network or host-based placement, and configuration details; and justify each of the decisions.

Students should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Select an IDS, IPS, or both for the network and justify your decision.

Students should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Define a DMZ implementation and justify the decision.

Select physical security measures for each of the new academic buildings and justify the decision.

Students should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Select additional network security measures to be implemented and justify the decision. They should include:

How you will protect against social engineering attacks, and justify your decision?
How you will protect against faculty or students willingly, or unwillingly introducing malware onto the network, and justify your decision?
What secure protocols you will require for faculty and students to use while accessing resources internal, or external to the network, and justify your decision?

Network Customization and Optimization (Part 3)

In this section, address each of the following.

Identify network storage and cloud based services that will be available for faculty and students

Students should be specific when discussing the configuration and implementation.

Identify the proper data protection and backup method and implementation, and justify your decision.

Students should consider the needs of the administration, faculty, and students.

Identify a network monitoring solution and describe how this will enable the optimization of the network, and justify your decision.

Students should be specific when describing protocol analyzers, network monitoring tools, and packet sniffers

Identify how logs will be stored, managed, and how long the university will keep them, and justify your answer

Students should consider this in the context of the network or cloud based storage selected.

UMUC has not decided how they will use all of the physical space within the newly leased building. However, they have decided to use some of the space. The overall plan is to use the building as provided in the above diagram. However, initially, the building will house five classrooms, one student computer lab, library, and an office.

In the above building diagrams, we will use Office 5 (Admissions) on the first floor. The classrooms are labeled Classroom #1, Classroom #2, and Classroom #4 on the first floor and Classroom #1 and Classroom #5 on the second floor; each computer lab will have a closet. Each classroom will have 25 devices: 23 student computers, 1 instructor computer, and 1 server in the closet for instructional use. Students should consider high traffic areas for Wi-Fi, such as the sitting areas and not the classrooms. The Wi-Fi network should be segregated from the wired network, and implemented on a separate Class C network. What will the network address, range, and broadcast address for this separate Class C wireless address be?

In addition, there will be a student computer lab that will provide computer access to students to do their homework. There will be 24 computers in this lab and 1 server in the closet. To allow students access to library resources, the library will also have 10 computers for the general public to use and 5 computers for library staff, for a total of 15 devices in the library. Finally, the office (Admissions) will have 25 devices. Each of these offices will have one computer for staff use, with the exception of the admissions office, which will have five computers. There will be two server rooms, one on the first floor and one on the second floor.

Network Design Proposal Template

Network Design Proposal

Prepared for:

University of Maryland University College

Prepared by:

Student Name

Network Design

Network Topology

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements. Use the information provided in the scenario to analyze the need for network topology, cables and connectors, networking and internetworking devices, wide area networking design, and computer systems. If you need more information, feel free to ask your instructor or make some assumptions. If you make assumptions, be sure to list them. This section should be used to describe the technical requirements of the task at hand. That is, you will be making explicit the requirements as you understand them, which will lead to the next section (your proposed solution).

Example (Note: The paragraph that follows is an example. It is expected that students will use this as a reference only. Remember to include references and cite your work according to IEEE-style format.)

Secure Network Contractors believes that students and faculty health, wellbeing, and morale have a significant impact on the learning experience and productivity of the academic institution. Secure Network Contractors understands the following technical requirements. The university has invested in a new building that will bestow an academic ambience while providing students and faculty a world class research and learning environment. The university has hundreds of Faculty that teach and perform research within the new academic building. Faculty should be able to seamlessly transition between the newly leased building, and other buildings on the UMUC campus. Students will be required to have a similar experience as classes take place in multiple buildings across campus each day. Faculty and students will be required to print regardless of location, and therefore needs shared printing resources. All computers should be able to communicate, but the human resources department should operate on a separate network due to the sensitive and personally identifiable information they handle. We understand that the newly leased building will need to wirelessly communicate with other buildings on campus, and we will address this in the Wide Area Network (WAN) section that follows. Etc. (students should continue to explain the technical requirements).

Proposed Topology

Select one or more topologies to use for this design (i.e., star, bus, mesh, ring, and please note that the star topology is the most commonly used). This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed solution. Be specific and include the model, manufacturer, features, and cost of devices where appropriate. Students should include a visual representation of the topology selected. Topologies can be created using Microsoft Visio, or you can create a free account at draw.io (https://www.draw.io) and create diagrams. Be sure to review the types of topologies and highlight the benefits and drawbacks for each.

Example (Note: The paragraph that follows is an example. It is expected that students will use this as a reference only. Furthermore, you must include a chart comparing and contrasting the different options available to meet the requirement. An example is provided below and should be used as a reference only. Remember to include references and cite your work according to IEEE-style format.)

Secure Network Contractors believes that from a comparison of all the types available a ring topology is the best solution based on the requirements described by the University of Maryland University College (UMUC). We believe a ring topology satisfies the requirements of forming a single, continuous pathway for data to be transmitted through each node. A ring network topology in where each node connects to exactly two other nodes. A node on a network can be considered a computer, laptop, printer, or mobile device. Each node has a unique network address, which is referred to as the Media Access Control (MAC) address. The MAC address provides… Etc. (students should continue to explain their proposal).

The following business case analysis show the three potential hardware solutions to the requirement provided. This is an example of a chart that could be included in the Proposal aspect of each section. The visual presents the ability for the reader to understand the variables considered during the analysis of the three potential hardware solutions.

[The requirements are on the top row. The green in the table shows options that meet requirements, red does not, and blue exceeds requirements. As you can see in the above table, not all requirements can be met. You will need to explain in your Justification why the selection you made gives the school the best available option for the cost. The options that meet or exceed the requirements may cost too much. Your job is to decide what the best option is and present it to management. So, based on the requirements, which phone would you select for meeting those requirements at the least cost?]

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the requirement(s). That is, you are explaining why you proposed the solution in the aforementioned paragraph, based on the technical requirement you made explicit in aforementioned paragraph.

Secure Network Contractors believes that a ring topology is the best solution based on the requirements described by the University of Maryland University College (UMUC). Specifically, the requirement that data flows in one direction, reducing the chance of packet collisions. The ring topology reduce the need for network servers because they are not needed to control network connectivity between each workstation. Etc. (students should continue to explain their proposal).

Cables and Connectors

Note: (Students should consider the needs for both a wired and wireless implementation as your proposal should include both.)

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to cables and connectors. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Cables and Connectors

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed solution, based on the technical requirements and assumptions. Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions., The justification should explain why you chose what you did and how it meets the UMUC’s goals for training and presentation to students

Networking and Internetworking Hardware

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to networking and internetworking hardware. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Networking and Internetworking Devices

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed LAN solution, based on the technical requirements and assumptions. Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

Wide Area Network (WAN) Design

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to the Wide Area Network (WAN) design. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Wide Area Network (WAN) Design

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed Internet Service Provider (ISP) solution. Be sure to cover what options are available through leased lines, metro Ethernet, and dedicated connections are based on the technical requirements and assumptions. Students should connect to the ISP with two different technologies. Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

Computer Systems Hardware

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to the computer systems hardware for both classroom end points and servers as well as what would be needed for dedicated IT use. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Computer Systems Hardware

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

II. Network Addressing and Security

Subnetting

Overview

Subnetting is a process of breaking a large network into small networks known as subnets. Subnetting happens when we extend the default boundary of the subnet mask. Basically, we borrow host bits to create networks (i.e., subnets).

We have been assigned the network address 192.168.13.0. Based on the chart below, we know this is a Class C address. This is determined by observing the first octet of the IP address, which is 192. This octet falls in between 192 and 223.

Class	Octet Decimal Range
A	1 – 126
B	128 – 191
C	192 – 223

Each class has a predefined default subnet mask that tells us the octets, which are already part of the network portion, as well as how many bits we have available to work with.

Class	Subnet Mask	Format
A	255.0.0.0	Network.Host.Host.Host
B	255.255.0.0	Network.Network.Host.Host
C	255.255.255.0	Network.Network.Network.Host

CIDR (Classless Inter Domain Routing)

CIDR is a slash notation of the subnet mask. CIDR tells us the number of on bits in a network address.

Class A has default subnet mask 255.0.0.0. that means first octet of the subnet mask has all on bits. In slash notation, it would be written as /8, means address has 8 bits on.

Class B has default subnet mask 255.255.0.0. that means first two octets of the subnet mask have all on bits. In slash notation, it would be written as /16, means address has 16 bits on.

Class C has default subnet mask 255.255.255.0. that means first three octets of the subnet mask have all on bits. In slash notation, it would be written as /24, means address has 24 bits on.

Technical Requirements

UMUC has not decided how they will use all of the physical space within the newly leased building, but the diagrams below convey the proposed end state. However, they have decided to use some of the space in the short term. In doing so, we will proceed with the proposed plan. Initially, the building will house 5 classrooms, 1 student computer lab, 1 library, and 1 office.

In the below building diagrams, we will use Office 5 (Admissions) on the first floor. This office will have 25 devices to start. Based on the subnetting performed above, we may be able to add more devices in the future.

The classrooms are labeled Classroom #1, Classroom #2, and Classroom #4 on the first floor and Classroom #1 and Classroom #5 on the second floor; each classroom will have a closet. Each classroom will have 25 devices: 23 student computers, 1 instructor computer, and 1 server in the closet, for instructional use.

Students should consider high traffic areas for Wi-Fi, such as the sitting areas and not the classrooms. The Wi-Fi network should be segregated from the wired network and implemented on a separate Class C network. What will the network address, range, and broadcast address for this separate Class C wireless address be?

In addition, there will be a student computer lab that will provide computer access to students to do their homework. The student computer lab is located on the second floor. There will be 24 computers in this lab and 1 server in the closet.

To allow students access to library resources, the library will also have 10 computers for the general public to use and 5 computers for library staff.

To be clear, the diagram below conveys the proposed end state.

Given the aforementioned scenario, we are going to use the 192.168.13.0 network and create a total of 8 subnets, with 25 potential hosts on each subnet. The chart below conveys the scenario to include each subnet and required hosts.

Subnet Description	Required Hosts
Classroom 1 (First Floor)	25 Computers
Classroom 2 (First Floor)	25 Computers
Classroom 4 (First Floor)	25 Computers
Classroom 1 (Second Floor)	25 Computers
Classroom 5 (Second Floor)	25 Computers
Office 5 – Admissions (Second Floor)	25 Computers
Student Computer Lab	25 Computers
Library	15 Computers

Note: Using the How to Subnet a Network Video provided in CMIT 265 LEO – Content – UMUC Network Design Proposal, complete the following chart.

Proposed Subnet

Subnet	Network Address	Host Address Range	Broadcast Address
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255. ___
Classroom 1 (First Floor)	192.168.13.0	192.168.13.1 – 192.168.13.30	192.168.13.31
Classroom 2 (First Floor)	192.168.13. _	192.168.13. _ – 192.168.13. _	192.168.13. _
Classroom 4 (First Floor)	192.168.13. _	192.168.13. _ – 192.168.13. _	192.168.13. _
Classroom 1 (Second Floor)	192.168.13.96	192.168.13.97 – 192.168.13.126	192.168.13.127
Classroom 5 (Second Floor)	192.168.13.128	192.168.13.129 – 192.168.13.158	192.168.13.159
Office 5 – Admissions (Second Floor)	192.168.13. _	192.168.13. _ – 192.168.13. _	192.168.13. _
Student Computer Lab	192.168.13. _	192.168.13. _ – 192.168.13. _	192.168.13. _
Library	192.168.13. _	192.168.13. _ – 192.168.13. _	192.168.13. _
Wi-Fi Network	192.__. __.__	192._._. _ – 192._._. _	192._._. _

Firewall Implementation

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to the firewall implementation. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Firewall Implementation

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed solution, based on the technical requirements and assumptions. Be sure to review different types of firewalls available, what the firewall will be doing, and the benefits and drawbacks of some models are. Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

Intrusion Detection System / Intrusion Protection System

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to the intrusion detection system (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS). You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Intrusion Detection System / Intrusion Protection System

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed solution, based on the technical requirements and assumptions. Describe how IDS and IPS operates and how will or won’t IDS and or IPS be used in your solution? Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

DMZ Implementation

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to the DMZ implementation. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed DMZ Implementation

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed solution, based on the technical requirements and assumptions. What uses would UMUC need for a DMZ? What equipment should be placed into the DMZ? Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

Physical Security Measures

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to the physical security measures. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Physical Security Measures

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed solution, based on the technical requirements and assumptions. Be practical, as the classrooms and library are open for students to use. Be sure to address physical access of the computers in the classroom, remember law 3 of the 10 immutable laws of information security. Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

Additional Network Security Measures

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to the additional security measures. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Network Security Measures

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed solution, based on the technical requirements and assumptions. You should consider the carbon units utilizing the computers, what additional measures are needed when dealing with people? Student should be specific when discussing policy, training, and awareness.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

III. Network Customization and Optimization

Network and Cloud Based Storage

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to the network and cloud based storage. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Network and Cloud Based Storage

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions. Is it worthwhile to consider outsourcing some or all of the classrooms? Have all the costs been considered?

Data Protection and Backup

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to the data protection and backup. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Data Protection and Backup

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed solution, based on the technical requirements and assumptions. Consider disaster recovery and options available for conducting classes, but also day to day operations of the offices. Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

Network Monitoring

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to network monitoring. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Network Monitoring

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed solution, based on the technical requirements and assumptions. What monitoring systems are available and of them which would be the most advantageous for the UMUC to implement? Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

Log Storage and Management

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to the log storage and management. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Log Storage and Management

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed solution, based on the technical requirements and assumptions. What aggregating and analysis solutions are there and which one is best to choose from for UMUC? Student should be specific when discussing the models, types, and costs.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

Troubleshooting Methodology

Technical Requirements

In this section, you will assess UMUC’s technical requirements related to the troubleshooting methodology. You will need to make assumptions where appropriate. When making assumptions, list each and make sure to justify the solution in the Justification section.

Proposed Troubleshooting Methodology

This section should be used to provide the details of your proposed solution, based on the technical requirements and assumptions. Present the isolation method for equipment and how you could find one bad end point or a cable that is bad between classroom 1 and the IT server closet. Student should be specific when discussing the methods, test equipment, and results.

Justification

This section should be used to justify your proposed solution based on the technical requirements and assumptions.

Question 8: General

Instruction

See attached case study enclosed

Explain how the case study offered support for or against the: (a) the rational model; (b) the political model; and (c) the policy process model.
Which elements of the three-stage Cobb and Elder model on agenda setting could you identify in the case study?
Explain how Kingdon’s “three streams” model of the policy process sheds light on how human service policy developed in Allegheny County.
Your paper must be written at the graduate level and cited properly according to APA style guidelines Must Be at least 1200 words.

Case Study: The Expansion of Human Services in Allegheny County, 1968–95, Section I *

Preface and Introduction

This case study examines the policymaking process behind the change in the quantity and quality of services that took place in the human service arena in Allegheny County during the nearly three decades Thomas Foerster served as commissioner. It thus can serve effectively as a vehicle for evaluating the ideas presented earlier in the chapter (as well as ideas presented in the first four chapters). Allegheny County, with a population of 1.3 million people, covers 731 square miles, including Pittsburgh—second largest city in Pennsylvania. Allegheny County does not have Home Rule and therefore has no inherent right to self-govern beyond what the state constitution and the General Assembly grant. Three county commissioners serve as the executive and legislative officers of the county, which has 130 municipalities, each with its own government structure. The Second Class County Code adopted by the state legislature in 1933 and modified in 1955 guides Allegheny County government. The functions delegated to the county under this code include: “the management of county finances and property; maintenance of care for dependent children, indigent aged and prisoners; and construction and maintenance of county buildings, roads and bridges.” Additionally, numerous legislative acts passed in the 1960s and beyond have either granted permission, or mandated, that county government perform services “in the fields of public protection, land protection, land and air transportation, higher education, health, recreation and public welfare.”1 Simultaneously, the explanation of the policy process that preceded this case study serves as a framework from which to analyze how and why the growth in human services took place from 1968 to 1995. Also to be analyzed is the role that one individual, Commissioner Tom Foerster, played. Although he is often credited as a catalyst for the increase in human services offered, the commissioner is the first to say he is not the one who deserves the credit.2 This case study is based on interviews with the commissioner and individuals who worked within his administration, as well as program administrators from outside the administration who solicited and received support from Commissioner Foerster. In addition to interviews, documents and newspaper articles were utilized to gather information. The examination of human services during Commissioner Foerster’s tenure should result in increasing students’ understanding of the complex, ambiguous, messy, never-ending process of public policy, and demonstrate that, as Deborah Stone aptly states, “the making of public policy is strategically crafted argument.”3 Laura Lewis, the author of this case study, did not intend to provide all sides of the story, or a complete story; she provides one perspective and questions designed to help students examine the policymaking process. Despite attempts to remain a neutral outsider in the writing of this case, the author has made her biases evident. One cannot ever remain totally neutral. Section I discusses who Thomas Foerster is and what subsequently led to his philosophy on the proper role of county government and to his leadership style. Included will be an exploration of the commissioner’s early life experiences, his heroes, and their impact on his philosophy. As the key player focused on, Commissioner Foerster provides an opportunity to evaluate the ability of an individual to make a difference in the policy process. Did he affect human service policy and if so how? The stage is then set for a brief examination of how and why policy developed and evolved in the human service arena from 1968 to 1995. The role of the commissioner and other key players is an integral part of understanding this evolution. At the end of the Section I conclusion, several discussion questions are presented. A Case Appendix offers a brief postscript. Case Assignment First, if you are not 100 percent clear on any of the nine

following topics, then you need to review them thoroughly. For maximum learning they need to be kept in mind as you read the case study. They also serve as guides to the case’s discussion questions. Those discussion questions, listed at the end of the case, may be utilized as a case assignment. Your professor may assign some or all of them to you as individuals, or as work teams. Obviously, she or he may also choose to add questions that relate to other materials covered in your course. Overall, the focus should be on what the case says about the critiques of the rational model, the description of the essence of the public policy process as being political, and the policy process model. 1Kingdon’s Multiple Streams model of the policy process: a. the problem stream b. the policy proposal stream c. the politics stream. 2 Problem identification and gaining agenda status: a. How do initiatives gain agenda status? b. What are the criteria presented by Lester and Stewart? c. The three stages of the Cobb and Elder model on agenda setting: Stage I—initiators, trigger devices, and issue creation; Stage II—issue definition, symbol utilization, issue dimension, mass media emphasis, expansion to a larger public, systemic agenda; and Stage III—patterns of access, institutional agenda, action, or allocation. 3. Policy formulation, adoption, and funding. (Review why issues “make it” and the impact of funding on policy implementation.) 4. Funding, legitimization, administrative support. (Review how the values of the implementers and ongoing political battles affect implementation.) 5. Policy evaluation, adjustment, and, sometimes, termination. 6. Words and (causal) stories used to define, identify, and persuade. 7. Role of individuals in the policy process. 8. The use of biography in policy analysis. 9. Large role of politics in policy decisions (as seen in the prison siting case). Section I. Thomas Foerster: Influences on, and of, an Influential Public Servant Individuals who worked in the human service arena during Commissioner Foerster’s tenure refer to him as having a relentless resolve, a deep commitment to creating a level playing field for all, an ability to make things happen, humility, compassion, and wisdom. He is said to put people first and wants to assure that opportunity is available to all.1 This glowing rhetoric becomes meaningful when we look at the substantive policy initiatives he supported and promoted for the aged, for children, for families, for people with disabilities, and for veterans. The initiatives demonstrate the definitional meaning the commissioner has given to the goals of equality, liberty, efficiency, and equity.2 His understanding of what these goals mean, and the role of government in promoting them, began to be determined early in his life. Commissioner Foerster’s Youth and His Beginnings in Politics Thomas Foerster was born in 1928 to the late J. Edward Foerster and Eleanor (Heyl) Foerster. He spent 12 years attending Catholic schools and recalls vividly the message he heard each school day: “We were put on earth to help one another.” He asks, “How can this message not influence anyone who hears it over and over for twelve years?” The message seemed to influence the commissioner, as it undergirds his philosophy on the role of government. That is, he believes all levels of government should attempt to create opportunity for all and assure that the needs of vulnerable populations are met. A significant childhood recollection that imprinted the importance of government intervention was a public works program during the Great Depression. He recalls his mother and other women in his neighborhood serving sandwiches they had prepared to Work Progress Administration (WPA) workers who were laying Belgian blocks on their street. The WPA was able to provide jobs for some “and took some of that desperateness away,” but others not so lucky would go door to door asking for work in order to get a meal. “People were not just asking for a free handout, they were willing, and preferred to work for it.” His mother always provided food for those who asked. At mealtime during the warm months she would make sandwiches and set them on the porch where she knew they would quickly be consumed by those unable to secure employment. The compassion his mother and others showed had a lasting effect on him, as did his observation of the great benefits of public works jobs. He speaks of the “picnic shelters, the buildings, the underground structure that was built with water lines, dams, all things built by WPA workers that we are enjoying today.” He saw that the opportunity to work was all that these men wanted and if the private sector could not provide the jobs, the public sector must. “You have to preserve people’s dignity and willingness to work.” The WPA also had a profound effect on Foerster’s father. It was one of the factors that led his father to change his political views. His father was a conservative Republican who originally was “not enthralled with President Roosevelt and his programs.” Foerster recalls that his father did not hold back from preaching about his anti-Roosevelt views, but after watching the WPA workers pave his street he “really bought into the program.” Although his father was not without work himself during the Depression, he was forced to retire on a small pension, leading to financial worries and a recognition of the need for government assistance with things such as health care. Sports have been a big part of Commissioner Foerster’s life since childhood. He had coaches who supported him, who he could talk to, not just about sports but about life. He played that same role for many young athletes during the 23 years that he spent coaching different football, baseball, and basketball teams. Through his coaching efforts he carried out his philosophy that we are here to help each other. Football is his most loved sport and he coached numerous teams over the years. He started coaching grade school football as a hobby while a high school student. After his own practice was over he would go help the younger players. He recalls his first years in the Pennsylvania General Assembly, when during the middle of the week he would hurry home at night to his coaching job. He had to give up his coaching position when he was appointed chair of the Clean Streams Committee. Coaching taught Foerster lessons about the low-income African Americans who lived in his community and played on his football teams. He recalls the “great nobility” of the parents of these kids who would put cardboard in their sneakers because the soles were worn out. “It makes you realize how difficult some people have it. The parents just couldn’t find jobs. I got to know the parents, as they would come down and help with the chores at the field. They would never complain but willingly volunteered their time. They were well motivated and loved their kids.” Foerster recalls the “determination and hard work these young athletes exhibited.” He saw their great potential. Opportunity is all he believed they needed, and they would do the rest. Another significant part of Foerster’s childhood was the many days his family spent at Conneaut Lake, where today the commissioner still spends many hours when possible. The natural outgrowth of his love of the outdoors led to his emergence as a conservationist, which in turn sparked his political career in his early twenties. A family friend, Bill Guckert, who was secretary of the area Sportsman’s League, educated Foerster about the damage to the environment caused by strip mining, and Foerster says he became determined to do something about it. He took up the cause of fighting pollution long before it was popular to do so. In 1954, encouraged by Guckert, he ran for a legislative position to put someone in the General Assembly who would speak in support of environmental causes. The backing of the Sportsman’s League, and fish and game wardens was not sufficient for this young, unendorsed Democratic candidate to win the primary. These “groups” were the main supporters of environmental issues in the early fifties. They were upset and wanted something done about strip mining but did not have money, or the power of numbers, behind them. The loss in 1954 did not dampen Foerster’s spirit, and he ran again in 1956 as the endorsed Democratic candidate. Again, he lost. In 1958, he was victorious, winning by a narrow margin of 342 votes out of the 19,000 cast in his legislative district. He attributes the win largely to two factors. There were a number of women and one in particular, Anna May Wagner, who organized coffee klatches for him as a means to “drum up” support. Also, the sons of many of these women, who were athletes whom he was coaching, worked at the polls for Foerster. It was a Republican district at the time, and Tom Foerster ran on a single issue—to protect the environment—so these grassroots efforts were vital. “Those women got me elected.” The focus of Representative Foerster’s efforts in his early days in the General Assembly was to make good on two promises; which he did. With Leonard Staisey, who was a state senator at the time, he advocated and promoted the passage of the Clean Streams Act and the Strip Mining Act. Staisey and Foerster later ran together for county commissioner, where Staisey served with Foerster for eight years, and was Chair of the Board. During Foerster’s tenure as a state legislator, he also sponsored the initial legislation that led to the Community College Act, and he was a strong advocate of the Public Defender Act, the Mental Health/Mental Retardation Act of 1963, and the Child Welfare Act of 1963. As commissioner, he then put this legislation into action. The Commissioner’s Heroes Commissioner Foerster’s heroes, those people who he has great admiration and respect for, share many positive characteristics, but the one that stands out is that he saw them all as “putting people first.” They include his father and mother, mentioned earlier, and local, state, and national politicians. On the national level the commissioner points to Senator Hubert H. Humphrey (D–Minnesota) as being “the real hero in my book.” “Hubert Humphrey really lived and breathed what he preached. He really cared about people and expressed that in many, many different ways.” The commissioner’s belief in a job for everyone was espoused by Humphrey. “We don’t have people who enunciate that philosophy that he (Humphrey) enunciated and Kennedy enunciated and even Lyndon Johnson.” The commissioner got to know Humphrey personally. He worked to get Humphrey elected President in 1968 and recalls the large crowd he was able to get at the Boat House in North Park after being told it was too isolated out there and nobody would show. He recalls how Humphrey just loved everybody in Pittsburgh and in Allegheny County. He expressed admiration for the way Humphrey could “make a speech at the drop of a hat and be consistent and say what he had to say, full employment, jobs for everybody, education for all. He had the philosophy; it was the Vietnam War that ruined him.” Like many others, the commissioner thinks that if the 1968 election had been a week later, or if Humphrey had taken a stronger stance against the war once he became a presidential candidate, he would have defeated Richard Nixon. In addition, Presidents Truman and Kennedy are named by the commissioner as political leaders who “put people first.” He refers to Kennedy as a great speech-maker. “He had the same philosophy as Humphrey but could express it better than anyone else and in shorter period of time.” Moving to the state and local level, David Lawrence, powerful boss mayor of Pittsburgh, is another person the commissioner holds in high esteem. He got to know Lawrence through football. When Foerster was in high school, Lawrence came to meet the players in the dressing room after a game. A few years later Foerster was coaching a team of 14- to 17-year-old boys and sent Lawrence, then the mayor of Pittsburgh, a letter inviting him to help in the dedication of lights for the football field. Lawrence started coming to the annual football banquets, a practice he continued even after being elected governor. Foerster observed Lawrence in this and other settings and admired how well he related to everyone. The ability to relate to people so well is what enabled Lawrence to leave behind many accomplishments, according to Foerster. “He was a great community person, and people in the communities loved him.” As a mayor and governor, “he was one of the most skilled persons I ever met.” As governor he had a great knack for bringing together the Democratic House and Republican Senate, noted Foerster. In Foerster’s eyes he was someone who could gain support from the corporate establishment, business establishment, and colleges and universities by getting past party

affiliation. For example, he enlisted “friendly cooperation” from industrialists in order to combat the air pollution in Pittsburgh caused by the smoke. “Lawrence led the way to get the first smoke ordinance passed. He also led the way to cleaning up the rivers. Raw sewage as well as industrial waste was being dumped into the rivers until 1960.” The commissioner goes on to point out that “it was under Lawrence that money was made available for the first time for local libraries like the Carnegie. It may not seem like a big thing but that was a big step forward for state government to move in that field. It was also under Lawrence that the Pittsburgh public schools received a special subsidy as part of a new formula giving the public schools more state money.” Commissioner Foerster credits Lawrence with starting the whole concept of private/public partnership in Allegheny County. He states that “for those of us who grew up in the Lawrence era, it became natural to work with our universities, to work with the corporate establishment, the Allegheny Conference, and the Chamber of Commerce. That was inbred in us. You cannot get much done unless you have that kind of partnership with the community.” While the commissioner stresses the good that Lawrence accomplished with the aforementioned examples, and mentions “his whole Renaissance Program,” Tom does not overlook what he calls the “big failure in those days.” He is referring to the people hurt when housing in areas where low-income people lived was demolished and those people displaced. Leonard Staisey was not only a good friend, he was also one of Foerster’s heroes. Staisey was on the conservation team with Foerster and toured a strip mine with him in preparation for passage of a Strip Mine Bill and a Clean Streams Bill. Staisey was badly sight-impaired and could see only shadows. Foerster recalls how Staisey “would keep hold of my elbow as we’d walk up and down these strip pits; some of them were 100 feet, 150 feet down a hill. When the strip mine patrol was over, Leonard could really describe what he had seen. He was a remarkable person. When we finally passed the second piece of legislation, it was amended in the Senate and sent out for reprinting. The printer left out some crucial, vital language. As Leonard described it, it was like leaving the ‘Our Father’ out of the Lord’s prayer; it made it meaningless. Now here he is, a blind Senator; he had somebody read bills to him; he was the only one who caught the error in the bill. Leonard was so sharp and had a photographic memory.” It was much more than Staisey’s razor-sharp memory, ability to learn voices, and remarkable ability to compensate for his vision loss that impressed the commissioner. “Leonard Staisey left his footprints behind all over the county in many different ways,” states the commissioner. “I think Leonard Staisey can really be attributed with being the father of the whole Mental Health/Mental Retardation system (MH/MR) in the county. He took that under his wing. Leonard saw to it that the MH/MR programs were not centralized under one big bureaucracy that was too far removed from those it served.” The county was divided up into nine catchment areas with a base center unit run by the nonprofit and hospital sectors located in each area. Each base-service unit works autonomously and obtains input from its own citizens advisory board. The intent was to ensure that relying on the expertise of the private sector agencies and citizen participation would help to ensure that the program responds effectively. Each base-service unit must submit an annual plan to the county and receives a yearly appropriation from the county. The commissioner says that Leonard Staisey taught him a lot about human services and people with disabilities. “More people with disabilities had a job opportunity because of Leonard Staisey. Leonard devised a job bank program that was given to the Veterans Administration to run. It was a relatively small program in which people who had some type of disability because of the Vietnam War were provided with jobs where they acquired a skill.” Such influential people and experiences led the commissioner to become an individual with a strong sense of what he takes for granted as being “right.” He believes that “what is right is that people use government as an avenue to create a society with jobs for everybody; to create a society where vulnerable populations, not able to provide adequately for themselves, are provided with services that allow them to live with dignity; to create a society where everyone has the opportunity to an education and job training; to create a society where we show that we value families by focusing on preventative measures rather than reacting to situations that arise when families are not given the support they need; and to create a society where the environment is protected and future generations will have clean air and water.” Tom Foerster was a public servant who started with a single cause, the environment, but who greatly expanded the issues he advocated, making human services a key priority. Lessons he learned by observing the WPA, community people reaching out to feed hungry, desperate people, and political leaders ardently striving to create a level playing field and provide for the elderly, children, and persons with disabilities, all impacted the development of Thomas Foerster and his philosophy regarding the role of government. Commissioner Foerster’s Philosophy on the Role of County Government Politics is an art where players use strategically crafted argument to persuade others to adopt their policy ideas as the best solution for the distribution and redistribution of goods. Agreement is difficult because of the conflicting ideas people have as to the meaning of basic democratic goals such as liberty, equity, efficiency, and equality.3 One’s interpretation of these goals and beliefs as to how best to attain these goals determine one’s philosophy as to the role government should play in “who gets what, when, and how.”4 As a key political player, how Commissioner Foerster defined these goals and subsequently the policy he supported to arrive at the goals were driven by his worldview. The ambiguity of these goals and the difficulty of achieving all goals simultaneously gave rise to the dilemmas he faced in the political arena. For example, let us assume that to create a level playing field, and promote a degree of equality, government-funded job training or some formal post-secondary education is necessary. Can this be provided without any cost to the liberty of the individuals who will be taxed in order to provide this service? Deborah A. Stone adequately summarizes the dilemmas faced by policymakers with the statement, that “most policy issues can be seen as a question of whether and how the ‘haves’ should give to the ‘have nots.’” The policy issues Stone refers to are redistributive policies which account for most policies in the human service arena. Stone goes on to say that “where one stands on issues of distribution is determined not so much by the specifics of any particular issue as by a more general world view.”5 The worldview held by the commissioner closely parallels that of liberalism. Liberalism holds that the use of government intervention to promote equality and equity is necessary and just. Liberalism views liberty as freedom from dire necessity, which means that there must be a degree of equity, a basic minimal amount of money and/or goods that each person is assured. Thus redistribution is necessary to assure fair shares of basic resources such as food and shelter. By assuring basic resources to those who fall through the cracks and by opening up opportunity for all, the entire society benefits. For the liberal, community interests supersede a pure focus on individuals’ interests.6 The conservative view holds that liberty is freedom to dispose of one’s resources as one wishes and that government intervention infringes on this liberty. Thus redistribution policy interferes with liberty and takes away individualism. Government becomes a menace and misuses its power. The private sector, not the public sector, is the realm in which social welfare needs must be addressed, especially since most public programs simply cost money but do not solve problems.7 The commissioner is not comfortable with being labeled as a liberal. “Trying to categorize someone is all wrong. I don’t think it’s liberal or conservative to try to create a level playing field; it just makes common sense.” (He emphasizes that if you can prove to a conservative that a program is cost-effective, she or he will buy it.) There are

“positive progress” that took place in human services during his tenure. His leadership style conveyed not only support and a belief in his staff but also a great appreciation for hard work well done. When discussing initiatives he states, “It is they, not I, who should get the credit for the growth and accomplishments in their respective departments.” He credits not only the directors but the staff and citizens who worked on the initiatives. “Anyone can cut ribbons or hold a shovel for a ground breaking,” is the commissioner’s view. While comfortable giving credit to others, he is hesitant to take credit for himself. He believes that “If you don’t worry about who takes credit for things, you get more done.” Yet, those who worked with him either directly or indirectly in the human services division are quick to point out the imperative role that the commissioner played in so many key initiatives that took place not just during his time as commissioner but also during his time in the legislature. Tellingly, they speak of Foerster’s accomplishments as he speaks of his hero’s accomplishments. For example, Charles Stowell, past Director of the Department of Aging, states that Kane is a public institution today because people like Tom Foerster cared too much to turn his back on the elderly poor.10 Vic Papale, the commissioner’s executive assistant from 1980–1984, considers Foerster as being essential for the implementation of the Kane Regional Centers. Papale says Foerster said a way to fund the building of the centers would be found and would not take no for an answer.11 Both Laurie Mulvey and Kate Garvey, who work with the Family Support Centers, indicate that the commissioner’s active support has been critical.12 Charlotte Arnold, director of The Program—Alternatives to Incarceration, says it would not be where it is today except for Foerster. She specifically points to how the commissioner personally helped to obtain space to locate its facilities.13 In describing the positive changes that occurred in the Mental Health/Mental Retardation field, Chuck Peters, the long-time director of MH/MR, refers to the free rein the commissioner gave him. Along with the free rein were expectations and strong backing not just in word but in deed. “Commissioner Foerster did not hesitate to go face to face with the governor and others to obtain funding for human services.” Whether it was marches or other dramatic strategies, the commissioner was behind Peters.14 Therefore, while not a micromanager, Commissioner Foerster understood the details and was very involved in the life of the initiatives in the human service arena.15 Leo Koeberlein, former executive editor of the Pittsburgh Press, said of Foerster, “He is not a demagogue, but he is dynamic in the sense that he succeeds by using the available tools. Tom’s working on the principle that politics is the art of the possible. He’s the personification of it.” Koeberlein described the commissioner as “a politician who does not routinely throw his weight around and is not one to rant and rave. He just uses a quiet intellectual approach.”16 Vic Papale recalls how articulate and convincing an argument the commissioner could always make to advance an issue.17 Foerster himself states while discussing issues such as a public works program that he can sell the idea to the private sector if given the opportunity to sit down and talk with those in the business world. The importance of listening to others was not underestimated by the commissioner. Listening to the ideas of others was one means the commissioner used to determine community needs, which he thought must be continually assessed. “I wanted people to tell me what they thought.” He wanted to hear from the opposition as well as supporters. In addition to actively listening, the commissioner “did not hesitate to seek advice.”18 His staff and others from outside county government were continually presenting ideas. Before acting on an idea, the commissioner said he would almost always seek input from the Allegheny Conference on Community Development. He would also seek input from others outside of government, and although he would listen, he did not always heed the advice given. One example is the Allegheny Works Program, a public works program, modeled after WPA. “Despite being told you can’t do it, it is impossible, we had to try.” It was just a “gut reaction” that told Foerster to go ahead with it. “You may not succeed but you have to try.” It is not stories told by others of the destitution of people out of work that motivated Foerster. It is the stories he himself tells not only of his hardships during the Depression but also stories of his friends. The closing of the steel mills in the late 1970s and 1980s resulted in friends waiting on his porch steps for him to come home. “They would beg, and that was really discouraging to hear somebody you have known all your life breaking down. The hardest part of the job is that you can’t put everyone to work for the county even though you would like to when they can’t find other work.” Although politically astute, as is evidenced in his ability to win re-election as county commissioner six times, his style and decision making were driven by ideals. Charles Kolling, who served as the lobbyist for the county from April 1977 to March 1996, speaks of Tom Foerster as “a politician willing to take a stand for goals in which he believed regardless of whether they were politically popular, and an obvious vote getter.” Kolling refers specifically to Foerster’s decision and subsequent battles to keep the Kane Regional Centers public. Kolling believes this decision, as well as the battles he fought for funding for MH/MR, was not politically driven. “Foerster based these decisions and others on what he felt was morally right, not what he thought was politically advantageous. The vast majority of his constituency are unaware of the struggles encountered trying to get state funding for human service initiatives.”19 In fact, it can be argued that county government did not market itself to the degree it could have during Commissioner Foerster’s tenure. There are things that the board of commissioners could have done to “toot their own horn.” Kolling mentions as one idea that a positive public relations move would have been for the county to have a half-hour television show to let people know what is available through the county. It can also be argued that the media was more interested in bad news than positive happenings and did not

Question 9: History

Civil Rights and Civil Liberties. Thoroughly describes the evolution of civil liberties in the United States. PLEASE USE DETAILS, CITE YOUR SOURCES AND GIVE EXAMPLES. I am attaching the rubric which explains how it should be written and the essay instructions itself. If you feel like you cannot write this well and on time, please do not waste my time.

Instruction

ESSAY INSTRUCTIONS: – Essay should be carefully written and demonstrates knowledge and understanding of the topic. – Essay must be at least 800 words but no more than 1000 words excluding citations (Maximum two pages). – Essay content must be typed or copied and pasted into the submission box. Do not attach a file! – A rubric is posted to help you understand the expectations for this assignment, I strongly recommend you read the details of the rubric, here is the link that explains how to access the rubric: https://www.screencast.com/t/uuJeqDpb – You must discuss and include examples from at least two (2) references from the literature (published articles or news articles from renowned sources) to support your arguments and include a works cited section. An essay without citations is incomplete and will result in a low grade. – Essay will be checked for similarity using Turnitin.com, plagiarism will not be tolerated. – Essay will be initially graded by the system, however, it will be reviewed by the instructor and grade may be updated. RUBRIC IS ATTATCHED

Introduction to Theatre: Research Project (100 points) DRAM 1310

50 POINT OUTLINE
15 POINT WORKS CITED PAGE
35 POINT PRESENTATION OF RESEARCH

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Outline 50 points:

I will be looking for both depth and breadth in your outline and presentation. You will want to include such items as:

BRIEF Biography: Who are they? Give some background information about the person. What was/is going on in the world in which the person lives and works? What is the person to? Against? Commenting on?
Major works: What have they done? What are the unique characteristics that define their work?
Working process and philosophy
Importance to the world of theatre: Why is this person important to the world?
Be sure to cover WHO, WHAT, WHERE, WHEN, WHY!

More details on outline:

o Length: at least 2 full pages, typed, single-spaced and spell checked—be sure to

use excellent structure to support the integrity of the content.

o Be sure to include specific details from your research in your outline and use parenthetical documentation to give credit to your sources.

o IMPORTANT NOTE: It is crucial that you use parenthetical documentation throughout your outline, to give credit to the sources you utilized and learned from (whether you are using a direct quote as well as if you are paraphrasing an idea that you have read). Please see MLA Handbook for how to use Parenthetical Documentation throughout. Failure to do so will be considered plagiarism and you will receive a 0 on your outline and be reported to the Dean of Students for scholastic dishonesty and disciplinary action.

o You can use other kinds of structures, like bullets, just be sure to be consistent.

Works Cited Page 15 points:

Please use five legitimate scholarly sources for your project.

You are required to use ALL scholarly sources. Books, scholarly articles, interviews (TV

interviews may be used depending on your aspect of this project).

When in doubt, find book sources FIRST (these may come in the form of eBooks).
If you are looking for articles on the Internet, carefully consider which ones are valid, scholarly sources.
Spark Notes, IMDB, Brainy Quotes (any kind of quotes pages) and Wikipedia CANNOT BE used as sources. Look for legitimate sources.
Be sure to use the databases in the library on Cougar Web. JStor, Gale, Drama for Students and other databases are free to you and you can access them from your computer. Go to the “Library” tab in Cougar Web!
MLA Handbook form required. Pay especially close attention to citing Internet sources. This is often the most challenging source to cite. The databases in the Collin Library on Cougar Web will also give you the correct citation for the articles you are using. Another great reason to check them out!

PowerPoint Presentation 35 points:

Using the information from your research, create a PowerPoint presentation of 15-20 slides for the class. You will upload this to the Discussion Forum for the class to view.
Slides should address all 4 major content areas of your outline.
Slides should be primarily visual and express your creativity.
Slides should be organized (introduction, body and conclusion).
Adding voice over commentary is strongly encouraged!

Question 10: General

Examine the Influence of Packaging, Branding and Price on Sachet Water Sales in Developing Countries. What are the Constraints and Opportunities. 3 pages apa

Question 11: Health Care

Instruction

You are working as the manager of a multispecialty clinic. You have been notified that a patient has filed a lawsuit against one of your physicians that has terminated a relationship with a patient. Executive management has asked you to prepare a memo to describe whether a patient can make a successful claim for a breach of contract in this case. In this 2–3-page memo, discuss whether the physician-patient relationship is a contract and what needs to be shown for a breach of contract to have occurred.

Question 12: History

Instruction

The rise and fall of the Roman Empire are pivotal events in human history. 1) Identify three factors that led to Rome’s rise 2) Identify three factors that led to its fall. Paper should be 2-3 pages in length in proper APA format while citing a minimum of 3 sources. Ensure you properly organize your essay including an introduction with thesis statement and a conclusion. Thesis needed.

Question 13: Other

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, you will take each of the elements addressed earlier in the class and develop a strategic plan for a publicly-traded company of your choice, which was researched using the annual stock report website, company website, and other financial reporting websites. Be sure your plan includes the following: Share the mission statement. Include the vision statement. Identify any stated strategic goals. Produce a SWOT and PEST analysis. Assess the company’s competitive advantages. Provide a corporate strategic plan for sustained innovation in a global marketplace. Close the paper by addressing recommended solutions for sustained innovation, in light of any potential disruptive innovation. Length: The paper should be 10-15 pages, not including a cover page or references. Please consider adding an appendix for any figures or tables. References: Include at least 8 scholarly resources. Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Question 14: Statistics

Hypothesis Testing and Inference

This assignment focuses on estimation and hypothesis testing with one-sample and two-sample inferences.

The essence of parametric testing is the use of standard normal distribution tables of probabilities. For each exercise, there will be a sample problem that shows how the calculations are done and at least one problem for you to work out.

For the first assignment, you will not need any statistical software. However, you will use a standardized normal distribution table (a z-score table) provided in the course textbook (Table 3—The normal distribution—in the Tables section in APPENDIX) to obtain your responses.

Click here to access the standardized normal distribution table from your course textbook.

Problem 1: Probability Using Standard Variable z and Normal Distribution Tables

Variables are the things we measure. A hypothesis is a prediction about the relationship between variables. Variables make up the words in a hypothesis.

In the attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder’s (ADHD’s) hypothetical example provided in the tables below, the research question was: What is the most effective therapy for ADHD? One of the variables is type of therapy. Another variable is change in ADHD-related behavior, given exposure to therapy. You might measure change in the mean seconds of concentration time when children read. This experiment is designed to obtain children’s concentration times while they read a science textbook and to find out whether the therapy used worked on any of the children.

Use the stated µ and σ to calculate probabilities of the standard variable z to get the value of p (up to three decimal places). In addition, respond to the following questions for each pair of parameters:

Which child or children, if any, appeared to come from a significantly different population than the one used in the null hypothesis?
What happens to the “significance” of each child’s data as the data are progressively more dispersed?

In addition to the above, write a formal statement of conclusion for each child in APA style. A report template is provided for submission of your work.

Note: Tables 1 and 2 are practice tables with answers. Tables 3 and 4 are the assignment tables for you to work on.

Table 1 (µ = 100 seconds and σ = 10)

Child	Mean seconds of concentration in an experiment of reading	z-score (z = [X – µ]/σ)	p-value
1	75	-2.50	0.0
2	81	-1.90	0.0
3	89	-1.10	0.1
4	99	-0.10	0.4
5	115	1.50	0.0
6	127	2.70	0.0
7	138	3.80	<0.0
8	139	3.90	<0.0
9	142	4.20	<0.0
10	148	4.80	<0.0

Table 2 (µ = 100 seconds and σ = 20)

Child	Mean seconds of concentration in an experiment of reading	z-score (z = [X – µ]/σ)	p-value
1	75	-1.25	0.1
2	81	-0.95	0.1
3	89	-0.55	0.2
4	99	-0.05	0.4
5	115	0.75	0.2
6	127	1.35	0.0
7	138	1.90	0.0
8	139	1.95	0.0
9	142	2.10	0.0
10	148	2.40	0.0

Table 3 (µ = 100 seconds and σ = 30)

Child	Mean seconds of concentration in an experiment of reading	z-score	p-value
1	75	-0.83
2	81	-0.63
3	89	-0.37
4	99	-0.03
5	115	0.50
6	127	0.09
7	138	1.27
8	139	1.30
9	142	1.40
10	148	1.60

Table 4 (µ = 100 seconds and σ = 40)

Child	Mean seconds of concentration in an experiment of reading	z-score	p-value
1	75	-0.63
2	81	-0.48
3	89	-0.28
4	99	-0.03
5	115	0.38
6	127	0.68
7	138	0.95
8	139	0.98
9	142	1.05
10	148	1.20

Click here for a template to provide your answers and submit the assignment.

Refer to the Assignment Resources on this page for Two Independent Samples of t-Test to view an example of probability using standard variable and normal distribution tables. The same resource is also available under lecture Estimation and Hypothesis Testing.

Submission Details:

Name your document SU_PHE5020_W1_A3a_LastName_FirstInitial.doc.
Submit your document to the Submissions Areaby the due date assigned.

Problem 2: Two-Sample Inferences

A two-sample inference deals with dependent and independent inferences. In a two-sample hypothesis testing problem, underlying parameters of two different populations are compared. In a longitudinal (or follow-up) study, the same group of people is followed over time. Two samples are said to be paired when each data point in the first sample is matched and related to a unique data point in the second sample.

This problem demonstrates inference from two dependent (follow-up) samples using the data from the hypothetical study of new cases of tuberculosis (TB) before and after the vaccination was done in several geographical areas in a country in sub-Saharan Africa. Conclusion about the null hypothesis is to note the difference between samples.

The problem that demonstrates inference from two dependent samples uses hypothetical data from the TB vaccinations and the number of new cases before and after vaccination.

Table 5: Cases of TB in Different Geographical Regions

Geographical regions	Before vaccination	After vaccination
1	85	11
2	77	5
3	110	14
4	65	12
5	81	10
6	70	7
7	74	8
8	84	11
9	90	9
10	95	8

Using the Minitab statistical analysis program to enter the data and perform the analysis, complete the following:

Construct a one-sided 95% confidence interval for the true difference in population means.
Test the null hypothesis that the population means are identical at the 0.05 level of significance.

Click here to install Minitab Software.

In addition, in a Microsoft Word document, provide a written interpretation of your results in APA format.

Submission Details:

Name your Minitab output file SU_PHE5020_W1_A3b_LastName_FirstInitial.mtw.
Name your document SU_PHE5020_W1_A3c_LastName_FirstInitial.doc.
Submit your document to the Submissions Areaby the due date assigned.

Problem 3: Cross-Sectional Study
In a cross-sectional study, the participants are seen at only one point of time. Two samples are said to be independent when the data points in one sample are unrelated to the data points in the second sample.

The problem that demonstrates inference from two independent samples will use hypothetical data from the American Association of Poison Control Centers.

There are two groups of independent data collected in different regions, which also calls for a t-test. The numbers represent the number of recorded cases of poisoning with chemicals in the homes of 100,000 people in two regions.

Table 6: Cases of Poisoning With Chemicals

Year	Region 1	Region 2
1	150	11
2	160	10
3	132	14
4	110	12
5	85	10
6	45	11
7	123	9
8	180	11
9	143	10
10	150	14

Using the Minitab statistical analysis program to enter the data and perform the analysis, complete the following:

Formulate a null and an alternative hypothesis for a two-sided test.
Conduct the test at the 0.05 level of significance.

In addition, in a Microsoft Word document, provide a written interpretation of your results in APA format.

Submission Details:

Name your Minitab output file SU_PHE5020_W1_A3d_LastName_FirstInitial.mtw.
Name your document SU_PHE5020_W1_A3e_LastName_FirstInitial.doc.
Submit your document to the Submissions Areaby the due date assigned.

Additional Materials

View a pdf Transcript of One-Tailed and Two-Tailed Test

View a pdf Transcript of Minitab Example of Two Independent Samples of t-Test

View a pdf Transcript of Minitab Express

Question 15: Business

Write a 150 word response/add to the below discussion…

This week we read a Harvard Business Review article (March 2017) by Donald and Charles Sull and Rebecca Homkes that provided five myths businesses make when it comes to strategy execution. The two myths that I think best fits with my case study Tesla are: Communication equals understanding (Myth #3) and execution should be driven from the top (Myth #5).

When it comes to communication, Tesla CEO Elon Musk is highly direct, strict and honest with customers, donors and employees. In an article by the Business Insider titled “These are eight strict workplace rules Elon Musk makes his Tesla employees follow,” the details of Musk’s harsh, yet necessary, rules were shared, many to increase efficiency and employees’ time management:

Large-format meetings wastes people’s time.“Excessive meetings are the blight of big companies and almost always get worse over time. Please get [rid] of all large meetings, unless you’re certain they are providing value to the whole audience, in which case keep them very short,” Musk said in an email to employees. 2. Meetings should be infrequent, unless it’s urgent. 3. If you don’t need to be in a meeting, leave. 4. Avoid confusing jargon. 5. Don’t let hierarchical structures make things less efficient. “Communication should travel via the shortest path necessary to get the job done, not through the ‘chain of command’. Any manager who attempts to enforce chain of command communication will soon find themselves working elsewhere,” Musk said in his internal letter. 6. If you need to get in touch with someone, do so directly. 7. Don’t waste time following silly rules. “In general, always pick common sense as your guide. If following a ‘company rule’ is obviously ridiculous in a particular situation, such that it would make for a great Dilbert cartoon, then the rule should change.” 8. Don’t leak to the press under any circumstances.

Musk stresses the use of common sense, which sometimes can still get lost at some businesses. Large-format meetings are a waste of people’s time to actually execute the work. The truth for Tesla is just that; I feel like if Musk can be honest with his employees about his expectations that he deserves the same in return from employees, even if it means that Tesla isn’t the workplace environment for them.

For Myth #5 even Musk finds that to be false according to rules #5 and #6 above. I think influence should come from the top; not execution. But Musk brings up a good point about directly communicating with someone as it can help prevent miscommunication. It’s like the telephone-line game: You pass the message on from one person to the next, and by the time it gets to that last person, it’s a totally different message. A business cannot successfully run this way.

As stated before, the influence should come from the top. Musk communicates his simple business strategy, and it is the duty of his employees to execute his plan outlined in a Mission.org article from April 2017:

Build sports car 2. Use that money to build an affordable car 3. Use that money to build an even more affordable car 4. While doing above, also provide zero emission electric power generation options 5. Don’t tell anyone.

Can it be that easy? A simple plan matched with common sense and some of the most advanced technology in the world = SUCCESS

Question 16: Health Care

Analyze “The Case of Janet K. and Epilepsy” (see attached) using the Three-Step Ethics Model listed below.

Is it legal
Is it balanced?

For example, does one person or group benefit or suffer more than another as a result of your actions?

How does it make me feel? (i.e., embarrassed, proud)

This case is important because it requires attention to accuracy, confidentiality, and proper filing. Proper management is critical because the records may be subpoenaed during a malpractice case. Read the case carefully and then apply your critical thinking skills and problem-solving ability. Please fully explain your responses with each step of the ethics model being answered with a minimum of 350 words and follow the attach rubric for an excellent scoring. if there are any questions, please let me know.

Case Study #2: “The Case of Janet K. and Epilepsy” Key
Instructions: Analyze “The Case of Janet K. and Epilepsy” using the Three-Step Ethics Model by

Blanchard and Peale found in Chapter 1.

THE CASE OF JANET K. AND EPILEPSY

Janet K. had suffered from epilepsy since she was an infant. Her condition was well controlled as she entered adulthood, and she was able to complete a nursing program in good health. She particularly enjoyed working as a scrub nurse in the operating room. Upon graduation she applied at the large university teaching hospital where she had performed her clinical work during her nursing program. The hospital knew of her epilepsy history and offered her a job in their medical records department. Janet petitioned to be able to work in surgery, but the hospital administrators felt that it was too dangerous for Janet and the surgical patients if she should have a seizure there.

While working in medical records, Janet’s seizures began to return. She would have a seizure at least every month, even though her medications had been changed. Janet noticed that some of her fellow medical records technicians would stay away from her for fear of having to help her during a seizure. One afternoon a physician was dictating his case records in a cubicle next to Janet’s when she had a seizure. He helped her and then went to the hospital administrator and told her that Janet should not be allowed to work in a hospital since it gave the hospital, with its image of healing, a bad reputation.

Janet was terminated at the age of 27 due to health issues. She died of a brain tumor five years later.

Case Study Grading Rubric

Purpose: Discussion Cases are based on real-life occurrences and offer practical application of information discussed within chapters. These cases are used to stimulate and draw upon the student’s critical-thinking skills and problem-solving ability.

Five Criteria for each question	Focus	Specificity	Support	Throughtfulness	Use of Language
Excellent (40 – 50 points)	Responses may vividly clear and accurate references to each specific question.	Majority of responses include specific details.	Response are well- supported.	Responses are articulate and show a high-level of thought.	Writing is well- organized, unified, and error-free.
Good (31 – 39 points)	Responses make some references to questions but do not address each of them in a clear and accurate manner.	Some responses include specific details.	Responses are somewhat well- supported.	Responses show some thought.	Writing is somewhat organized and unified, with some errors.
Fails to meet expectations (0 – 30 points)	Responses make very few clear and accurate references to questions posed.	No responses include specific details.	Responses are not supported.	Comments show no thought.	Writing is not organized or unified; errors impair communication.

Question 17: English

Topic is: Enhancing Confidence in Nigeria for Nation Building: Towards Economic Success and Improved Quality of Life for Nigerians.

Question 18: Computer Science

Homework #2

Translate the following positive base 10 integers into binary, octal and hexadecimal. (Show your work)

89 b. 135 c. 1001
17

Use the algorithm for computing binary values for base 10 fractions for the following fractional values. Use 6 bits.

0.410 b. 0.386

Compute the decimal equivalents of the binary numbers computed in 3 and find the round off error.
Perform the following binary arithmetic (all numbers are positive):

10110101

+ 1110111

———

1101110

– 10111

——-

11100

x 1001 ——

11110

÷1010 —–

Convert the following base 10 SIGNED integers into binary (8bits). a.-102

b.-17 c.106 d.-39

Give the base 10 values of the following 6-bit SIGNED binary numbers: a. 100111

010010
101010
110101
Give the 32-bit floating point number (single precision) for the base ten number -1245.2.
Consider the Hamming Code for four bit numbers using odd parity. What is the 7-bit word (including parity bits) that should be used to describe the following integers:
6 b. -7
For your answer to 2a. above, change the bit in position 3. Show how the Hamming Code is used to correct that bit.
For your answer to 8a. above, change the bits in position 3 and 7. a) Is the Hamming Code able to detect an error? Explain
b) Is the Hamming Code able to correct the error? Explain

Question 19: Others

How can a merger or reorganization negatively affect a group or team? How does the behavior of the team leader(s) affect or define the relationship between merging groups?
What serious biases or misassumptions do groups that are involved in interteam conflict sometimes experience? How do these biases and prejudices affect the ability of teams to accomplish their goals?

Chapter 13

Brainstorm some ways to “redesign” your office space (or an office space you have previously worked in) on paper using virtual or flexible space, or flexible furniture. How would this redesign enhance successful teamwork?
What are some of the ways that cross-cultural teams are distinguished from other types of teams? What are some of the benefits and difficulties of building a cross-cultural team?

Question 20: Computer Science

C++ Questions

Programming Question:

Read scores
Convert scores to letter grades and display a table of scores and letter grades
Show statistics (count, maximum, minimum, average, median, mode, standard deviation)
Rank students (first, second, third, etc.)
Show grade distribution
Exit

Here is a list of functions that you should define and use:

int getChoice(void) — this function is to show a menu and read a valid choice.

void readArray( double score[], int size) — this function to read the scores and save it in 1D array.

void showLetterGrades(double score[], int size) – this function is to show a table of scores and their corresponding letter grades. It should also use another function to compute letter grades.

void getLetterGrades(double score[], char grades[], int size)

void getStats(double score[], int size, double *min, double *max, double *avg, double *stDev, double *mode, double *median)

void getRanks(double score[], int ranks[], int size)

void getDistributions(char grades[],int size, double distribution[])

Question 21: Other

What are the primary problems with the concept of race and what are the social and political implications of using race to define and study groups of people?
Why is it so difficult to identify examples of institutional discrimination? If rules apply to everyone, shouldn’t that be enough to prevent unfair treatment? Give examples of real or perceived institutional discrimination to support your argument.

Question 22: Other

Question 23: Computer Science

Programming Question:

Read scores
Convert scores to letter grades and display a table of scores and letter grades
Show statistics (count, maximum, minimum, average, median, mode, standard deviation)
Rank students (first, second, third, etc.)
Show grade distribution
Exit

Here is a list of functions that you should define and use:

int getChoice(void) — this function is to show a menu and read a valid choice.

void readArray( double score[], int size) — this function to read the scores and save it in 1D array.

void showLetterGrades(double score[], int size) – this function is to show a table of scores and their corresponding letter grades. It should also use another function to compute letter grades.

void getLetterGrades(double score[], char grades[], int size)

void getStats(double score[], int size, double *min, double *max, double *avg, double *stDev, double *mode, double *median)

void getRanks(double score[], int ranks[], int size)

void getDistributions(char grades[],int size, double distribution[])

Question 24: Others

need help with an assignment must be at least 250 words with apa format..Must include intext citationa and also have 3 scholarly sources that are up to date. The questions is listed …………………………………….

Why is an understanding of cultural diversity necessary in all areas of the criminal justice system?

Give one example of where a lack of cultural understanding could cause for there to be tension between the community and law enforcement.

Question 25 Finance

Your essay should begin with an introduction, be well organized, and present a clear discussion of the topic. The steps for completing your assignment are listed below.

Research a local business that collaborates with a financial institution in your area.
Explain the details of the business (e.g., type, years in business, location).
Explain how the business and the financial institution began to collaborate (e.g., loans, investments, marketing).
Explain what risks exist among financial institutions when they choose to collaborate with a local business.
Create a graphic, chart, or image that illustrates the collaboration between the local business and the financial institution. This will be added in as an appendix item at the end of the essay.

Question 26: Business

Financial Accounting APPLE Inc. & Google Inc.(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 27: Sociology

SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity in America(4 pages word paper)

Question 28: Health Care

HSA 510 Week 4 Assignment 1 Implications of Health Economic Concepts for Healthcare

Question 29: Law

ETH 321 Week 5 Individual Assignment Discrimination and Employment Laws

Question 30: Philosophy

PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(6 pages word paper)

Project Instructions

Project Submission 1 will consist of Parts 1–2.
Project Submission 2 will consist of Parts 3–4.

Project Submission 1 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Project Submission 2 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.