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Addiction Paper- Alcohol

You will choose a specific addiction and complete a 3–5-page paper about the topic in current APA format. This is a research paper, so make sure you construct and write it appropriately. You may choose any addiction discussed in the course material; you must email the instructor if you are unsure of the appropriateness of a chosen topic. The paper must address possible causes of the addiction as well as the prevalence and potential treatments. Include at least 3 outside sources (not including the course textbooks) from current professional journals (published within the last 5 years). Your paper must include a title page, an abstract, and a reference page in addition to the 3–5 pages of text.

 

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SuperFun Toys Case Study

Assignment Steps 

Resources: Microsoft Excel®, SuperFun Toys Case Study, SuperFun Toys Case Study Data Set 

Review the SuperFun Toys Case Study and Data Set.

Develop a 250-word case study analysis including the following: 

  • Compute the probability of a stock-out for the order quantities suggested by members of the management team (i.e. 15,000; 18,000; 24,000; 28,000).

Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

 

Case Study – SuperFun Toys

 

SuperFun Toys, Inc., sells a variety of new and innovative children’s toys. Management learned the pre-holiday season is the best time to introduce a new toy because many families use this time to look for new ideas for December holiday gifts. When SuperFun discovers a new toy with good market potential, it chooses an October market entry date. To get toys in its stores by October, SuperFun places one-time orders with its manufacturers in June or July of each year.

Demand for children’s toys can be highly volatile. If a new toy catches on, a sense of shortage in the marketplace often increases the demand to high levels and large profits can be realized. However, new toys can also flop, leaving SuperFun stuck with high levels of inventory that must be sold at reduced prices. The most important question the company faces is deciding how many units of a new toy should be purchased to meet anticipated sales demand. If too few are purchased, sales will be lost; if too many are purchased, profits will be reduced because of low prices realized in clearance sales.

This is where SuperFun feels that you, as an MBA student, can bring value.

For the coming season, SuperFun plans to introduce a new product called Weather Teddy. This variation of a talking teddy bear is made by a company in Taiwan. When a child presses Teddy’s hand, the bear begins to talk. A built-in barometer selects one of five responses predicting the weather conditions. The responses range from “It looks to be a very nice day! Have fun” to “I think it may rain today. Don’t forget your umbrella.” Tests with the product show even though it is not a perfect weather predictor, its predictions are surprisingly good. Several of SuperFun’s managers claimed Teddy gave predictions of the weather that were as good as many local television weather forecasters.

As with other products, SuperFun faces the decision of how many Weather Teddy units to order for the coming holiday season. Members of the management team suggested order quantities of 15,000, 18,000, 24,000, or 28,000 units. The wide range of order quantities suggested indicates considerable disagreement concerning the market potential.

Having a sound background in statistics and business, you are required to perform statistical analysis and the profit projections which is typically done by the product management group. You want to provide management with an analysis of the stock-out probabilities for various order quantities, an estimate of the profit potential, and to help make an order quantity recommendation.

SuperFun expects to sell Weather Teddy for $24 based on a cost of $16 per unit. If inventory remains after the holiday season, SuperFun will sell all surplus inventories for $5 per unit. After reviewing the sales history of similar products, SuperFun’s senior sales forecaster predicted an expected demand of 20,000 units with a 95% probability that demand would be between 10,000 units and 30,000 units.

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For Contemporary Decision Making

  1. Provide your insights, questions and examples for  Sampling Error.
  2. Provide your insights, questions and examples for Sampling Distribution of Sample Means
  3. Provide your insights, questions and examples for Central Limit Theorem.
  4. Provide your insights, questions and examples forStandard Error of the Mean.
  5. Consider the concept of point estimate and discuss the need to build a confidence interval using the point estimate.
  6. Consider the phrase “confidence interval” – what does the word “confidence” imply and what is the information provided by the word “interval”? Provide an example to illustrate the concepts.

 

Expansion Strategy and Establishing a Re-Order Point

Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set,

Write a 500-word report based on the case you selected: Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set Scenarios.

Include answers to the following:

Case 1: Bell Computer Company

  • Compute the expected value for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of maximizing the expected profit?
  • Compute the variation for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of minimizing the risk or uncertainty?

Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

 

Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques:

Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion.

 

HRM 517 Week 9 DQ

Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion. Provide a rationale for your response.

Watch the video titled “More Management Techniques from The One Minute Manager” (6 min 28 s), found on NBC Learn. Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” NBC Learn Video Title: Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” Date: Sep 6, 1982 Duration: 00:06:28

From the video, give your opinion on the three approaches discussed in the video (goal setting, praise, and reprimand). Assess how these are or are not applicable to a team setting, and whether this is still pertinent in today’s workforce given that the video is nearly three decades old.

 

Community Support Pamphlet

You will  create a pamphlet to be used in presenting to a community or church group in order to solicit support for substance abuse/addiction treatment. In your presentation or pamphlet, discuss the prevalence of addiction and what communities can do to help. Use at least 3 statistics regarding addiction, and give at least 3 ideas of ways communities can help.  Make sure to document your sources in current APA format.

 

MY PAMPHLET NEEDS TO BE ON THE OPIOD EPEDIC IN THE STATE OF…

Pamphlet Instructions:

Your pamphlet may be constructed in Microsoft Word and must have an attractive, appealing design. It may be bi-fold or tri-fold, but it must include the following:

  • Information on both sides of the paper;
  • 8 ½ X 11 or 8 ½ X 14 paper size;
  • 12-point Times New Roman font;
  • A minimum of 3 statistics and 3 suggestions for community help; and
  • A separate reference page to be submitted with the pamphlet.

 

Normal Distribution

  1. the use of the standard normal distribution. Next use the Excel functions NORMSINV and NORMSDIST and provide examples of your usage for each function.

 

The SOX Act Prepare a Power Point presentation of at least 20 slides that includes the following:

Assess the provision of the Sox Act that requires the establishment of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) and the measures that public accounting firms are taking to ensure that they maintain their independence in all audit assignments, including the mechanisms they are establishing to ensure that the necessary independence and integrity are prevalent in all aspects of their relationship with their clients.Analyze how executives of corporate America have embraced the new regulations and requirements of the Sox Act while maintaining their purpose to produce a profit for investors and staying in compliance of the new rules in the industry. Explain what those new requirements are for the CEO and CFO of publicly traded companies. Describe your assessment of the responsibilities established for accounting personnel—including protection for whistle-blowers—and for the public accounting auditors. Determine how the responsibilities of the board of directors audit committee have changed due to the Sox Act in overseeing the financial reporting process and to hire and be in charge of the independent auditors. Provide recommended sanctions to be imposed on those who do not comply with the SOX Act provisions, and whether or not the sanctions should be stiffened or should include other personnel in the organization. Researched sources should follow these guidelines: At least half of the researched sources should be from authoritative electronic sources related to the accounting field. The findings presented in the paper should be accurate renditions of the Sox Act, including citations and references. Follow APA guidelines when citing references. Include a reference slide.

SEJPME Final Exam

SEJPME Final Exam

1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

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2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

 

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

 

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

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28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

 

Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver

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Pre Test (contains 50 Questions)

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment

3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information

economics

diplomacy

the military

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force

subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about

acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational

intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe

maritime safety

maritime security

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare

a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17

clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members

media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service

Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

when directed by the President

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”

Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct

network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent

60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine

Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities

major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects

assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True

False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador

Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience

opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment

beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort

command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess

as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit

effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)

Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)

Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries

cyberspace operations
major combat operations

humanitarian assistance

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II

Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation

situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic

ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.

Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”

 

CJUS Quiz 3 L U

 

Question 1

Correct Answer:

 

As a result of two Supreme Court cases, ____________________, states

that have transfer hearings must provide certain rights to the juvenile,

including sufficient notice to the child”s family and defense attorney, the

right to counsel, and a statement of the reason for the court order

regarding transfer.

 

Question 2

Correct Answer:

 

____________________ in the juvenile justice system this is the

equivalent of parole in the adult criminal justice system.

 

 

Question 3

Correct

Answer:

 

At the end of the adjudication hearing, most juvenile court statutes require

the judge to make a factual finding on the legal issues and evidence. What

is not one of the ways the case is resolved?

 

Question 4

Correct Answer:

 

Gerald is 16 years old and is on trial for a double homicide in a criminal

court. In the state where he was charged, the prosecutor decides what

court to file charges.

Based on the scenario, what type of waiver procedure occurred?

 

Question 5

____________________ is the primary form of correctional treatment

used by the juvenile justice system.

 

Correct Answer:

 

 

Question 6

Correct Answer:

 

The process in which a juvenile referral is received and a decision made

to file a petition in juvenile court to release the juvenile, to place the

juvenile under supervision, or to refer the juvenile elsewhere is called:

 

 

Question 7

Correct Answer:

 

Milieu therapy, developed by William Glasser during the 1970s,

emphasizes current, rather than past, behavior by stressing that offenders

are completely responsible for their own actions.

 

Question 8

Correct Answer:

 

At what stage does a juvenile probation officer determine whether court

intervention is necessary?

 

 

Question 9

Correct

Answer:

 

Which of the following is not an associated problem with intake?

Allowing juvenile courts to enter into consent decrees with

juveniles without filing petitions and without formal adjudication

 

Question 10

Correct

Answer:

 

In a study of the extent of racial discrimination and disparity among

juvenile property offenders in Missouri, it was found that:

 

Question 11

Correct Answer:

 

Once the agency makes a decision that judicial disposition is required, a

____________ is filed.

 

Question 12

Correct Answer:

 

Today, all fifty states and the District of Columbia have statutory

restitution programs.

Question 13

Correct Answer:

 

Johnny was found delinquent and was sentenced to a secure detention

facility for 18 months. He was represented by a newly licensed juvenile

public defender. Johnny”s parents are considering an appeal based on

deficiencies in his defense.

Juvenile court statutes normally restrict appeals to cases where the

juvenile seeks review of a _________________, which is a document

that ends the litigation between two parties by determining all their rights

and disposing of all the issues.

 

Question 14

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following items was not identified as one of the minimum

standards for all juveniles confined in training schools in the Inmates of

the Boys” Training School v. Affleck decision?

 

Question 15

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following statement about balanced probation is true?

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Question 16

Correct Answer:

 

Jeremy was adjudicated delinquent and must adhere to a strict set of

rules to avoid incarceration in a juvenile correctional facility. He wears an

ankle bracelet that allows him to travel in the community and informs his

probation officer of his location in real-time.

Based on the type of sanction, what correctional treatment has been

provided to Jeremy?

 

 

Question 17

Correct Answer:

 

What is false regarding what experts maintain that detention facilities

should provide youths housed in their facilities?

 

 

Question 18

Correct

Answer:

 

Which of the following best describes the effectiveness of Juvenile

Intensive Probation Supervision?

 

Question 19

Correct Answer:

 

What does a predisposition report not include?

 

Question 20

Correct

Answer:

 

Which of the following is a problem in public defender services for

indigent juveniles in Pennsylvania?

 

Question 21

Correct

Answer:

 

Which of the following is not an argument in favor of probation?

The justice system continues to have confidence in deterrence

and accommodates for legal controls and public protection.

 

Question 22

Correct Answer:

 

Programs that combine get-tough elements with education, substance

abuse treatment, and social skills training are generally referred to as:

 

Question 23

Correct Answer:

 

In 2008, formal probation accounted for more than ______ of all juvenile

dispositions.

 

 

Question 24

Correct Answer:

 

According to the text, about ___ percent of delinquency cases in 2008

involved males.

 

 

Question 25

Correct Answer:

 

Although there are more coed institutions for juveniles than in the past,

most girls remain incarcerated in single-sex institutions.

 

Question 26

Jeremy was adjudicated delinquent and must adhere to a strict set of

rules to avoid incarceration in a juvenile correctional facility. He wears an

ankle bracelet that allows him to travel in the community and informs his

probation officer of his location in real-time.

Correct Answer:

 

Within the context of the scenario, wearing an ankle bracelet can be

considered a:

 

Question 27

Correct Answer:

 

Programs involving outdoor expeditions that provide opportunities for

juveniles to confront the difficulties of their lives while achieving positive

personal satisfaction are generally referred to as:

 

Question 28

Correct Answer:

 

A guardian ad litem is often an attorney who represents the child during

special legal proceedings, including abuse, neglect, and dependency

cases.

 

Question 29

Correct Answer:

 

According to the text, most states use the indeterminate sentence in

juvenile court.

 

Question 30

Correct Answer:

 

The typical resident of a juvenile facility is a seventeen years old,

European American male.

 

Question 31

Correct Answer:

 

In 1989, the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act (JJDPA) of

1974 was amended to require that states allow juveniles to be detained

in adult jails and lockups.

 

Question 32

Correct Answer:

 

The typical delinquent detainee is all of the following except:

 

 

Question 33

Correct Answer:

 

Gerald is 16 years old and is on trial for a double homicide in a criminal

court. In the state where he was charged, the prosecutor decides what

court to file charges.

If Gerald is convicted in a criminal court of homicide, what sentencing

option(s) does the jury have?

 

Question 34

Correct Answer:

Non-judicial adjustment and handling or processing are all names for

what is commonly known as diversion.

 

Question 35

Correct Answer:

 

In what U.S. Supreme Court case did the justices end juvenile sentences

of life without parole?

 

Question 36

Correct Answer:

 

In about fifteen states, the prosecutor has the discretion of filing charges

for certain offenses in either juvenile or criminal court, this is called:

 

Question 37

Paul is a gang member who committed a robbery. As part of his

community treatment, he must remain in his residence from 8 p.m. until 8

a.m. daily, and is required to call into his probation officer from his home

phone when a computer-generated call is made to him.

Correct Answer:

 

In addition to electronic monitoring, Paul”s requirement to remain in for

12-hour intervals is considered:

 

Question 38

Correct Answer:

 

Virtually every state provides prosecutors and judges with access to the

juvenile records of juvenile offenders.

 

Question 39

Correct Answer:

 

What is not a goal of Juvenile intensive probation supervision?

 

Question 40

Correct Answer:

 

Sheila was found delinquent and placed in a juvenile correctional facility.

While institutionalized, she took part in counseling that focuses on

current behavior and requires her to accept responsibility for her actions.

After 3 years, she will be leaving the correctional facility in two weeks.

What type of therapy is Sheila undergoing?

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CJUS300 Quiz 2 Liberty University

Question 1

Correct

Answer:

 

A clique is defined as:

 

Question 2

Correct Answer:

 

It is estimated that about _____ out of every 100 child abuse or neglect

cases reaches the trial stage.

 

Question 3

Correct Answer:

 

Farrington reported that bullies are likely to have children who bully

others.

Question 4

Correct Answer:

 

Experts have concluded that many of the underlying problems of

delinquency are connected with the nature and quality of the school

experience.

 

Question 5

Correct Answer:

 

In some instances, a peer group provides the social and emotional basis

for antisocial activity. When this happens:

 

Question 6

Correct Answer:

 

At the ____________________, the social service agency presents its

case plan, which includes visitation plans, services, or other conditions of

the formal agreement.

 

 

Question 7

Correct Answer:

 

Source control strategies cut off supplies of drugs by destroying overseas

crops and arresting members of drug cartels.

 

Question 8

Correct Answer:

 

The concept of deinstitutionalization was established by the Juvenile

Justice and Delinquency Act of 1994.

 

Question 9

Correct Answer:

 

Evidence that the behavior of children of divorce improves over time is

conclusive.

 

Question 10

Correct Answer:

 

Almost two-thirds of all admissions to treatment facilities in the United

States involved ______________________ as the primary drug of

abuse.

 

Question 11

Correct Answer:

 

According to work by Gottfredson and colleagues, what is the main

difference between school programs that work and those that do not?

 

Question 12

Correct Answer:

 

 

Crack is manufactured by using _________________________ to

remove hydrochlorides to create a crystaline form of cocaine that can be

smoked.

 

 

Question 13

Correct Answer:

 

According to the text, the most crucial part of an abuse or neglect

proceeding is the advisement hearing when the social service agency

presents its recommendations for care of the child.

 

Question 14

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following is not a correlate of school failure according to the

text?

 

Question 15

Correct Answer:

 

Under the parens patriae philosophy, juvenile justice procedures are:

 

Question 16

Correct

Answer:

 

Which of the following statements about gangs in the 1950s and 1960s is

false?

 

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Question 17

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following best describes the United States Supreme Court

ruling in Ingraham v. Wright concerning corporal punishment in schools?

 

Question 18

The youngest children in a family may suffer the most from resource

dilution.

Correct Answer:

 

Question 19

Correct Answer:

 

The systematic nature of problem-oriented policing is characterized by its

adherence to a four-step model, often referred to as:

 

 

Question 20

Correct Answer:

 

According to the text, what is the biggest issue with mentoring

programs?

 

Question 21

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following was noted as a problem of school-based

adolescent drug surveys?

 

 

Question 22

Correct Answer:

 

Family dysfunction increases the chances of dropping out of school

among all racial and ethnic groups.

 

Question 23

Correct Answer:

 

According to the profile developed by the U.S. Secret Service, school

shootings:

 

Question 24

Correct Answer:

 

For some adolescents, substance abuse is one of many problem

behaviors that begin early in life and remain throughout the life course.

This is known as:

 

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Question 25

Correct Answer:

 

Kelly is 32 years old and has a history of substance abuse and

committing crimes. He drank at 10 and started using marijuana at 13 and

experimented with a variety of drugs over the years. His family was

violent and criminally inclined. He grew up in a lower-economic

neighborhood where crime thrived. Kelly dropped out of school at 16.

According to research by Elliott, which of the following is not an

association between substance abuse and delinquency?

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Question 26

Correct Answer:

 

What happens with illegally seized evidence in juvenile proceedings?

 

Question 27

Correct Answer:

 

The main goal of Job Corps, developed and designed by the Department

of Labor, is:

 

Question 28

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following were not among the early American gangs?

 

 

Question 29

Correct Answer:

 

A _________________ gang is heavily involved in criminality, particularly

in drug sales and they use violence to establish control over drug sale

territories.

 

Question 30

Correct Answer:

 

Casey is a 10-year old victim of sexual abuse by a family member. His

perpetrator”s case will go to trial and Casey is on the witness list.

According to the text, sexual abuse accusations often:

 

 

Question 31

Correct Answer:

Because people are generally sympathetic to abused children,

delinquents with abuse backgrounds get lighter sentences than those

who were not abused.

 

Question 32

Correct Answer:

 

According to the text, schools with fewer behavioral problems in the

student body are characterized by:

 

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Question 33

Correct Answer:

 

Results from the most recent PRIDE survey (for the 2009-2010 school

year) indicate:

 

Question 34

Correct Answer:

 

Annually, it is estimated that the economic cost of methamphetamine use

in the United States exceeds?

 

Question 35

Correct Answer:

 

Jessica is 16, single and a mother of a 3-month old baby girl. She has

been provided weekly visits by a nurse who comes to her place of

residence. The nurse gives advice to Jessica about care of her child,

infant development, and the importance of proper nutrition.

What is not a long-term desirable effect of home visitation programs?

 

Question 36

Correct Answer:

 

Children from working poor families are most likely to suffer from

inadequate childcare.

 

Question 37

Correct Answer:

 

In ______________________, the Supreme Court rules that a child”s

asking to speak to his probation officer was not the equivalent of asking

for an attorney.

 

Question 38

Correct Answer:

 

James” parents were married for 10 years. Currently, he lives with his

divorced mom who works full-time.

Approximately what percent of children live with two parents?

 

Question 39

Correct Answer:

 

Policies that mandate specific consequences or punishments for

delinquent acts and do not allow anyone to avoid these consequences

are referred to as:

 

Question 40

Correct Answer:

Chronic victims of bullying experience more physical and psychological

problems than their peers who are not harassed by other children.

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CJUS 300 Quiz 3 Liberty Uni

Question 1
Selected
Answer:
Cruz v. Beto, a Supreme Court decision involving the right of inmates to
exercise their religious beliefs, involved:
a Buddhist who was not allowed to use the prison chapel and
was placed in solitary confinement for sharing his religious
material with other prisoners.
Question 2
Selected Answer:
Today, prisoners must be given all but which of the following due process
rights?
All of the above must be given.
Question 3
Selected Answer:
Each frivolous or malicious lawsuit or appeal that an inmate files counts as
a ________ against the inmate.
strike
Question 4
Selected Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four main parts of the Prison
Litigation Reform Act?
Emotional abuse requirement
Question 5
Selected
Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four goals that jails should attempt
to accomplish in preparing inmates for reentry in society?
Avoid a complex and time-consuming intake and
assessment process
Question 6
Selected Answer:
The overriding concern in prisons and jails is, and should be:
security.
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points

Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to

Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to criminal justice research. Address each of the following in your paper:

  • Identify the various types of survey research utilized in the field of criminal justice.
  • Explain the advantages and disadvantages of:

o    In person surveys

o    Telephone surveys

o    Computer-based surveys

o    Focus group surveys

  • Describe the purpose of sampling as part of the research process.
  • Identify the types of reliability and validity as they are applied to criminal justice research.
  • Discuss the importance of ensuring that data collection methods and instruments are both reliable and valid.

Include at least four peer-reviewed references.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment to the Assignment Files tab.

 

Reflection paper

You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.

 

Law Reflection paper written at HomeworkNest.com

 

You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.

You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.

 

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Analysis and Critique of Major Event Paper

The student will choose a major event (disaster, incident, catastrophe or preplanned event) involving homeland security (emergency management focus allowed). The student will advise the instructor, through email, of the event topic for approval. The student will provide an in-depth analysis of the event starting with an overview of the event. The student will analyze the use of all phases of emergency management (mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery, and the subcomponents found in each phase) as much as is applicable to each based on the event. The analysis will be written in standard current APA formatting using headings and references. A minimum of 5 references are required. The analysis and critique must be at least 5 full pages of content. The student will conclude the analysis with recommendations for improvements in any areas found to be lacking.

 

The Analysis and Critique of Major Event Paper

After Action Results based on Analysis/Critique of Major Event Paper PowerPoint Presentation

The student will summarize his or her findings in an audio/visual PPT presentation. The student will use PPT Mix, which may be turned into a Windows Media Video WMV, to present and record his or her critique. A minimum of ten content slides are required. The student will at the minimum use the same headings as required in the written analysis. The presentation be at least ten minutes long and should last no more than 30 minutes maximum. References will be included on the last slide. Once submitted for grading the student will email his or her PPT video to the rest of the class for their review. The student does not have to show him or herself in the video unless they wish to.

 

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Signing a non-compete after employment

 

Unit I Case Study

Course Textbook: Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

Reference Attached

Please read the case DCS Sanitation Management v. Eloy Castillo (and supporting notes), linked in the reference below:

DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/login?auth=CAS&url=http://www-lexisnexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/lnacui2api/api/version1/getDocCui? oc=00240&hnsd=f&hgn=t&lni=4J44-6R600038X2H9&hns=t&perma=true&hv=t&hl=t&csi=270944%2C270077%2C11059%2C8411&secondRedirectIndicator=true

Once you have read and reviewed the case scenario, respond to the following questions:

  1. Discuss the legal implications for employers and employees for requiring employees to sign noncompete agreements. What factors did the court consider in making its decision? Compare and contrast Ohio and Nebraska’s positions on noncompete clauses.
  2. Which state’s laws support ethical reasoning in the resolution of this case?

Your response should be a minimum of two pages in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying APA style citations.

References:

Course Textbook(s) Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://advance-lexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/api/permalink/d34471c6-4b5b-4640-8dbe202b87d433b1/?context=1516831

 

LAW 531 Final Exam Guide 2018

  1. Which of the following is a difference between embezzlement and larceny?

Embezzlement is an unintentional tort, whereas larceny is a nonintent crime.

Embezzlement is the stealing of property by a person to whom the property was entrusted, whereas larceny is the stealing of property by a person not entrusted with it.

Embezzlement is usually punishable by the payment of monetary damages, whereas larceny is usually punishable by the death penalty.

Embezzlement is the snatching of personal property from a person’s home, whereas larceny is the snatching of personal property from a person on the street.

  1. Workers’ compensation is defined as the:

insurance obtained by employees from private insurance companies and government-sponsored programs.

remuneration awarded to employees and their families when the employees are injured on the job.

set of programs mandated by the government to ensure safety in places of work.

system that provides retirement and death benefits to covered employees and their dependents.

  1. Corporate officers are best described as:

directors elected by a corporation’s shareholders.

owners of a corporation with limited liability for its debts and obligations.

employees appointed to manage the daily operations of a corporation.

partners pursuing a joint venture transaction

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  1. Which of the following scenarios is an example of law and ethics contradicting each other?

An iron-ore manufacturing company provides its employees with high-quality safety equipment.

A florist in the United States employs an illegal immigrant to help the immigrant and her family overcome their financial difficulties.

A large apparel retailer copies the trademarked garment designs of a well-known fashion designer.

A restaurateur, whose restaurant is violating labor laws, bribes a federal official to prevent him from reporting the violations.

  1. Which of the following best describes the term warranty?

It refers to the terms in a sales contract stipulating the party that will bear the risk of loss of goods during shipment.

It is a purchaser’s title to goods obtained by the impersonation of another person.

It is the seller’s assurance to a buyer that the goods sold meet certain standards of quality.

It refers to the transfer of possession of stolen property to a person who had bought the property without the knowledge that it has been stolen.

  1. Which of the following is a category of torts?

Nonintent crime

Professional malpractice

Strict liability

Personal liability

  1. Which of the following is a remedy that requires the breaching party to perform the acts promised in a contract?

Special damages

Punitive damages

Binding arbitration

Specific performance

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of torts?

They are usually not tried by the jury.

They are punishable by the death penalty.

They are tried by criminal procedure.

They are brought to court by a plaintiff.

  1. Laws that prohibit discrimination based on race, gender, or religion in the workplace primarily serve the function of:

creating a new status quo.

minimizing the freedom of employees.

advocating social justice.

providing a basis for compromise

  1. Which of the following is a difference between arbitration and mediation?

Arbitration is an informal method of dispute resolution, whereas mediation is a formal method of dispute resolution.

The decision of an arbitrator is nonbinding, whereas the decision of a mediator is binding.

An arbitrator is authorized to issue an award, whereas a mediator can only assist in reaching a settlement.

The role of an arbitrator is merely to assist parties in reaching a settlement, whereas the role of a mediator is similar to the role of a trial judge.

  1. Which of the following is an advantage of franchising?

It enables two businesses to pool their resources to pursue a common goal.

It allows a business to consist of only general partners.

It allows businesses to reach profitable new markets.

It grants free access to the intellectual property of a business to anyone in the same market.

  1. Laws that protect governments from being overthrown primarily serve the function of:

minimizing individual freedom.

maintaining the status quo.

advocating social justice

providing bases for compromise

  1. A goal of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is to:

allow directors and executive officers of public companies to be given personal loans from the companies.

end conflicts of interest, establishing better corporate governance.

enable smooth settlement of alleged fraud among major corporations.

control and closely monitor the financial accounts of all corporations in the United States.

  1. Insider trading is considered illegal because:

it fails to account for the short-swing profits brought into a company.

it limits investment opportunities for the investing public.

it results in excessive losses for the company.

it makes use of nonmaterial public information.

  1. Which of the following is a criticism of the ethical fundamentalism theory?

It does not reach an agreement on what the universal rules should be.

It does not allow people to decide for themselves what is right and what is wrong.

It is impossible to measure the “good” that may result from different actions.

It is impossible in the real world to expect that everyone in society will obey moral rules.

  1. Ken owns a small convenience store in a street corner in California. One afternoon, a teenage boy enters his store, looks around, and prepares to walk out without buying anything. Ken is wary of the boy because of the boy’s shabby clothing. He stops and asks the boy to empty his pockets and then questions him for about five minutes. After finding that the boy does not have anything from the store on him, Ken reluctantly lets him go. Which of the following is a merchant protection statute that Ken has violated?

Adverse possession

Reasonable grounds for suspicion

Adequate assurance of performance

Reasonable duration of detention

  1. Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining a patent for an invention?

The invention must be original.

The invention needs to be recognizable to the general public.

The invention needs to be made of highly valuable components.

The invention must be in the form of a service.

  1. Which of the following applies to trade restraints that are inherently anticompetitive?

The rule of reason

The per se rule

The rule of four

The pro rata rule

  1. Which of the following is prohibited by the Food Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) with regard to food?

The sale of non-organic food products

The sale of adulterated food

Labeling of raw seafood products

Labeling of genetically engineered food products

  1. The power and authority to exclude competition or control prices is known as __________.

monopoly power

implied power

enumerated power

reserved power

  1. A group boycott occurs when:

competitors agree that they will distribute their goods to only a particular portion of the market.

competitors at one level of distribution collectively refuse to deal with others at a different level of distribution.

parties enter into a trade agreement that has greater anticompetitive effects than procompetitive effects.

parties at different levels of distribution enter into an agreement to adhere to a schedule that will stabilize prices.

  1. When can an arbitrator’s decision and award be appealed to the courts?

While drafting a submission agreement

When an arbitration is binding

While entering a negotiation

When an arbitration is nonbinding

  1. The obligation owed by individuals to one another not to cause any unreasonable harm or any risk of harm is called:

duty of restitution.

duty of restoration.

duty of loyalty.

duty of care

  1. Robert orders coffee while having breakfast in a diner. He suffers third-degree burn injuries when the coffee accidently spills on him. He presses charges against the diner for failing to notify him that the coffee was exceptionally hot. In this scenario, the diner is guilty of a(n) __________.

nonintent crime

unintentional tort

intent crime

intentional tort

  1. When an employer does not discriminate against women in general but treats women above the age of 40 differently, the employer is practicing __________.

racial discrimination

religious discrimination

sex-plus discrimination

color discrimination

  1. The manifestation of the substance of a contract by two or more individuals is called ______.

acceptance

an offer

an agreement

consideration

  1. When one party acquires a license to use another party’s business model and intellectual property in the distribution of goods and services, the arrangement is a __________.

franchise

joint venture

kickback

limited liability partnership

  1. Corporate officers are elected by a corporation’s __________.

owners

common stockholders

board of directors

preferred stockholders

  1. An agency that appears to be created by a principal but does not exist in reality is called a(n) __________.

fully disclosed agency

apparent agency

implied agency

agency by ratification

  1. Helen buys a toy railway set for her 3-year-old son, Ben. The product’s cover mentions that the toy is suitable for children only aged between 3 and 12. While playing with the toy one evening, without Helen’s supervision, Ben chokes on an inch-long engine driver figure that forms part of the train. Although he survives, he is traumatized by the incident. For which type of defect can Helen sue the toy manufacturer?

Failure to warn

Defect in product packaging

Failure to tamperproof

Defect in manufacture

Patty Plaintiff’s Really Bad Week

In this assignment, you’ll need to decide whether Patty Plaintiff has any legal claims arising from a series of unfortunate events. After reading the scenario, answer the questions that follow, making sure to fully explain the basis of your decision.

Patty Plaintiff is shopping at her favorite store, Cash Mart. She is looking for a new laptop, but she can’t find one she likes. Then, realizing that she is going to be late for an appointment, she attempts to leave the store, walking very fast. However, before she can leave, she is stopped by a security guard who accuses her of shoplifting. Patty, who has taken nothing, denies any wrong doing. The officer insists and takes Patty to a small room in the back of the store. The guard tells Patty that if she attempts to leave the room she will be arrested and sent to jail. At this point, the guard leaves the room. Patty is scared and waits in the room for over an hour until the manager comes in and apologizes and tells Patty that she is free to go.

About this same time, Gerry Golfer is hitting golf balls in his backyard. Gerry decides to break out his new driver and hits a golf ball out of his backyard into the Cash Mart parking lot. The golf ball hits Patty Plaintiff on the head and knocks her unconscious just as she is leaving the store.

Five days later, after recovering from her injuries, Patty returns to work at Acme Corporation. Unfortunately, she used her company email to send her mom a personal email about her injury despite being aware that Acme’s company policy prohibits use of company email for personal communication. Patty’s supervisor, Barry Bossley, discovers Patty’s violation and Patty is reprimanded. When Patty goes home she uses her personal computer to post disparaging comments about her boss and Acme Corporation on social media. The next day Patty is fired from her job.

In 5-6 pages, answer the following question: What types of legal claims could Patty make against Cash Mart, Gerry, and Acme Corporation? Consider the following:

  1. What are the possible tort claims that Patty can make against Cash Mart? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
  2. Was Gerry negligent when he hit the golf ball that injured Patty? Discuss the elements of negligence and use facts from the scenario to support your decision.
  3. Does Patty have a right to privacy when using Acme Corporation’s e-mail system? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
  4. Can Patty be legally fired from her job for making negative comments about her boss and her company on social media? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.

 

Assignment 2 International crime witness. Part 1

Write a 3 to 5 pages paper in which you.

  1. Determine the pertinent demograhic, social, political, and economic factors about your chosen county.  The country is Saudi Arabia’

.2.  Examine the manner in which your chosen country criminal code would likey view the crime you witnessed.  Provide a rationale for the response.

3.Choose two individuals rights that the United States grants criminal suspects, such as search and seizure, right to counsel, etc., and analyze Saudi Arabia perspective on each right.  Provide support for the analysis.

  1. Investigate the manner in which the police in Sauri Arabia would likely treat the defendant, Provide justification  for the response.
  2. Classify the fundamental similarties and difference betwee the police culture in Saudi Ararbia compared to the United States.
  3. Use at least 4 quality references. No wikipedia.

The Assignment must be APA Format.  Typed, double space using Times New Roman font size 12 with one-inch margins on all sizes, citations and references must follow APA .

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student name, the professor name , the corse title and the date.  The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page lenth.

I want origina work, my school use Safe assign. Paper must be less than 20%.  Thanks Please disregard attachment that my student course guide. Once again thanks.

 

Levels Of Competing Cultures

Investigate the competing cultures within the Dallas, Texas metropolitan area also known as the ‘The Dallas–Fort Worth–Arlington, Texas Metropolitan Statistical Area’. To prepare for this assignment, read the attached and other information you find on the internet to answer the following.

You must use APA format. Citations and resources must also be included and documented properly according to APA format.

  • What is the African American population of the area?
  • Have Hispanic immigrants surpassed African Americans in numbers since 2000?
  • Do the numbers of foreign born in the area exceed the number of other native born Americans (with no African American or Hispanic American backgrounds) in this area?
  • Has unemployment in the area decreased since 2000? Has family income in the area decreased since 2000?
  • Has unemployment in the area increased for any specific group since 2000? Has family income in the area increased for any specifc groups since 2007?
  • Is there a coalition of some kind comprised of all major ethnic and racial groups in the area? Have there been cultural clashes as with the recent World Trade Center mosque proposal in New York City?

 

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NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS

Discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS

In a well-organized, two to three page essay (minimum 750 words) discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS. Be sure to include who benefited by this decision and what negative consequences might follow.

(Essay must be plagiarism free)

REference Showalter,J. S.(2012). The Law of Healthcare Administration.(7th ed.). Chicago, IL: Health Administration Press. ISBN: 978-1-56793-421-2

 

The Exclusionary Rule Evaluation

Write a 700- to 1,400-word paper in which you analyze the rationale and purpose of the exclusionary rule and identify exceptions to the exclusionary rule. In your analysis, state the costs and benefits of the exclusionary rule, as well as alternative remedies to the rule. State your position on the exclusionary rule and provide support for your position. Pleaseremember, when stating your position, not to use the first person. This is a requirement of proper APA formatting and my policies.

Incorporate information from the CJi Interactive activity in your paper.

http://media.pearsoncmg.com/pcp/pcp_94869_mutchnick_cj_uop/chapter6/ch6_issue2/index.html

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

There are two broad approaches to financing health care: a market-based

Who is provided access?

Most government financed frameworks are slanted to make accessible for each individual living in the country with treatment which proposes access to some major level of consideration. Dominant part of individuals pay for scope through duties and extra charges. In government financed health mind the government may give care itself, for example, the United Kingdom or they may contact different suppliers to do as such ex: Germany and Japan or in the United States government financed

 

Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606

Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions

This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.

  1. (20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
  2. 13, 7, 6, 6, 3
  3. 14, 12, 11, 10, 8
  4. 65, 65, 65, 65, 65
  5. 12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
  6. (20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
  7. Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
  8. Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
  9. Why is the median relatively unaffected?
  10. Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
  11. (24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximatepercentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
  12. (20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:

(a)   Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.

(b)   Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.

  1. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

  1. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

  1. Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

  1. What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

  1. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

  1. (16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.

 

Individual

Age

Score on Popular Music Test

Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.

 

  1. (2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:

 

  1. (2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:

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Consider Figure D (below).

  1. (2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the directionand strength of the correlation coefficient?
  2. (4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
  3. (2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
  4. (4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.

 

Critical Writing Assignment

Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.

Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.

Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.

 

Organizational and Strategic leadership

Question:

Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American  history

 

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Liberty Uni PHIL 201 quiz 3 complete solutions

 

  • Question 1

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following can be classified as a priori knowledge?

  • Question 2

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?

  • Question 3

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:

  • Question 4

3 out of 3 points

Plato holds that we obtain knowledge:

  • Question 5

3 out of 3 points

Plato was hesitant to build a theory of knowledge on the physical world because

  • Question 6

3 out of 3 points

The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:

  • Question 7

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following is NOT one of the five sources of knowledge listed in Dew & Foreman:

  • Question 8

3 out of 3 points

By “noumena” Kant is referring to:

  • Question 9

3 out of 3 points

Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:

  • Question 10

Rene Descartes was a:

  • Question 11

3 out of 3 points

Scientific anti-realism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist.  They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work.  This view fits best with which truth theory:

  • Question 12

3 out of 3 points

The philosopher who believed we are born with innate “categories of understanding” was:

  • Question 13

3 out of 3 points

Locke divided knowledge into matters of fact and relations of ideas.

  • Question 14

3 out of 3 points

According to Morris, source skepticism questions:

  • Question 15

3 out of 3 points

Evidentialists hold that some propositions are self-evident.

  • Question 16

3 out of 3 points

According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the  evidentialist principle.

  • Question 17

3 out of 3 points

According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.

  • Question 18

Which is NOT Morris’ position on relativism:

  • Question 19

3 out of 3 points

According to the traditional definition of knowledge:

  • Question 20

3 out of 3 points

Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. Which category of skeptic is she?

 

Question 1

Which of the following statements are not true according to Hasker.

Question 2

The function of a metaphysical theory is to:

Question 3

In searching for the “ultimately real,” Hasker is looking for:

Question 4

According to Hasker, Metaphysical theories should be judged on the basis of their factual adequacy, logical consistency, and explanatory power.

Question 5

According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.

Question 6

The view that our choices are governed by whatever is our strongest motive in a given situation is called:

Question 7

According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:

Question 8

Determinism claims that ultimately our choices don’t make any difference.

Question 9

According to Hasker, a misconception that some have of libertarianism:

Question 10

The scientific case for determinism holds that:

Question 11

Behaviorism states that mental properties are merely a special category of physical properties.

Question 12

Which of the following statements is true about Behaviorism?

Question 13

Which of the following is a weakness/problem with Materialism?

Question 14

Emergentism states that the mind is produced by the brain and therefore is identical with the brain.

Question 15

Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Dualism?

Question 16

The term “contiguity” means:

Question 17

Which of the following affirms the existence of essences?

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:

Question 19

Which of these is a characteristic of substances?

Question 20

According to Dr. Baggett, which of the following best describes libertarian free will:

 

Question 1

Which of the following is not true concerning expert authority?

Question 2

Which of the following is true of metaphysical theories?

Question 3

One rule of thumb in doing metaphysics is the recognition that there are some beliefs that should never be challenged or questioned.

Question 4

In the field of Metaphysics, wholism is the view that complex entities are identical to their component parts.

Question 5

In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.

Question 6

Which doctrine does Hasker suggest to be a way to resolve of the problem of divine foreknowledge and human freedom?

Question 7

The theory that says some actions are chosen and performed by the agent without their being any sufficient cause or condition prior to the action itself.

Question 8

For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:

Question 9

According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:

Question 10

One major argument for libertarianism is:

Question 11

Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?

Question 12

According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.

Question 13

On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.

Question 14

Based on his discussion of John Hick’s examples of resurrection, which of the following statements would Hasker NOT agree to?

Question 15

Idealism tries to avoid the MindBody problem by reducing mental properties to physical properties.

Question 16

An example of an essential property is the fruit on a tree.

Question 17

The kind of “relationship” that is the real problem behind the mind/body problem can be best characterized as:

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:

Question 19

Of the elements of causality, the one that seems to be missing in the relationship between the mind and the body:

Question 20

Which of these is a characteristic of substances?

 

Question 1

In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.

Question 2

Some of the most important questions in metaphysics deal with:

Question 3

Christian theology has made extensive use of pagan philosophy in developing and interpreting

Christian revelation.

Question 4

Which of the following is not a source of authority mentioned in Hasker?

Question 5

According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.

Question 6

According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:

Question 7

According to Hasker, determinism claims that people never make choices.

Question 8

One major argument for libertarianism is:

Question 9

According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:

Question 10

For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:

Question 11

Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?

Question 12

What is one of the advantages of Dualism?

Question 13

According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.

Question 14

On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.

Question 15

Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Materialism?

Question 16

Which of the following is not an element of causality?

Question 17

Which of the following is an essential property of a person according to the PointeCast.

Question 18

Metaphysical Realism says that:

Question 19 Which of the following is a correct statement about “essences?”

Question 20

Which of these is an example of an essential property?

 

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:

Question 2

According to Hume, why can we never arrive at certainty?

Question 3

According to Dew & Foreman, faith is one of the sources of knowledge.

Question 4

For Locke, which of the ideas below would be a complex idea:

Question 5

For Hume, which of the following would be a matter of fact:

Question 6

For Plato, the realm where things are constantly in a flux and changing is:

Question 7

The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:

Question 8

Scientific antirealism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist. They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work. This view fits best with which truth theory:

Question 9

David Hume was a:

Question 10

The one below that is NOT one of the necessary criteria for the traditional definition of knowledge:

Question 11

Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:

Question 12

The basis for Descartes knowledge of the material world was:

Question 13

One problem with the coherence theory of truth is that it is not linked with the real world but only systems of beliefs.

Question 14

According to the traditional definition of knowledge:

Question 15

Certain basic beliefs can be accepted rationally without evidence or proof, according to:

Question 16

According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.

Question 17

According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the evidentialist principle.

Question 18

Morris’ list of ancient skeptics included:

Question 19

William James held that precursive faith allowed us to set aside evidence in order to choose a belief.

Question 20

Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. Which category of skeptic is she?

 

  • Question 1

3 out of 3 points

According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.

  • Question 2

3 out of 3 points

A good metaphysical theory should be characterized by explanatory power.

  • Question 3

3 out of 3 points

According to Hasker, we can and should thoughtfully evaluate our worldviews.

  • Question 4

3 out of 3 points

According to Hasker, which is true of the premises we use in doing metaphysics?

  • Question 5

3 out of 3 points

The function of a metaphysical theory is to:

  • Question 6

3 out of 3 points

 

Why evolution is true 10 page critique and personal reflection

Term Draft Paper

APA style  Focus on the reflections of the understanding of what evolution is and  what it is not. Include personal journey of discovery related to concept of evolution. Philosophical, theological,and sociological reflections,

demonstrartion of a scientific understanding of evolution critique andevaluaute ideas presented in the book using scientific understanding of the process of evolution.

 

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Lib University PHIL 201 quiz 6

Liberty Uni PHIL 201 quiz 6 complete 

More than 11 different versions

Question 1

3 out of 3 points

_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 2

3 out of 3 points

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 3

3 out of 3 points

Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.

Question 4

3 out of 3 points

“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?

Question 5

3 out of 3 points

Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.

Question 6

3 out of 3 points

________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity,

Judaism, and Islam:

Question 7

3 out of 3 points

Dualists believe in one God.

Question 8

3 out of 3 points

It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.

Question 9

3 out of 3 points

Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.

Question 10

3 out of 3 points

Sally believes that the truth about God cannot be known, so she cannot make a judgment on the issue. What position does Sally represent?

Question 11

3 out of 3 points

Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.

Question 12

3 out of 3 points

_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.

Question 13

3 out of 3 points

What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 14

3 out of 3 points

“The universe might always have existed” is an irrelevant objection to the Cosmological argument.

Question 15

3 out of 3 points

According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 16

3 out of 3 points

In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 17

3 out of 3 points

The elements appealed to for design in the universe include which of the following?

Question 18

3 out of 3 points

“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

Question 19

3 out of 3 points

The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

Question 20

Needs Grading

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

 

Question 1

_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 2

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 3

Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion.

Question 4

Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

Question 5

The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.

Question 6

Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?

Question 7

If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.

Question 8

________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 9

Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.

Question 10

What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?

Question 11

This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.

Question 12

The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.

Question 13

Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 14

Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 15

According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 16

According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 17

The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.

Question 18

According to the class presentation, one can successfully provide a single argument for God’s existence.

Question 19

The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 20

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

 

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Question 1

Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.

Question 2

If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:

Question 3

According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.

Question 4

In a critical dialogue about religious beliefs, Evans recommends beginning by asking the other person to accept your own religious presuppositions.

Question 5

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 6

Dualists believe in one God.

Question 7

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 8

What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?

Question 9 If all the premises of a valid deductive argument are true, then the argument is:

Question 10

Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.

Question 11

According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 12

Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?

  1. There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.
  2. Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.

Question 13

The ontological argument states that the natural world appears to exhibit a purposive design and infers its cause must therefore be an intelligent designer.

Question 14

According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.

Question 15

Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 16

According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.

Question 17

In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 18

The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.

Question 19

A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 20

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

 

Question 1

Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”

Question 2

According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.

Question 3

“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?

Question 4

According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.

Question 5

According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.

Question 6

Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?

Question 7

Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?

Question 8

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 9

Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his non-existence is not possible:

Question 10

Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.

Question 11

Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 12

Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?

Question 13

The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.

Question 14

Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:

Question 15

Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.

Question 16

According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 17

In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 18

The fine-tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 19

A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 20

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Selected Answer: It is possible to be wrong.

 

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Question 1 3 out of 3 points

If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non‐believers, she is acting like:

Question 2 3 out of 3 points

“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?

Question 3 3 out of 3 points

Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.

Question 4 3 out of 3 points

The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.

Question 5 3 out of 3 points

Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion. Question 63 out of 3 points

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 7 3 out of 3 points

________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 8 3 out of 3 points

Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.

Question 9 3 out of 3 points

Natural theologians attempt to see what can be known about God independently of any specific religious authority.

Question 10 3 out of 3 points

Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?

Question 113 out of 3 points

What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 12 3 out of 3 points

According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.

Question 13

3 out of 3 points Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 14 3 out of 3 points

Non‐temporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 15 3 out of 3 points

Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?

  1. There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.

ii. Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.

Question 16 3 out of 3 points

According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.

Question 17 3 out of 3 points

The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.

Question 18 3 out of 3 points

The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

Question 19 3 out of 3 points

The fine‐tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 20

Needs Grading To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

 

  • Question 1

3 out of 3 points

Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.

  • Question 2

3 out of 3 points

_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

  • Question 3

3 out of 3 points

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

  • Question 4

3 out of 3 points

Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

  • Question 5

3 out of 3 points

Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.

  • Question 6

3 out of 3 points

Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.

  • Question 7

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?

  • Question 8

3 out of 3 points

Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.

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  • Question 9

Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?

  • Question 10

3 out of 3 points

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

  • Question 11

3 out of 3 points

The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.

  • Question 12

3 out of 3 points

Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?

  • Question 13

3 out of 3 points

A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.

  • Question 14

3 out of 3 points

Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:

  • Question 15

3 out of 3 points

_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.

  • Question 16

3 out of 3 points

According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.

  • Question 17

3 out of 3 points

The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.

  • Question 18

3 out of 3 points

The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

  • Question 19

3 out of 3 points

“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

 

Question 1 The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.

Question 2 The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.

Question 3 Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.

Question 4 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.

Question 5 Theology is an activity carried on outside of a religious tradition.

Question 6 Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.

Question 7 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 8 An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 9 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his non­existence is not possible:

Question 10 It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.

Question 11 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 12 _________ arguments are also known as first­cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.

Question 13 A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.

Question 14 Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:

Question 15 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 16 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 18 According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.

Question 19 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

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Question 1 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

Question 2 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 3 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.

Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non­believers, she is acting like:

Question 5 Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.

Question 6 Dualists believe in one God.

Question 7 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his non­existence is not possible:

Question 8 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.

Question 9 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.

Question 10 What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?

Question 11 According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 12 Naturalism claims that one should be moral because it is one’s best interest to be moral.

Question 13 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 14 The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.

Question 15 Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?

Question 16 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 19 According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

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Question 1 Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”

Question 2 According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.

Question 3 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non­believers, she is acting like:

Question 5 According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.

Question 6 Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?

Question 7 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.

Question 8 Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.

Question 9 Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.

Question 10 Dualists believe in one God.

Question 11 This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.

Question 12 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 13 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:

Question 14 According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.

Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.

Question 16 The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

Question 17 According to Craig, believing that objective meaning, value, and truth exist in a universe that ultimately is meaningless and without value is

Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 19 The fine­tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

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Question 1 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non­believers, she is acting like:

Question 2 According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.

Question 3 Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.

Question 4 What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 5 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 6 Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.

Question 7 Dualists believe in one God.

Question 8 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 9 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.

Question 10 Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?

Question 11 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 12 The cosmological argument and the teleological argument complement each other and therefore could be viewed as part of a general case for the plausibility of theism.

Question 13 Non­temporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 14 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:

Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.

Question 16 The fine­tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 17 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

Question 18 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 19 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

 

Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment

Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.

Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.

Include the following in your evaluation:

  • Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
  • Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
  • Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.

Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.

CJA/475

 

Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444

Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.

 

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.

  • What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
  • What kinds of responses might be considered?
  • What types of assessment would you perform?

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Securing Low Income Housing

 

Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper

Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library

Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:

  • Give a summary of the event
  • Outline the response by police and fire agencies
  • Detail roles within the structured incident command
  • Outline crisis response objectives
  • Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event

Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response

 

Emergency Management Communication Paper


Resources: 
COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

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Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:

  • the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
  • technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
  • support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
  • describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities

Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

 

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:

  • the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
  • technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
  • support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
  • describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities

Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

 

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Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375

Resources: Week 1 Course MaterialsAttached Case Study

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:

  • Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
  • Outline termsand authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
  • Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
  • The overall outcome of the situation

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

The Response and Recovery of City “X”

 

The Safety of Urban Air Mobility

 

Research and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.

Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management

The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.

Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.

An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references

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Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There

Assignment 2 Attentional Blink

 

There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.

Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.

  • Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
  • In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
  • Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
  • Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
  • Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
  • Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
  • Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?

 

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How can algebra help us to understand a probability question?

How can Algebra help us to understand a probability question? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer using MLA guidelines.

Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words?

Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.

Defend or refute one of the following statements

  1. Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.
  2. Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.
  3. The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.

Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.

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White Privilege and Colorism

White Privilege and Colorism

Write a 100 – 500 words essay comparing and contrasting White privilege and colorism.

Organize your paper as an essay with introduction, body, and conclusion paragraphs.

Include answers to the following questions:

  • What is White privilege?
  • If you are a person of color, what are some examples of being denied privilege due to your color?
  • Can you think of privileges that change, depending on the social context (as one moves from one place or social setting to another)? Provide some examples.
  • What is colorism? How did this idea develop, and what are its roots?
  • What are some examples of colorism within today’s overall American society?

Cite and reference in APA style all sources of information used.

Format your assignment according to appropriate course-level APA guidelines

 

Factorial math problem help!

How many consecutive zeroes are there at the end of 100! (100 factorial). For example, 12! – 479,001,600 has two consecutive zeroes at the end.

 

Clock hand problem

What is the first time after 3 PM when the hour and minute hands of a clock are exactly on top of each other. Be as specific as possible to the time.

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Windowless room math problem, help!!

A windowless room has three identical light fixtures, each with an identical light bulb contained within. Each light is connected to one of the three switches outside of the room. Each bulb is switched off at present. You are outside the room, and the door is closed. You have one, and only one, opportunity to flip any of the external switches. After this, you can go into the room and look at the lights, but you may not touch the switches again. How can you tell which switch goes to which light?

Need help with this proof, complex numbers, very hard

The function f(z) is complex valued in the complex plane. f(z) is bounded and entire. Prove that f(z) must be a constant.

HELP: Card Stopping Optimization

In your hands is a standard deck of 52 playing cards (26 black and 26 red). You are drawing cards one at a time. If you draw a red card you get a dollar. If you draw a black card you get fined a dollar. You can stop drawing cards anytime you want. Cards are not returned to the deck after being drawn. Come up with an optimal stopping rule that you can use to maximize your expected payoff. What is the expected payoff following your rule?

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Noticing Patterns in Addition

What is the sum of integers from 1 to n?Justify your formula with a proof.

Black and White Marbles in Two Jars

Suppose there are a large number (>10000), N, of black marbles in a jar. There is an equal number, N, of white marbles in a separate jar.

A quantity, Q, of white marbles are taken out of the jar with white marbles and transferred to the jar with black marbles. The jar with black and white marbles is thoroughly mixed so that the distribution of black and white marbles is uniform.

Afterward, the same quantity of marbles, Q, is taken from the mixed jar of black and white marbles and transferred to the original jar of white marbles to restore the total number of marbles to the original number, N.

What is the expected relationship between the final proportion of white marbles in the white marble jar and black marbles in the black marble jar?

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Need help understanding this topic and writing this essay on Heideigger

In his essay “The Question Concerning Technology,” Heidegger claims that technology is a

mode of revealing, with modern technology in particular revealing nature as standing-reserve.

Do information technologies like cell phones, social media, and the like, constitute a new mode

of revealing? First, give a brief presentation of Heidegger’s analysis of modern technology. Then,

either a) argue that information technology reveals nature in a way other than as standing-reserve

or b) argue that information technology reveals nature in the same way as modern technology

more generally. 500 words, Use MLA or Chicago-Turabian formatting and citation guidelines.

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History and Racial Relations in the United States HELP ASAP

In the past, we have seen occurrences in places like Ferguson, Staten Island, Baltimore and Charleston that bring into question race relations on the structural level. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim about the extent to which the story of Elizabeth and Hazel is emblematic of contemporary race relations in the United States. Are the incidents recounted in this story representative of the structures of power at work today, or is the Elizabeth and Hazel story an anomaly, a thing of the past?

Is my thesis arguable? Thanks!

Charles Darwin created a lasting impact on how differently we view humanity because he explored his own identity, which lead him to produce new theories of evolution and exchange those ideas with the public, therefore encountering the resistance to his beliefs.

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English Help

is this a metaphor or hyperbole:

her hair was a mass of gray ringlets

 

I Need Help Crafting a Narrative – Problem Scenario

This paper will be a creative effort. You may need to talk with others who have experience with the issue you’re writing about or do some reading to ensure that your description of the problem is accurate. Your personal experience with the problem is very important, but you want to make sure it is typical of the problem you are describing. What you want to produce in this section will be similar to the first act of a play or the first part of a short story. You don’t have to resolve the issues you raise in your description. Instead, you will leave the people you describe in the midst of a dilemma they can’t seem to solve. Your major characters will probably be unhappy, stressed, frightened, or anxious.

For example, you may describe the struggles between a young girl with eating disorders and the conflicts it creates in her family. You want your description to capture the essence of what it is like for both the young girl and her parents as they struggle with this problem. You may have personal experience with this situation or you might have observed other individuals and families who have struggled with this issue. If you need to go to other sources, you can find published case studies that will help you tell an accurate story of a family in this situation. 300 to 400 words. Use APA formatting

Problem Scenario

(10 pts) Believability: Does the scenario capture the essence of the problem?

(10 pts) Complexity: Does the scenario go beyond a superficial understanding?

Writing

(10 pts) APA professional appearance (margins, font, headings, etc.)

(10 pts) Structure, organization, and flow

(10 pts) Grammar and spelling

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Discuss the American Dream

The concept of the American Dream is embedded in the fabric of this country. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim regarding what the American Dream is today and how it might vary based on race, class, gender, education, sexuality. You must address at least one of these categories in your paper. If there is overlap between two categories (say, race and class or gender and sexuality) you may address how those factors interact.

Note: To answer this question, you must craft a working definition of the American Dream and this definition must be supported by evidence. However, claiming that the American Dream is “different things to different people” is not arguable. Be sure to craft a definition of the American Dream that can be supported and debated

 

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Describe the role of Jubal Early in the American Civil War.

Give a quick backgrounder on his early life. Then discuss his role in the Civil War. Cite references as well.

 

What is the Copernican principle?

Discuss this concept clearly and comprehensively. Provide examples when possible. Cite references.

Describe the role of Jubal Early in the American Civil War.

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Give a quick backgrounder on his early life. Then discuss his role in the Civil War. Cite references as well.

What is a Double-blind control experiment

What is a Double-blind control experiment and where it is most effectively used for? Please explain comprehensively.

What is the difference between Skeptical empiricism and plain empiricism?

What is the difference between Skeptical empiricism and plain empiricism? Please explain comprehensively

What is the UK Gateway Protection Programme?

Explain its history, purpose, and achievements. Cite references. Thanks

 

Discuss the Fall of the Soviet Union during the Cold War

Answer this in 300-400 words. Make sure to give a detailed discussion and please cite references.

Function of X – True or False

True or False? The equation x = | y | , with x >= 0, represents y as a function of x.

Explain your answer.

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The SOX Act Prepare a Power Point presentation of at least 20 slides that includes the following:

Assess the provision of the Sox Act that requires the establishment of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) and the measures that public accounting firms are taking to ensure that they maintain their independence in all audit assignments, including the mechanisms they are establishing to ensure that the necessary independence and integrity are prevalent in all aspects of their relationship with their clients.Analyze how executives of corporate America have embraced the new regulations and requirements of the Sox Act while maintaining their purpose to produce a profit for investors and staying in compliance of the new rules in the industry. Explain what those new requirements are for the CEO and CFO of publicly traded companies. Describe your assessment of the responsibilities established for accounting personnel—including protection for whistle-blowers—and for the public accounting auditors.Determine how the responsibilities of the board of directors audit committee have changed due to the Sox Act in overseeing the financial reporting process and to hire and be in charge of the independent auditors.Provide recommended sanctions to be imposed on those who do not comply with the SOX Act provisions, and whether or not the sanctions should be stiffened or should include other personnel in the organization.Researched sources should follow these guidelines:At least half of the researched sources should be from authoritative electronic sources related to the accounting field.The findings presented in the paper should be accurate renditions of the Sox Act, including citations and references.Follow APA guidelines when citing references.Include a reference slide.

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Research Paper Psyc 312

Research Paper Instructions

 

You will be responsible for writing a Research Paper focusing on a social psychology topic of your choosing. The topic must be one that is discussed in the textbook. The focus of the paper will be to present and review peer-reviewed research regarding your topic as well as provide a Biblical integration discussion for your topic.

 

For your paper, you must thoroughly review and cite 2 peer-reviewed journal articles that demonstrate research regarding your topic. Your articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental) in which the authors of the article actually formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results themselves. Theoretical/review articles and meta-analyses are not permitted to be reviewed for this paper.

 

Some examples include (please note you do not need to choose one of these topics):

 

  1. For a paper on the Bystander Effect, you could find an article in which the authors manipulated the number of people present and measured helping behavior.

 

  1. For a paper on Relational Aggression, you could find an article in which the authors measured and correlated parenting styles with degree of relational aggression in daughters.

 

Keep in mind that these 2 articles must come from academic, peer-reviewed journals. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases should not be used. In addition to your 2 peer-reviewed articles, you must also cite the textbook in your paper. Other book sources will not count toward the source requirements. In the Biblical Integration section of your paper, you will be required to cite 2 different Scriptural references.

 

You will submit your paper as a Microsoft Word document through Safe Assign. A “draft” link is available for you to check the originality of your work, but all papers must be submitted in the “final” link for credit and grading. Your paper must contain original work to this course only (i.e., you cannot reuse a paper or portion of a paper you have written in the past for another course). Papers that do not include a topic covered in the textbook will be returned and you will be asked to submit a new paper. Normal late policies will apply. In addition, the paper should be written mostly in your own words. Excessive use of quotes is not permitted and will result in a score reduction. Be sure you are paraphrasing information from articles well and citing correctly to avoid plagiarism. Paraphrasing that is too close to the original wording is still considered plagiarism. All instances of plagiarism will be reviewed and action taken as necessary (e.g., point reduction, Code of Honor report, a score of 0 for the paper, failure of the course).

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Your paper must include a current APA-style title page, abstract, body, and reference section. The body of the paper must be at least 5 pages with a maximum of 7 pages (not including the title page, abstract, and references). Papers shorter or longer than this requirement are subject to point deductions. Please note that there is a specific page length requirement for the Biblical Integration section (1 page). Be sure to use current APA-style citations throughout the paper to avoid plagiarism.

The structure of the paper must follow the outline below and all section components must be included for maximum credit.

 

  1. Title Page– current APA style

 

  1. Abstract– current APA style

 

  1. Introduction
  • Provide a definition of the social psychology concept you are researching
  • Provide a brief background of why this concept is important
  • To relate your concept to “real life,” provide a specific, real-world example of your concept. This example can be either something you’ve witnessed in your own life, an example you “make up” to illustrate your concept, or an example used in one of your sources. If you use an example from a source, be sure to cite appropriately.

 

  1. Review of Article I
  • Introduce the article, including the purpose of the article and any relevant hypotheses.
  • Summarize methods (i.e., type of participants, procedures used to manipulate or measure variables)
  • Summarize study results
  • Explain how study and results demonstrate or support the social psychology topic chosen (you must be able to demonstrate that you can relate the specific study results to the general topic chosen)

 

  1. Review of Article II
  • Include all of the same elements listed above

 

  1. Biblical Integration (must be at least one pagein length)
  • Discuss your topic from a Biblical standpoint (i.e., what does the Bible say about it). You must use at least twodifferent Scriptural references in this section to support your discussion.

 

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  1. Conclusion
  • Briefly summarize/define the chosen topic
  • Briefly summarize the major results of each study
  • Briefly summarize the Biblical standpoint discussed

 

  1. Reference Page– Current APA style
  • Include 2 peer-reviewed journal articles describing original research
  • Include textbook reference
  • (Note that the Bible does notneed to be included in your reference section)

 

Research Paper: Topic and References Instructions

 

For this assignment you will decide on your Research Paper topic and find references to be used in your paper. Before completing this assignment, thoroughly read the Research Paper Instructions in Module 7 so you know the guidelines for the paper and what will be expected of you. Be sure you are picking a Social Psychology concept covered in your textbook, and one for which you can present an example and discuss from a Biblical standpoint. For this assignment, you will create and submit an APA-style reference page, submitted as a Word document. The reference page must include 3 references with the following guidelines:

  • Two references must be peer-reviewed journal articles. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases may not be used.
  • Both of these journal articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental). This means that the authors of the article actually conducted a study themselves in which they formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results. No theoretical/review articles or meta-analyses are allowed.
  • One reference needs to be your course textbook

 

Please note that the instructor will not be able to look up each of your articles to verify whether they meet criteria (although this is sometimes obvious from the title). You are responsible for ensuring any article you submit fits the guidelines above. If not, you will need to do more research before your paper is due since you will not be able to complete the paper correctly without appropriate articles and will incur significant point deductions at that time. Attached to the end of this document is a list of questions you can ask yourself to ensure you are choosing appropriate articles.

 

At the bottom of the page underneath your APA-style references, list your topic (including the chapter number for where your topic is found in your textbook) and two different Scriptural references that you will use in your paper. This requirement allows you to check whether or not you can apply Scripture to your topic, which will be required for your final paper. Please list out both the Scriptural citation and the text. If you are referencing long passages of text, please only type out one or two of the most applicable verses for this assignment. For your paper, you can reference more than what you list here if needed. The information can be organized as follows:

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Topic (including chapter number where topic is found):

 

Scriptural Reference 1: (e.g., John 3:16 (NIV) “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.”)

 

Scriptural Reference 2:

 

**You will be allowed to alter your references and Scriptural choices if necessary for the final Research Paper, but will need to ensure that any changes to your references continue to meet requirements for full credit on your paper.

 

Your Research Paper: Topic and References is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Questions to Ask Yourself When Choosing Articles

 

  1. Does my article come from a peer-reviewed journal article?

If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following other sources:

  1. Does the article come from a magazine, book, website, or thesis/dissertation database?

 

  1. Did the authors of this article conduct an original research study themselves?

If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following questions:

  1. Are the authors onlyreviewing someone else’s work?
  2. Are the authors compiling others’ research into a meta-analysis?
  3. Are the authors onlyproviding a theoretical discussion of the topic or describing a model they are proposing?

 

  1. Did the authors form hypotheses, seek out a sample, collect data from this sample, analyze their own results, and provide a discussion of these results?

 

If you can answer YES to questions 1, 2, and 3, then your article is appropriate for your paper!

 

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KELLY ESSAY PLEASE HELP!!

Please see attached file for assisnment requirments. Must use 2 scholar articles.

Analyze the 4 common elements in most human disturbance according to Kelly (threat, fear, anxiety, and guilt). Compare each of these constructs with what Scripture says regarding these particular elements.

 

This assignment does not require a Title page or Abstract page, but does require a Reference page and in-text citations

 

Supplemental Assignment 2 Instructions

You will take an active part (e.g., spend half a day volunteering/helping out) in a community outreach activity (not a university or church activity unless it is an activity that reaches out to the community) of your choosing, which will familiarize you with the needs of the community. Some examples of activities include volunteering at a shelter, a camp, a recreation center, a home for girls or boys, a soup kitchen, a clothing bank, a detoxification center, a tutoring center for younger children, a vocational rehabilitation center, Habitat for Humanity, a minority community center, etc. After the completion of the activity, you will document your experience by writing a paper. The paper will be written in current APA format and will include one title page, one abstract page, two full pages of text, and one reference page.  The paper will explain in detail: (1) the experience (what was observed, how it affected you), (2) what was learned from the project (what the community’s needs are, what ethics are in place, how you can help make a difference), and (3) a discussion of two course concepts that relate to your observations.  For number three (3), cite two empirical studies from the research literature that address each one of the two course concepts discussed relating to sociocultural diversity that you observed in the outreach activity.  Make sure to cite each of these concepts in correct APA format.

 

 

https://learn.liberty.edu/bbcswebdav/pid-25610776-dt-content-rid-309992438_1/courses/PSYC351_B03_201840/PSYC351_B03_201840_ImportedContent_20180820094702/PSYC351_Presentations/On-Line%208%20Cognitive%20Behavioral%20Therapy%20%26%20Spirituality%20Part%201%20%28LMS%29/res/html5.html

 

 

https://learn.liberty.edu/bbcswebdav/pid-25610778-dt-content-rid-309992582_1/courses/PSYC351_B03_201840/PSYC351_B03_201840_ImportedContent_20180820094702/PSYC351_Presentations/On-Line%208%20Cognitive%20Behavioral%20Therapy%20%26%20Spirituality%20Part%202%20%28LMS%29/res/html5.html

 

Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health

Read the “Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health” article. (link below)

In this quantitative study, the authors attempted to investigate the possible relationship between two spirituality variables (religious coping styles and spiritual well-being) and two psychological variables (anxiety and depression). Also studied were differences between those who self-disclosed a spiritual/religious identity and those who did not. Their data analysis concluded that individuals who reported a high use of religious coping styles also reported high levels of spiritual well-being.

  • The authors felt a limitation of their study was in defining ‘spirituality.’ State how that can be an obstacle in doing religious counseling.
  • The authors state, “Spiritual well-being can clearly incorporate God into ones’ life while also incorporating self-reliance.” Is this not a seeming contradiction? Give your thoughts on this.

 

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Response paper Phil 201

Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:

 

  1. Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
  2. The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
  3. The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
  4. You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
  5. While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
  6. While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
  7. You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
  8. Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.

 

 

 

Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:

 

  1. McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
  2. On the Cosmological Argument:
  3. McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
  4. McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
  5. On the Teleological Argument:
  6. McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
  7. From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
  8. McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
  9. McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
  10. On the Problem of Evil:
  11. McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?

 

 

b.      McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond t

to McCloskey’s question?

  1. On Atheism as Comforting:
  2. In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.

 

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EFFECT OF SLAVE TRADE IN AFRICA

Though colonialism may have officially ended, the effects of colonialism are still very much present today. This is true in modern-day Africa.
Review the following resources for additional information on the slave trade in Africa:

  • Origins of African Slaves: Slave Trade Routes
  • Lasting Effects of Slavery on Africa
  • African Countries and Independence Dates

Select 1 of the following countries from which the most slaves originated:

  • Democratic Republic of the Congo
  • Ghana
  • Ivory Coast

Use this template to complete your paper:

  • For your selected country, identify the former colonial ruling country.
  • Identify your selected country’s date of independence from the colonial ruling country, and discuss the length of time the slave trade operated there.
  • Discuss how the depopulation and fractured familial relationships inherent in the slave trade have affected your chosen country. Be sure to support your discussion with relevant examples.

o    Are these effects still felt today? If so, how? Provide examples.

  • Based on your review of this information, what conclusions can you draw about the slave trade and its effects on your selected country?
  • Based on your key findings and conclusions, what recommendations do you have to help improve the conditions in the country now? Make sure your recommendations:

o    include specific interventions or strategies to address the issues and constraints identified

o    are feasible (politically and operationally)

o    are realistic (short- and long-term)

  • Utilize at least 2 credible sources to support the arguments presented in the paper. Make sure you cite them appropriately within your paper, and list them in APA format on your Reference page.
  • Your paper should be 4–5 pages in length, not counting the Title page and Reference page. In accordance with APA formatting requirements, your paper should include a Title and Reference page, should be double-spaced, and include a running head and page numbers.

References
Boddy-Evans, A. (2017, September 18). Chronological list of African independence. Retrieved from https://www.thoughtco.com/chronological-list-of-african-independence-4070467
Pruitt, S. (2016, May 3). What part of Africa did most slaves come from? HISTORY. Retrieved from http://www.history.com/news/ask-history/what-part-of-africa-did-most-slaves-come-from
Ross, W. (2007, March 29). Slavery’s long effects on Africa. BBC News. Retrieved from http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/africa/6504141.st

 

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PSY 370 Assignment 2 LASA I—Amphetamine Use and Abuse

Aaliyah continues to struggle with balancing her work hours and her schoolwork. She has been drinking coffee to help her stay awake, but it is no longer working. She has an exam coming up and needs to stay up to study.

 

Aaliyah decides to take an amphetamine to stay awake to study for the exam. She promises herself that she will only take it this one time for the exam. The drug allows her to stay awake and alert while she is studying for the exam. She also feels that she is learning the material better as a result of the amphetamine. When the grades are in, Aaliyah receives an A on her work.

 

As the semester continues, Aaliyah turns to amphetamines more and more often to help her stay awake to complete her schoolwork. Soon, Aaliyah finds that one pill no longer keeps her awake as long as she needs.

 

She starts taking more than one pill at a time. She knows that taking amphetamines so often is not good for her health, and she finds she experiences an increase in headaches when she takes them, but she continues to take them because they are helping her be successful in school and at work.

 

Based on the case study, prepare a paper that addresses the following:

  • Examine the change in amphetamine use and abuse in the U.S. from the 1950s to the present.
  • Explain to which schedule amphetamines belong and why they are on the Schedule of Controlled Substances.
  • Explain the effects Aaliyah might be experiencing as a result of her regular amphetamine use. Be sure to include:

o    Acute effects, chronic effects, and withdrawal

o    Effects on physiology (brain and body), behavior, mood, and toxicity

  • Give at least three indications from the case study suggesting there may be a problem with Aaliyah’s substance use. That is, describe at least three likely behaviors that Aaliyah is likely to exhibit if she is misusing amphetamines.

Determine whether Aaliyah has a substance use disorder. Include a discussion of DSM criteria. Use the template to help you make the assessment.

 

Write a 4-5-page paper in Word format. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

 

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Assignment 2 Grading Criteria

Maximum Points

Examined the change in amphetamine use and abuse in the U.S. from the 1950s to the present.

24

Explained why amphetamine is on the Schedule of Controlled Substances and to which schedule it belongs.

20

Explained the acute, chronic, and withdrawal effects of amphetamines on physiology, behavior, mood, and toxicity.

40

Described at least 3 behaviors Aaliyah is likely to exhibit if she is misusing amphetamines.

40

Used DSM criteria to determine whether Aaliyah has a substance use disorder.

32

Style (4 points): Tone, audience, and word choice Organization (12 points):Introduction, transitions, and conclusion

Usage and Mechanics (12 points): Grammar, spelling, and sentence structure

APA Elements (16 points): In text citations and references, paraphrasing, and appropriate use of quotations and other elements of style

44

Total:

200

 

HHS 497 Week 2 Assignment Theory and Research Related to Social Issue

HHS 497 Week 2 Assignment Theory and Research Related to Social Issue

By now, you have had the opportunity to explore some of the fundamental elements of your social issue of interest. In this written assignment, you will now focus your attention on identifying and analyzing the scope of scholarly literature that addresses the social issue. Specifically, you will access the Ashford University Library, in addition to other scholarly content from previous coursework that might be pertinent (e.g., textbooks, research articles, etc.), to find sources that examine theoretical perspectives and relevant research that pertain to your selected topic.

This assignment will require that you develop a research-based report demonstrating theory and research methodology related to your social issue.

In your paper
• Describe two to three theories that relate to your topic area in some manner. To accommodate the broad

spectrum of social issues that might be explored, aim to find theories that attempt to explain some the following areas:

o Thereason(s)forwhythesocialissueexistsorpersists
o Factorsthatcontributetoit
o Social, environmental, political, or economic considerations that underlie it o Emergingalternativeviewpointsthatclarifytheissue

  • Critically evaluate the theories described, taking into account their benefits and limitations, as well as how health and human service organizations might use them to better understand the scope of the issue.
  • Describe two to three examples of research studies that have explored the issue. These studies must come from their original source; do not rely on literature reviews that summarize research conducted by others. Studies can examine any area related to the issue with the exception of interventions, as this will be addressed in the Week Three assignment. Examples include:

o Exploring the social issue’s impact on a specific group
o Identifying relationships between variables (Trochim, 2006) related to the issue
o Examining social attitudes and viewpoints through survey research (Trochim, 2006)
o Identifyingemergingtrends
o Exploring lived experiences or personal accounts using qualitative data (Trochim, 2006)

  • Analyze pertinent aspects related to the research studies, such as core aims/objectives, research methods used, findings, and implications for future research and/or practice.

The Theory and Research Related to Social Issue Paper

  • Must be three to four double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and

formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

  • Must include a separate title page with the following:

o Titleofpaper
o Student’sname
o Course name and number o Instructor’sname
o Datesubmitted

  • Must use at least five scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
    o TheScholarly,PeerReviewed,andOtherCredibleSourcestableoffersadditionalguidanceon

appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.

  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the

Ashford Writing Center.

 

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HHS 497 Week 1 Assignment Background of Social Issues

HHS 497 Week 1 Assignment Background of Social Issues

Background of Social Issues. Due by Day 7. Throughout the course of your degree program, you have had the opportunity to examine various topical issues that are addressed by professionals in the health and human services field. To demonstrate your mastery of the program learning outcomes, you will synthesize your knowledge of various content areas related to a social issue of your choosing, and use this to develop an original intervention (i.e., strategy, technique, or application) to address this particular topic in your Final Paper. To facilitate in the development of this final assignment, you will prepare and submit the first of four written assignments, which will involve a thorough overview of your proposed social issue.

More specifically, your task will involve addressing the following content areas:

  • Identify a social issue that health and/or human service organizations address in some capacity and

discuss its current impact on group(s) affected by it. When selecting an area of focus, take into account broad topics that have been exhaustively scrutinized at the scholarly level, such as homelessness, mental health, aging, substance abuse, child welfare, etc. A good place to begin your search on an area of interest is the HHS A to Z Index.

  • Describe the historical underpinnings of this issue. Factors to consider include: where and how it originated, pertinent events and their dates, and its current status.
  • Discuss specific factors contributing to the social issue. Consider environmental, social, political, and economic reasons that have attempted to explain why this issue persists.
  • Evaluate the impact of this social issue on the delivery of health and human service efforts by reviewing the scholarly literature and relevant professional/governmental resources for evidence of formal responses in the form of policy implementation, legislation, or Acts related to this social issue. What impact has this had on how health and/or human service organizations provide support in terms of direct practice with clients and within communities?

At minimum, your submission must include three scholarly sources (excluding the required course readings), two of which must come from the Ashford University Library (e.g., articles, professional critiques, research reports, etc.). The third source can come from either the library or from a professional website ending in .gov.

The Background of Social Issues Paper

  • Must be three to four double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and

formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

  • Must include a separate title page with the following:

o Titleofpaper
o Student’sname
o Course name and number o Instructor’sname
o Datesubmitted

  • Must use at least three scholary sources (excluding the required course readings), two of which must come from within the Ashford University Library (e.g., articles, professional critiques, research reports, etc.). The third source can come from either the library or from a professional website ending in .gov).

o The Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources table offers additional guidance on appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.

  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the

Ashford Writing Center.

 

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ETH 321 Assignment Week 3 Team Assignment Sexual Harassment Education for Managers

The purpose of this assignment is to define sexual harassment in the workplace and its negative effect on employees and the business, to analyze the requirements for a sexual harassment claim, to develop methods that a business can adopt to reduce or eliminate sexual harassment claims and litigation, and to assess liability based on the form of business entity.

 

Read the following scenario.    High-profile sexual harassment scandals, such as allegations against Bill Cosby, Harvey Weinstein of the Weinstein Company, and Bill O’Reilly and Roger Aisles of Fox News, are changing the landscape of workplace sexual harassment claims and litigation.

 

Conduct a roundtable discussion (in person, web conference, or via e-mail, text, etc.) with your Learning Team members regarding sexual harassment as a growing ethical and legal concern for businesses today. Each Learning Team member must be prepared to discuss each topic. Assign a group moderator to keep the discussions on track. Your discussion should last at least 45 minutes to one hour and include the following:

 

  • Define sexual harassment and discuss applicable law (such as the Civil Rights Act of 1964). How does the state law in your state address sexual harassment?

 

  • Discuss a recent sexual harassment claim in the news and whether media coverage is beneficial or detrimental to reporting and reducing sexual harassment claims in the workplace. Should sexual harassment claims be addressed publicly or handled privately?

 

  • Explain the ethical and legal considerations of a business protecting its employees (the accuser, the accused, and other employees in the company) while a workplace sexual harassment investigation is underway. Does your answer change if the allegation is a widely known scandal-making front page news?

 

  • Compare the sexual harassment liability of a business entity that is a sole proprietorship with an entity that is a corporation.

 

  • Recommend risk management procedures a business can implement to avoid or reduce sexual harassment claims from occurring in the workplace.

 

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You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications.  However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package.  The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home.  The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home.  Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

 

Str 581 week 1 career connection values and strategy paper

Choose an organization according to the following:

  • Current employer
  • Most recent or former employer
  • Place of business that you have patronized or have been familiar with over a long period of time.

o    Avoid choosing an organization that is so large that historical data would be difficult to apply. Firms in the Russell 2000® index may fit well, whereas firms in the Dow 30 Industrial index probably do not.

  • The organization can be a start-up that you or a significant other may create in the future. For a start-up, focus on an entrepreneurial idea that is of substantive interest, so this project leaves you with a product you may leverage in the future.

Write a 1,050-word paper in which you address the following: 

  • Identify the major components of the strategic management process.
  • Discuss how these components work together to create value for the organization.
  • Evaluate the company’s mission statement, vision statement, motivation strategy, innovation strategy, and people strategy. If the organization does not have one or more of these, how does that affect the organization and its people?
  • Explain the role of ethics and corporate social responsibility in strategic planning.  How does this direct their strategy? How does the organization’s vison and mission align with your own values and vision?  If you are currently working for the organization, how does your role influence this and vice versa?

 

Problem 1 Estimate the daily carbon utilization to remove chlorobenzene from 1 million gal/day of

Problem 1 Estimate the daily carbon utilization to remove chlorobenzene from 1 million gal/day of groundwater saturated with chlorobenzene. Assume a chlorobenzene concentration of 5 mg/L is acceptable for discharge to a POTW.

 

Problem 2 Provide a preliminary design of a carbon adsorption system (i.e. the height of the adsorption zone, the number and size of column units, and the daily carbon usage rate) for the removal of 2,4,6- trichlorophenol from 250,000 gal/day of water. The following data are provided: Bohart-Adams model: a = 2.3 days/ft; b = -10 days (for the 90% removal line) in laboratory tests where trichlorophenol concentration was reduced from 395 mg/L to 10 mg/L at a loading of 4 gal/(ft2 ∙min) using laboratory columns with the following specifications: 2.3 m column length, 0.051 m column diameter, and 0.5 L/min flow rate. The adsorption zone was 19 ft. Assume that the unit weight of carbon is 481 kg/m3 .

 

Problem 3 A plating waste with a flow of 40,000 gal/day contains 274 mg/L of NaCN. Determine the amounts of chlorine as Cl2 and NaOH required to oxidize the cyanide to CO2 and N2.

 

Problem 4 A waste contains 150 mg/L of copper at a flow rate of 75 L/min. Determine the amount of sodium borohydride required to treat this waste.

 

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Resources: Section 508 Website, including Subpart B

Resources:  Section 508 Website, including Subpart B

Prepare a 7- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation that explains Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.

List several of the technical requirements placed on software applications (§ 1194.21) and web-based applications (§ 1194.22), then explain the purpose each serves.

Incorporate additional research or academic information to support your presentation.

Format your PowerPoint® speaker notes according to APA guidelines.

 

GSCM-440 Iowa Elevators 3-1 Kirtis Gibbs DeVry University


What were the executives looking for from the procurement group to provide?

What is the corporate structure today and what will it look like in the future?

What is the overall plan? What does purchasing have to do with the categories? If they do it, then what is the outcome? Would it encounter support or resistance?

Create a case to clarify the new structure and the benefits that will be created from it.

 

British petroleum – BP-Conduct research using Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources

Select one of the companies you would like to research below:

  • British Petroleum (BP)
  • Facebook
  • Hyundai
  • Dunkin’ Donuts
  • Netflix

Conduct research using Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources to address the following required elements:

  • State what you believe is the distinctive competence and core competence of your selected company.
  • Give an example of how the values and mission statement help to shape planning. Additionally, discuss some internal and external factors that may influence the business in the future.
  • Complete the SWOT Analysis template for your selected organization; applying each of the categories in evaluating the company.

Support your claims with examples from required materials and/or other scholarly or credible resources, and properly cite any references.

 

complete and include the swot table in the paper

Refs and cite with the book below, journal articles and any other sources

 

BUS ADM 201 Introduction to Financial Accounting

1 Name:_________________ BUS ADM 201 Introduction to Financial Accounting TA:___________________ Spring 2018 Disc #:_________________ EXTRA CREDIT III Due at 11:59 on Saturday, May 12th GRADING: Worth up to 15 points. Carefully READ the requirements on page 2 first. Partially completed problems will earn no credit—that means all requirements must be FULLY completed. All work must be completed by hand. If you complete all items as requested, you will earn at least 7.5 points. The remaining points are dependent upon the accuracy of your answers. Round amounts to the nearest dollar, if applicable. Jamukha Corporation prepares annual financial statements. The balance sheet at December 31, 2016, is presented below. Jamukha Corporation Balance Sheet December 31, 2016 Assets Liabilities and Stockholders’ Equity Cash 22,500 Accounts payable 52,900 Accounts receivable 28,000 Common stock ($1 par) 10,000 Allowance for doubtful accounts (350) Paid-in capital in excess of par – Common stock 90,000 Inventory 55,000 Retained earnings 76,750 Prepaid insurance 4,500 Equipment 230,000 A/D – Equipment (110,000) 229,650 229,650 During 2017 the following transactions occurred: 1. Purchased $176,000 inventory on account. Jamukha Corp. uses a perpetual inventory system. 2. Sales of $335,000, plus 5.6% sales tax, were made to customers on account. Cost of goods sold was $194,500. 3. Received $26,000 cash down payment for orders that will be shipped next year. 4. Issued 12 year, $80,000 face value, 4% bonds on July 1 at 102. The bonds were sold to yield an effective annual rate of 3.79101%, and they pay interest every January 1 and July 1. 5. Collected $245,000 on account. 6. Paid general expenses of $41,250. 7. Paid $220,750 on account. 8. Paid the sales tax collected from customers to the State of Wisconsin. 9. On January 1, Jamukha Corp. sold for $9,000 cash equipment which originally cost $65,000. Accumulated depreciation for this equipment as of December 31, 2016, was $50,000. This transaction is exempt from sales tax. 2 10. Issued 1,600 shares of $100 par, 7% preferred stock for $194,000 cash. 11. Purchased equipment on July 1, 2017, for $180,000 cash. 12. Purchased 500 shares of Jamukha Corp. common stock from a disgruntled shareholder for $42 per share. 13. Recorded salaries and payroll taxes. Employee’s gross salaries were $60,000. FICA tax was withheld at a rate of 7.65%. Federal income taxes (FIT) of $6,000 were withheld, and state income taxes (SIT) of $3,000 were withheld. The federal unemployment tax (FUTA) rate was 1%, and the state unemployment tax (SUTA) rate was 3.25%. No cash has been paid yet, so record all the amounts due in the appropriate payable accounts. 14. The paychecks and payroll taxes from entry #13 were paid. Adjusting Journal Entries: 15. Straight-line depreciation with a 5 year useful life and no salvage value is used for equipment purchased in previous years. The equipment purchased on July 1, 2017 (#11) is depreciated using double-declining balance with a useful life of 15 years and a $30,000 salvage value. (Hint: The equipment was purchased midway through the year.) 16. Accrue bond interest payable and amortize bond discount/premium. Jamukha Corp. uses effective-interest amortization. (Hint: The bond was issued midway through the year.) 17. The prepaid insurance relates to a policy purchased on December 31, 2016. This insurance expires at a rate of $300 per month. Record as a general expense. 18. Jamukha estimates that 5% of accounts receivable are uncollectible. 19. Jamukha Corp. is an S-corporation and is not subject to income tax. REQUIRED: Print out the solution pages for the general journal, ledger, and worksheet that follow and enter the following transactions. I suggest that you use a pencil. a. Enter the transactions numbered 1-14 in the general journal provided on the following pages. b. Post the journal entries to the ledger accounts for items 1-14. Look at the cash account for an example of how to use the running balance ledger. I have completed the first two lines of it for you. It is a good idea to keep track of whether your balance column is a debit or a credit, particularly for contra accounts. c. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance at December 31, 2017 and enter on the worksheet. d. Worksheet requirement: Using your unadjusted trial balance (c) above and the data for adjusting entries (#15-19), prepare a 12-column worksheet similar to worksheet for Sierra Corporation in Chapter 4 and the prior extra credit assignments. You will not receive any credit if the worksheet is incomplete. To save time, you are not required to formally journalize or post your adjusting entries (you can just enter them on the worksheet). You are not required to record closing entries. e. Prepare a formal statement of cash flows using the T-account approach. Templates for the statement and the T-account worksheet are attached. (You are not required to formally present the other statements— just complete them on the worksheet.) 3 EXTRA CREDIT III SOLUTION Name _____________________ Journal: Requirement (a) General Journal Debit Credit a.1. a.2. a.3. a.4. a.5. a.6. a.7. a.8. a.9. a.10. a.11. a.12. a.13. a.14. 4 General Ledger: Requirement (b) CASH DR CR BALANCE Beginning 22,500 22,500 DR Item 3 26,000 48,500 DR ACCOUNTS RECEIVABLE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 28,000 28,000 DR ALLOWANCE FOR DOUBTFUL ACCOUNTS DR CR BALANCE Beginning 350 350 CR INVENTORY DR CR BALANCE Beginning 55,000 55,000 DR PREPAID INSURANCE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 4,500 4,500 DR EQUIPMENT DR CR BALANCE Beginning 230,000 230,000 DR ACCUM DEPRECIATION – EQUIPMENT DR CR BALANCE Beginning 110,000 110,000 CR 5 General Ledger: Requirement (b) continued ACCOUNTS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 52,900 52,900 CR SALARIES PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SALES TAX PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FICA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FIT PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SIT PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FUTA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SUTA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE UNEARNED REVENUE DR CR BALANCE BONDS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE PREMIUM ON BONDS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE 6 General Ledger: Requirement (b) continued COMMON STOCK ($1 PAR) DR CR BALANCE Beginning 10,000 10,000 CR PREFERRED STOCK ($100 PAR) DR CR BALANCE PAID-IN CAPITAL IN EXCESS OF PAR – COMMON STOCK DR CR BALANCE Beginning 90,000 90,000 CR PAID-IN CAPITAL IN EXCESS OF PAR – PREFERRED STOCK DR CR BALANCE TREASURY STOCK DR CR BALANCE RETAINED EARNINGS DR CR BALANCE Beginning 76,750 76,750 CR SALES REVENUE DR CR BALANCE COST OF GOODS SOLD DR CR BALANCE GENERAL EXPENSES DR CR BALANCE SALARIES EXPENSE DR CR BALANCE PAYROLL TAX EXPENSE DR CR BALANCE LOSS ON DISPOSAL DR CR BALANCE 7 Account Title DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR Totals Net loss Totals Ending retained earnings Totals Sheet Jamukha Corporation Worksheet: Requirement (c), (d) For the Year Ended December 31, 2017 Unadjusted Adjusted Income Retained Balance Trial Balance Adjustments Trial Balance Statement Earnings Statement 8 Jamukha Corporation Statement of Cash Flows: Requirement (e) For the Year Ended December 31, 2017 CASH FROM OPERATING ACTIVITIES: Increases Decreases Net Cash From Operating Activities CASH FROM INVESTNG ACTIVITIES: Net Cash From Investing Activities CASH FROM FINANCING ACTIVITIES: Net Cash From Financing Activities NET INCREASE IN CASH Cash at beginning of year Cash at end of year 9 110,000 10,000 28,000 52,900 0 350 0 90,000 55,000 0 0 4,500 0 76,750 230,000 0 0 Accounts receivable Accounts payable Pref. stock ($100 par) Statement of Cash Flows T-Account Worksheet Requirement (e) Use the formal statement to show activity within the cash account. On this statement, debits to cash correspond to increases and credits correspond to decreases. A/D – Equipment Common stock ($1 par) Allow. for doubtful accts Interest payable PICEP – CS Inventory Unearned revenue PICEP – PS Prepaid insurance Bonds payable Retained earnings Equipment Premium on B/P Treasury stock

 

FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project-DELTA AIRLINES


FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project

Grading Guidelines

The paper is graded on a 100-point scale.  The following describes the breakdown of points available:

25 points for ORGANIZATION

This is a long and complicated paper, so it is essential that you are organized in your presentation of the information.  Please be sure to present each item in the order suggested by the outline and have clear headings and sub-headings to make it easy to follow.  Also, it is important to organize the paper in a way that prevents the reader from having to flip back and forth from one section to another to follow the discussion (e.g., ensure that each ratio/calculation is discussed immediately after it is presented, rather than having a separate table elsewhere in the report.

25 points for ANALYSIS

To receive the full amount of points for this category, be sure to provide thorough discussion of your analysis process and an explanation of what the ratio/calculation means.  It is important to demonstrate that you have a good understanding of why each calculation was done, and what information can be learned from it.  Also, in this section I remove points for any situation where I feel that the analysis presented is not the students’ original work (i.e., taken from another source without attribution.)  While you can certainly refer to other analysts’ work regarding your company, please be sure to conduct your own analyses and draw your own conclusions throughout the paper.  If citations are not provided for others’ analyses in several instances throughout the paper, the appropriate academic sanctions will be imposed.

25 points for THOROUGHNESS

In order to receive the full amount of points available for this portion of the paper, you must include every item listed on the general outline provided at the beginning of the course.  Points will be removed if any item is missing from the analysis.

25 points for CONTENT

In this category, I am assessing the extent to which the entire report provides a complete analysis of the company, utilizing the steps we practiced throughout the course.  Do you tie it all together with connecting themes and findings?  Or, is it just a list of the various calculations with a sentence or two in between explaining each.  A successful paper will present a congruous and thorough analysis of the company with insightful and thoughtful commentary throughout.

 

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FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project

FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project

Grading Guidelines

The paper is graded on a 100-point scale.  The following describes the breakdown of points available:

25 points for ORGANIZATION

This is a long and complicated paper, so it is essential that you are organized in your presentation of the information.  Please be sure to present each item in the order suggested by the outline and have clear headings and sub-headings to make it easy to follow.  Also, it is important to organize the paper in a way that prevents the reader from having to flip back and forth from one section to another to follow the discussion (e.g., ensure that each ratio/calculation is discussed immediately after it is presented, rather than having a separate table elsewhere in the report.

25 points for ANALYSIS

To receive the full amount of points for this category, be sure to provide thorough discussion of your analysis process and an explanation of what the ratio/calculation means.  It is important to demonstrate that you have a good understanding of why each calculation was done, and what information can be learned from it.  Also, in this section I remove points for any situation where I feel that the analysis presented is not the students’ original work (i.e., taken from another source without attribution.)  While you can certainly refer to other analysts’ work regarding your company, please be sure to conduct your own analyses and draw your own conclusions throughout the paper.  If citations are not provided for others’ analyses in several instances throughout the paper, the appropriate academic sanctions will be imposed.

25 points for THOROUGHNESS

In order to receive the full amount of points available for this portion of the paper, you must include every item listed on the general outline provided at the beginning of the course.  Points will be removed if any item is missing from the analysis.

25 points for CONTENT

In this category, I am assessing the extent to which the entire report provides a complete analysis of the company, utilizing the steps we practiced throughout the course.  Do you tie it all together with connecting themes and findings?  Or, is it just a list of the various calculations with a sentence or two in between explaining each.  A successful paper will present a congruous and thorough analysis of the company with insightful and thoughtful commentary throughout.

FINA 408 Individual Project

SAMPLE – OUTLINE FOR SPRING 2018 WILL DIFFER

 

  1. Introduction
  2. Purpose of project
  3. Short description of company

 

  1. Governance and Communication Analysis

 

  1. Introduce the concepts addressed in the questions below, then answer the questions and discuss the importance of the following:

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  1. Who is the company’s current CEO?  Is he or she also the Chair of the Board?  Discuss the company’s considerations in making this decision.  Do you agree that this is the best leadership structure for this board? Why or why not?2.  Who serves on the board’s Audit Committee?  How many members are Financial Experts?  What experience qualifies them for that designation?  Do you agree with this designation? Why or why not?

    3. Is there more than one class of common stock outstanding?  How many votes does each share of each class of stock get?  Does any one person or entity control the voting rights at the company? If so, who?

    4. Who or what entity holds the highest percentage of the company’s stock?  Are most of the beneficial owners reported individuals or institutions? What are the implications of the company’s ownership structure?

    5.   What was the total amount of compensation paid to the CEO last year?  What portion of his or her total pay was annual bonus and non-equity incentives?  What were the main performance measures used to determine the CEO’s annual bonus and/or non-equity incentives?

    6. Listen to a recording of an analyst call (AKA earnings call or quarterly conference call) for your company.  Listen to about 15-20 minutes of the call and write a summary of your observations, including any questions that you might have wanted to ask the CEO/CFO, etc.

 

 

 

 

 

III.           Strategy Analysis

  1. Industry Analysis:  Porter’s Five Forces
  2. Rivalry among existing firms
  3. Threat of new entrants

iii.      Threat of substitutes

  1. Buyer power
  2. Supplier power
  3. Company Strategy Analysis
  4. Is your company following a Low Cost Leader or a Product/Service Differentiation Strategy?
  5. Where would evidence of this strategy show up in their financials?

 

  1. Financial Analysis
  2. Recasted Income Statement (3 years)
  3. Recasted Balance Sheet (3 years)
  4. Common Size Income Statement (3 years)
  5. DuPont Analysis (1 year)
  6. Profitability Analysis Ratios (3 years)
  7. Profit Margin
  8. Return on Assets (ROA)

iii.      Return on Equity (ROE)

  1. Gross profit margin
  2. EBIT Margin
  3. Accounts Receivable Turnover and Days’ Receivable

vii.      Inventory Turnover and Days’ Inventory

viii.      Accounts Payable Turnover and Days’ Payable

  1. PP&E Turnover
  2. Long-term Asset Turnover
  3. Risk Analysis
  4. Non-Financial Risk Analysis
  5. Review the Risk Factors section of the company’s most recent 10-K and discuss the three factors mentioned which, in your opinion, may have the most significant impact on the company
  6. Financial Risk Ratios (3 years)
  7. Current ratio
  8. Quick ratio
  9. Cash ratio
  10. Liabilities-to-equity ratio
  11. Capital structure ratio
  12. Interest coverage ratio

 

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  1. Forecast
  2. Growth Rate
  3. Sustainable Growth Rate
  4. Calculate and discuss the company’s dividend payout ratio (if applicable) and the Sustainable Growth Rate
  5. Weighted Average Cost of Capital
  6. Use the CAPM to compute the required rate of return on equity capital for the company
  7. Determine the cost of debt (if applicable) and the cost of preferred stock (if applicable)
  8. Compute the weighted average cost of capital for the company
  9. Explain why this cost is important for companies to consider, and discuss the WACC for your company
  10. Forecasted Income Statement (5 years)
  11. Prepare a forecasted income statement for 5 years
  12. Explain in detail your projections for Revenues, including any segment analysis conducted

 

 

How mangers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce

Write a one page paper on how Managers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce.  How can each generation learn from one another?  Then tell me what can Generation X  do to make the workplace a better place?

Analysis, Modeling, and Design

Business Case Research Paper

A Business Case Definition:  Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.

For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan.   Include definitions and applications.   Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.

I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length.  Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.

This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.

 

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Accounting problem

Ordinary Tax – 39.6%

Capital Gain – 20%

Recap on Depreciation – 25%

 

Problem 1

 

XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000.  An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building.  A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000.  Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used.  Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.

Economic Gain – 10 million

 

Depreciation rates are as follows:

 

Real Property – 39 year straight line

 

7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:

 

7 Year Property                                   5 Year Property

 

  1. 14.29%                              1.       20%
  2. 24.49%                              2.       32%
  3. 17.49       %                                  3.       19.2%
  4. 12.49       %                                  4.       11.52%
  5.   8.93       %                                  5.       11.5%
  6.   8.92       %                                  6.       5.76%
  7.   8.93
  8.   4.46

 

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Signature Assignment

Assignment Steps 

Develop a 700- to 1,050-word memo to a prospective employer outlining your credentials, including: taking this class, all of the projects you have done for this class individually and with your team, and their impact on the businesses you have engaged with so a senior manager reading it would want to hire you as either an operations consultant or permanent employee.

Summarize the business case for each project.

Outline what you specifically accomplished, assuming these projects were implemented, and their estimated impacts on the business.

Utilize the learnings from your skills in global sourcing, procurement, and outsourcing which can also be of benefit to your target firm.

Format your assignment as if you would be giving a presentation to senior management.

 

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BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activitis

Formative question

Activity 1.

  1. What is marketing? (20-40words)

 

  1. What is the USP? (20-40 words)

 

  1. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)

 

 

 

 

Activity 2.

  1. What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)

 

  1. What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words

 

 

 

Activity 3.

How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.

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Activity 4.

  1. How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each

 

 

 

Activity 5.

  1. Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words

 

  1. Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words

 

 

Activity 6.

  1. What is positioning? 1 sentence

 

  1. What is market mix? 20-40words

 

  1. Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words

 

Activity 7.

  1. What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.
  2. How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.

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Activity 8.

  1. How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples

 

  1. What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples

 

 

 

Activity 9.

  1. What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence

 

  1. What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples

Activity 10

  1. From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples

 

  1. What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence

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Activity 11.

  1. What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.
  2. You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words

Activity 12

  1. What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.
  2. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which  work best? Why? 50-75 words

Activity 13

  1. Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words

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  1. Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.

 

 

Activity 14.

  1. How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words

Activity 15

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.
  2. How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.

Activity 16.

  1. Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words
  2. How can they be documented? 1 sentence

Acitivty 17.

What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10

 

Summative assessment 1

Question 1.

Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.

 

Question 2

List five examples of basic marketing activities.

 

Question 3.

Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words

 

Question 4.

Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words

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Summative Assessment 2.

Project

The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.

The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns

The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.

Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :

  • Conduct market research
  • Develop product knowledge
  • Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
  • Clearly describe the goals that you have set
  • How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
  • What resources will you required (including team members)
  • Set realistic timeline for your campaign
  • Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
  • Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
  • Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
  • Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
  • Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
  • What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
  • What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
  • Review marketing activities

1000-2000words

 

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Production/Operation

Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text

 

  1. Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
  2. Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
  3. What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
  4. Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management

 

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BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activitis

Formative question

Activity 1.

  1. What is marketing? (20-40words)

 

  1. What is the USP? (20-40 words)
  2. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)

 

Activity 2.

  1. What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)
  2. What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words

 

Activity 3.

How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.

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Activity 4.

  1. How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each

 

 

 

Activity 5.

  1. Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words

 

  1. Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words

 

 

Activity 6.

  1. What is positioning? 1 sentence

 

  1. What is market mix? 20-40words

 

  1. Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words

 

 

 

 

Activity 7.

  1. What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.

 

  1. How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

 

Activity 8.

  1. How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples

 

  1. What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples

 

 

 

Activity 9.

  1. What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence

 

  1. What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples

 

 

 

Activity 10

  1. From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples

 

  1. What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence

 

 

 

Activity 11.

  1. What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.

 

 

  1. You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words

 

 

Activity 12

  1. What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.

 

  1. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which  work best? Why? 50-75 words

 

 

 

Activity 13

  1. Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words

 

  1. Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.

 

 

Activity 14.

  1. How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words

 

 

 

 

Activity 15

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.

 

 

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

Activity 16.

  1. Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words

 

 

  1. How can they be documented? 1 sentence

 

 

 

Acitivty 17.

What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10

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Summative assessment 1

Question 1.

Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.

 

 

Question 2

List five examples of basic marketing activities.

 

Question 3.

Describe the difference between organizational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words

 

Question 4.

Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organization’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words

 

 

Summative Assessment 2.

Project

The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.

The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognized company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns

The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.

Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to:

  • Conduct market research
  • Develop product knowledge
  • Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
  • Clearly describe the goals that you have set
  • How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
  • What resources will you required (including team members)
  • Set realistic timeline for your campaign
  • Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
  • Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
  • Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
  • Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
  • Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
  • What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
  • What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
  • Review marketing activities

 

1000-2000words

 

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Analysis, Modeling, and Design

Business Case Research Paper

A Business Case Definition:  Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.

For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan.   Include definitions and applications.   Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.

I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length.  Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.

This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.

 

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Accounting problem

Ordinary Tax – 39.6%

Capital Gain – 20%

Recap on Depreciation – 25%

 

Problem 1

 

XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000.  An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building.  A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000.  Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used.  Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.

Economic Gain – 10 million

 

Depreciation rates are as follows:

 

Real Property – 39 year straight line

 

7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:

 

7 Year Property                                   5 Year Property

 

  1. 14.29%                              1.       20%
  2. 24.49%                              2.       32%
  3. 17.49       %                                  3.       19.2%
  4. 12.49       %                                  4.       11.52%
  5.   8.93       %                                  5.       11.5%
  6.   8.92       %                                  6.       5.76%
  7.   8.93
  8.   4.46

 

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ECON312 week 3 Homework 2018

Question 1

Maryland farmers turn from tobacco to flowers

Maryland tobacco farmers will be subsidized if they switch from growing tobacco to growing crops such as flowers and organic vegetables. How does offering farmers a payment to exit tobacco growing influence the opportunity cost of growing tobacco? What is the opportunity cost of using the equipment owned by a tobacco farmer?

Offering farmers a payment to exit tobacco growing _______ the opportunity cost of growing tobacco.

The opportunity cost of using the equipment owned by a tobacco farmer is _______.

increases; the next best alternative forgone, which could be the production of flowers and organic vegetables

increases; the implicit cost of using the tobacco equipment

decreases; the explicit cost of using the tobacco equipment

decreases; the sum of the implicit and explicit costs of using the tobacco equipment

does not change; the next best alternative forgone, which could be the production of flowers and organic vegetables

Question 2

Perfect competition is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

firms produce an identical product.

no restrictions on entry into or exit from the industry.

buyers and sellers are well informed about prices.

a large number of buyers and sellers.

considerable advertising by individual firms.

Question 3

Which of the following illustrates economies of scale, diseconomies of scale, and constant returns to scale?

Liza’s average total cost changes from $4.50 to $2.20 when she increases salad production from 7 to 9 an hour.

Sam’s average total cost changes from $1.30 to $2.80 when he increases smoothie production from 5 to 8 gallons an hour.

Tina’s average total cost remains at $3 when she increases pizza production from 12 to 13 an hour.

Sam faces economies of scale; Liza faces diseconomies of scale; Tina faces constant returns to scale.

Sam faces economies of scale; Tina faces diseconomies of scale; Liza faces constant returns to scale.

Tina faces economies of scale; Sam faces diseconomies of scale; Liza faces constant returns to scale.

Liza faces economies of scale; Sam faces diseconomies of scale; Tina faces constant returns to scale.

Question 4

Jennifer owns a pig farm near Salina, Kansas. Last year she earned $39,000 in total revenue while incurring $38,000 in explicit costs. She could have earned $27,000 as a teacher in Salina. These are all her revenue and costs. Therefore Jennifer earned an

economic profit of $1,000.

accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $65,000.

None of the above answers is correct.

accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $26,000.

accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $38,000.

Question 5

The main source of economies of scale is

reductions in the price of factors of production.

the ability to hire less labor.

increasing average costs.

decreasing marginal product.

greater specialization of both labor and capital.

Question 6

Jennifer’s Bakery Shop produces baked goods in a perfectly competitive market. If Jennifer decides to produce her 100th batch of cookies, the marginal cost is $120. She can sell this batch of cookies at a market price of $110. To maximize her profit, Jennifer should

produce this batch of cookies because their MR exceeds their MC.

produce this batch of cookies because they will help lower her average fixed cost.

not produce this additional batch.

charge $120 for this batch.

shut down.

Question 7

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average total cost equals

$10.00.

$1,200.

$300.

$2,400.

$12.00.

Question 8

As a typical firm increases its output, its marginal cost

is constant.

increases at first and then decreases.

is negative at first and then positive.

decreases.

decreases at first and then increases.

Question 9

To produce more output in the short run, a firm must employ more of

its fixed resources.

Firms cannot produce more output in the short run.

its variable resources.

all its resources.

the least costly resources regardless of whether they are fixed or variable.

Question 10

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The market demand curve in a perfectly competitive market is ________ and the demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm’s output is ________.

horizontal; horizontal

downward sloping; horizontal

downward sloping; downward sloping

downward sloping; upward sloping

horizontal; downward sloping

Question 11

 

Quantity (bushels of rutabagas)

Total revenue (dollars)

Total cost (dollars)

0

0

12

1

10

22

2

20

28

3

30

30

4

40

31

5

50

34

6

60

45

7

70

59

8

80

80

The above table has the total revenue and total cost schedule for Omar, a perfectly competitive grower of rutabagas. Omar’s total profit is maximized when he produces ________ bushels of rutabagas.

7

5

6

3

8

Question 12

If concerns about mad-cow disease impose economic losses on the perfectly competitive cattle ranchers, exit by the ranchers combined with no further changes in the demand for beef will force the price of beef to

fluctuate, with the trend being lower prices.

probably change, but more information about the market supply of beef is needed to answer the question.

decrease.

not change.

increase.

Question 13

 

Quantity of labor (workers)

Total product

(lawns mowed per week)

0

0

1

30

2

55

3

75

4

80

5

82

 

Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. Decreasing marginal returns first occur with the

third worker.

second worker.

first worker.

fourth worker.

fifth worker.

Question 14

The above figure illustrates a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is $10 a unit, to maximize its profit (or minimize its loss) the firm should

produce 30 units.

produce more than 30 units and less than 40 units.

shut down.

produce 40 units.

produce between 10 and less than 30 units.

Question 15

Quantity of labor (workers)

Total product

(dogs groomed per week)

0

0

1

40

2

100

3

150

4

190

5

220

6

240

 

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average fixed cost equals

$2,400.

$6.00.

$10.00.

$7.50.

$600.

Question 16

When an economist uses the term “cost” referring to a firm, the economist refers to the

price of the good to the consumer.

explicit cost of producing a good or service but not the implicit cost of producing a good or service.

implicit cost of producing a good or service but not the explicit cost of producing a good or service.

cost that can be actually verified and measured.

opportunity cost of producing a good or service, which includes both implicit and explicit cost.

Question 17

Quantity of labor (workers)

Total product

(dogs groomed per week)

0

0

1

40

2

100

3

150

4

190

5

220

6

240

 

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 6 workers, her average fixed cost equals

$7.50.

$2.50.

$6.00.

$600.

$10.00.

Question 18

U.S. Steel Lays Off 756

With a drop in the demand for steel pipe and tube, U.S. Steel Corporation will idle plants in Ohio and Texas and lay off 756 workers.

Source: The Wall Street Journal , January 6, 2015

As U.S. Steel responded to the fall in demand, how did its marginal cost change?

What can you say about minimum AVC in the plants that closed?

As U.S. Steel responded to the fall in demand, its marginal cost ______.

The minimum average variable cost in the plants that closed must have been ______.

decreased; greater than the market price

decreased; less than the market price

decreased; equal to average fixed cost

increased; less than the market price

increased; greater than the market price

Question 19

The law of decreasing returns states that as a firm uses more of a

fixed input and a variable input, the marginal product of the fixed input and the marginal product of the variable input both decrease.

fixed input, with a given quantity of variable inputs, the marginal product of the fixed input eventually decreases.

variable input, with a given quantity of fixed inputs, the marginal product of the variable input eventually decreases.

variable input, output will begin to fall immediately.

variable input, total output will increase indefinitely.

Question 20

GM cuts jobs at its Australian manufacturing unit

GM will cut 500 jobs, or about 12% of its workforce, at its Australian plant because of a sharp fall in demand for its locally-made “Cruze” small car.

Source: The Wall Street Journal , April 8, 2013

As GM cuts its workforce, how will the marginal product and average product of a worker change in the short run?

Suppose that before the cuts the marginal product of GM workers is below their average product.

As the number of workers decreases, the marginal product of a GM worker ______ and the average product of a GM worker ______ in the short run.

does not? change; does not change

decreases; increases

increases; decreases

increases; increases

decreases; decreases

Question 21

Output (pizzas per hour)

Total cost

(dollars)

0

20

1

35

2

49

3

61

4

71

5

79

6

85

Paulette owns a pizza parlor. Her total cost schedule is in the above table. Her total variable cost of producing four pizzas per hour is

Some amount, but more information is needed to determine this total variable cost.

$49.

$20.

$71.

$51.

Question 22

Airlines seek new ways to save on fuel as costs soar

Fuel is an airline’s biggest single expense. In 2008, the cost of jet fuel rocketed. Airlines tried to switch to newer generation aircraft, which have more fuel-efficient engines.

Source: The New York Times , June 11, 2008

Explain how a technological advance that makes airplane engines more fuel efficient changes an airline’s average variable cost, marginal cost, and average total cost.

A technological advance that makes an airplane engine more fuel efficient ______ an airline’s average variable cost and ______ an airline’s marginal cost.

increases; increases

decreases; does not change

does not change; decreases

decreases; decreases

Question 23

Labour (Workers)

Output (bikes)

Total fixed costs (dollars)

Total variable costs (dollars)

Total costs (dollars)

0

0

200

0

200

1

20

200

100

300

2

50

200

200

400

3

60

200

300

500

4

64

200

400

600

 

The table above gives costs at Jan’s Bike Shop. Unfortunately, Jan’s record keeping has been spotty. Each worker is paid $100 a day. Labor costs are the only variable costs of production. What is the total fixed cost of producing 64 bikes?

$200

$500

$300

$400

$600

Question 24

California’s commercial drone industry is taking off

Customers are finding ever more creative ways to use drones, and 3E Robotics Inc., America’s largest producer of consumer drones, expects sales to soar.

Source: Los Angeles Times, June 13, 2015

Explain what is happening in the market for commercial drones.

How would you expect the price of a drone to change in the short run and the long run?

How would you expect the economic profit of a drone producer such as 3D Robotics to change in the short run and in the long run?

In the short run, the equilibrium price of a drone _______ and the economic profit of drone producers _______.

falls; decreases

rises; increases

rises; remains unchanged

falls; remains unchanged

Question 25

Coffee king Starbucks raises its prices

Starbucks will raise its price because the wholesale price of milk has risen by nearly 70% in the past year. There’s a lot of milk in those Starbucks lattes, noted John Glass, CIBC World Markets restaurant analyst.

Source: USA Today, July 24, 2007

Is the cost of milk a fixed cost or a variable cost?

Describe how the increase in the price of milk changes Starbucks’ short-run cost curves.

The cost of milk is a ______ cost. An increase in the cost of milk shifts the ______ curves upward.

variable; total cost, total variable cost, and total fixed cost

fixed; average total cost, average fixed cost, total cost, and total fixed cost

fixed; total cost and average total cost

variable; average total cost, average variable cost, total cost, total variable cost, and marginal cost

Question 26

The long run is a time period that is

five years or longer.

long enough to change the amount of labor employed but not to change the size of the plant.

long enough to change the amount of labor employed.

long enough to change the size of the firm’s plant and all other inputs.

None of the above answers describes the long run.

Question 27

A perfectly competitive firm is producing 50 units of output, which it sells at the market price of $23 per unit. The firm’s average total cost is $20. What is the firm’s total revenue?

$1,150

$1,000

$150

$23

$20

Question 28

Metropolitan Museum completes round of layoffs

The museum cut 74 jobs and 95 other workers retired. The museum also laid off 127 other employees in its retail shops. The cut in labor costs is $10 million, but the museum expects no change in the number of visitors.

Source: The New York Times, June 22, 2009

Explain how the job cuts and shop closings will change the museum’s short-run average cost curves and marginal cost curve.

A cut in labor but no change in output increases the marginal product of labor.

What is the effect on the marginal cost curve?

A rightward movement along the marginal cost curve occurs.

The marginal cost curve shifts upward.

A leftward movement along the marginal cost curve occurs.

The marginal cost curve shifts downward.

Question 29

Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. The marginal product of the fourth worker is ________ lawns mowed per week.

25

5

20

80

320

Question 30

Output (gallons of ice cream per hour)

Total cost (dollars)

0

1

1

2

2

3

3

5

4

8

5

11

 

The Jerry-Berry Ice Cream Shoppe’s total cost schedule is in the above table. Based on the table, the marginal cost of producing the fourth gallon of ice cream is

$5.

$3.

$8.

$2.

$32.

 

 

ECON312 Week 2 Homework 2018

Question 1

The price of cotton clothing falls. As a result,

the demand for cotton clothing decreases.

both the demand for cotton clothing increases and the quantity demand of cotton clothing increases.

the quantity demanded of cotton clothing increases.

the quantity demanded of cotton clothing decreases.

the demand for cotton clothing increases.

Question 2

If a higher price for wheat decreases the quantity of corn being produced, which of the following describes what has occurred?

The quantity of wheat supplied increased and the supply of corn decreased.

The supply of wheat increased and the supply of corn decreased.

The quantity of wheat supplied increased and quantity of corn supplied decreased.

The supply of wheat decreased and the supply of corn decreased.

The supply of wheat increased and the quantity of corn supplied decreased

Question 3

If both producers and consumers believe that a product’s price will rise in the future, then at the present, demand ________ and supply ________.

increases; increases

increases; decreases

decreases; decreases

does not change; does not change

decreases; increases

Question 4

You are just about to finish college and are about to start a high paying job. Because of this new job, what is the most likely outcome in the market for cars?

Your demand for cars will decrease.

The market supply of cars will increase.

Your demand for cars will increase.

The demand and the supply for cars will decrease.

The market supply of cars will decrease.

Question 5

Many Americans are selling their used cars and buying new fuel-efficient hybrids. Other things remaining the same, in the market for used cars, ______ and in the market for hybrids ______.

Supply increases and the price falls; demand increases and the price rises
Demand decreases and the price rises; supply increases and the price falls
Both demand and supply decrease and the price might rise, fall, or not change; demand increases and the price rises
Demand decreases, supply increases, and the price falls; supply in-creases and the price fall

Question 6

If the price of a one good increases and the quantity demanded of a different good decreases, then these two goods are

substitutes.

normal goods.

inelastic goods.

complements.

inferior goods.

Question 7

 

Which figure above shows the effect if research is published claiming that eating pizza is healthy?

Figure B

Figure C

Figure A

Figure D

Both Figure A and Figure D

Question 8

If consumers buy a large number of plug-in electric cars, the equilibrium price of electricity will ________ and the equilibrium quantity of electricity will ________.

rise; increase

fall; increase

not change; increase

rise; decrease

fall; decrease

Question 9

Which of the following describes the law of demand? When other things remain the same, as

the quantity demanded of bread increases, the price of bread falls.

more people decide to eat pizza, the demand for pizza increases.

your income increases, you’ll buy more hamburgers.

the price of peanut butter increases, the quantity demanded of jelly decreases.

the price of gas falls, the quantity demanded of gas increases.

Question 10

In a recession, consumers have less income to spend. As a result, if dining out is a normal good, then which of the following would happen to the demand curve for dining out?

The demand curve would shift rightward.

The demand curve would not shift but the price of dining out would fall.

The demand curve would shift leftward.

The demand curve would not shift but the price of dining out would rise.

The effect on the demand curve is unknown.

Question 11

Computer chips are a normal good. Suppose the economy slips into a recession so that income falls. As a result, the demand for computer chips ________ so that the price of a computer chip ________.

decreases; rises

decreases; does not change

increases; falls

decreases; falls

increases; rises

Question 12

If income increases and the demand for bus rides decreases,

consumers are behaving irrationally.

bus rides are an inferior good.

bus rides must be a complement good with some other good.

bus rides are a substitute good.

bus rides are a normal good.

Question 13

 

Which figure above shows the effect of a technological advance in the production of pizza?

Figure A

Figure B

Figure C

Figure D

Both Figure A and Figure D

Question 14

Suppose over the next several years the productivity of firms producing electric cars improves dramatically. The advance in productivity leads to

an increase in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts leftward.

a decrease in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts rightward.

an increase in the supply electric cars so that the supply curve shifts rightward.

no change in the supply of electric cars, only a change in the quantity supplied of electric cars.

a decrease in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts leftward.

Question 15

If good weather conditions result in a larger than normal crop of peaches, then the

equilibrium price of peaches falls, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches decreases.

equilibrium price of peaches falls, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches increases.

equilibrium price of peaches rises, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches increases.

demand curve for peaches shifts leftward.

increase in the supply of peaches induces a greater demand for peaches, so that the equilibrium price rises and the equilibrium quantity increases.

Question 16

People eat at restaurants less often when their incomes fall because of a recession. Eating at restaurants must be

a complement to other goods.

an inelastic good.

an inferior good.

a normal good.

a substitute for other goods.

Question 17

Which of the following increases the supply of a product?

some producers going bankrupt and leaving the industry

an increase in the expected future price of the product

a higher price for the product

lower prices for the resources used to produce the product

a decrease in productivity

Question 18

If a 30 percent price increase generates a 20 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then demand is

perfectly inelastic.

inelastic.

perfectly elastic.

unit elastic.

elastic.

Question 19

Suppose the San Francisco 49ers lower ticket prices by 15 percent and as a result the quantity of tickets demanded increases by 10 percent. This set of results shows that San Francisco 49ers tickets have

an elastic demand.

a unit elastic demand.

an inelastic supply.

an elastic supply.

an inelastic demand.

Question 20

In the above figure, the movement from point a to point b reflects

a decrease in the cost of the tomato sauce used to produce pizza.

a decrease in income if pizza is a normal good.

an increase in the number of producers of pizza.

an increase in the supply of pizza.

an increase in the price of pizza.

Question 21

If the automobile workers’ union successfully negotiates a wage increase for its members, how does the wage hike affect the supply of automobiles?

The quantity supplied decreases.

The supply and quantity supplied decreases.

The quantity supplied increases.

The supply decreases.

The supply increases.

Question 22

In the above figure, the shift in the demand curve from D to D1 can be the result of

a decrease in income if pizza is a normal good.

an increase in the price of a sub sandwich, a substitute for pizza.

an increase in the price of soda, a complement to pizza.

an increase in the price of pizza.

a change in quantity demanded.

Question 23

Patrick lives near two gas stations, Exxon and Shell. If Exxon decreases the price of gas, we predict that the quantity of gasoline demanded at Shell will

increase because Exxon and Shell gas are substitutes.

decrease because Exxon and Shell gas are substitutes.

not change Exxon and Shell are different brands of gasoline.

increase because Exxon and Shell gas are complements.

decrease because Exxon and Shell gas are complements.

Question 24

 

Pizza is a normal good. Which figure above shows the effect of a decrease in consumers’ incomes?

Figure A

Figure B

Figure C

Figure D

Both Figure B and Figure C

Question 25

Suppose improvements in technology cause the supply of natural gas to increase and at the same time the demand for natural gas increases. What are we sure of?

Equilibrium price decreases.

Both equilibrium price and quantity increase.

Equilibrium price increases.

Equilibrium quantity decreases.

Equilibrium quantity increases.

Question 26

Consider the market for smart phones. Which of the following shifts the demand curve rightward?

an increase in the price of smart phones

a decrease in the price of smart phones

a decrease in the number of smart phone buyers

an increase in the supply of smart phones

an increase in the price of land-line phone service, a substitute for smart phones

Question 27

Price

(dollars per gallon)

Quantity demanded

(gallon per gasoline)

Quantity supplied

(gallon per gasoline)

3.73

337,562

443,074

3.63

396,398

428,008

3.65

412,031

412,031

3.62

417,899

392,665

The table above shows the situation in the gasoline market in Tulsa, Oklahoma. If the price of a gallon of gasoline is $2.20, then

There is neither a surplus nor a shortage, but the market is NOT in equilibrium.

the gasoline market in Tulsa is in equilibrium.

Without more information we cannot determine if there is a surplus, a shortage, or an equilibrium in the gasoline market in Tulsa.

there is a shortage of gasoline in Tulsa.

there is a surplus of gasoline in Tulsa.

Question 28

If a 10 percent price increase generates a 10 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then demand is

elastic.

perfectly elastic.

perfectly inelastic.

inelastic.

unit elastic.

Question 29

The law of supply reflects the fact that

suppliers have an incentive to use their resources in the way that brings the biggest return.

the demand curve is downward sloping.

higher prices are more attractive to consumers because they signal a higher quality product.

people buy more of a good when its price falls.

businesses can sell more goods at lower prices.

Question 30

In the above figure, an increase in cost of the cheese used to produce pizza

has no effect.

results in a movement from point a to point b.

shifts the supply curve from S to S2.

shifts the supply curve from S to S1.

results in a movement from point b to point a.

 

ECON312 Week 4 Quiz latest 2018

Question 1

Diseconomies of scale is a result of

mismanagement.

difficulties of coordinating and controlling a large enterprise.

larger fixed costs as the firm’s production increases.

technological progress.

specialization of labor, capital, and management.

Question 2

In a perfectly competitive market, the firm is a price taker because ______.

the price in the market is the price that maximizes each? firm’s producer surplus

the firms in perfect competition are interdependent and if one firm charges a lower? price, other firms will also lower their prices and all firms will incur an economic loss

it produces only a tiny proportion of the total output of a particular good and buyers are well informed about the prices of other firms

the price is dictated by the largest firm in the? market, and if a given firm lowers its price other firms will conspire against it

each firms makes a slightly different product

Question 3

Which of the following chain of events occurs when a tariff is imposed on a good?

Domestic prices fall, decreasing the domestic quantity supplied and increasing the quantity demanded.

Domestic prices fall, shifting the demand curve rightward, and consumers buy more of the good.

Domestic prices rise, shifting the demand curve leftward and the domestic supply curve rightward.

Domestic prices rise, decreasing the quantity demanded and increasing the domestic quantity supplied.

Domestic prices rise, shifting the domestic supply curve rightward.

Question 4

Energizer and Duracell dominate the battery market. It is possible that they could ________ because they operate in ________.

earn $0 profit in the long run; a monopolistically competitive market

form a cartel and collude; an oligopoly

have excess capacity; a natural monopoly

collude; a perfect competitive market

form a cartel; a monopolistically competitive market

Question 5

Which of the following is a list of fixed inputs for a hospital?

the lobby, the doctors, and the electricity it uses

antibiotics, pain medication, and other prescription drugs

the emergency room, intensive care unit, and other facilities

the nurses, receptionists, and other employees

bandages, casts, and other materials

Question 6

Cost curves shift if

  1. technology changes.
  2. the prices of factors of production change.

iii. productivity changes.

i and ii

i and iii

i, ii, and iii

i only

ii only

Question 7

Mylan Pharmaceuticals holds a patent on the EpiPen – designed to inject epinephrine into shock victims. In 2016, Mylan received criticism for charging $600 for this life-saving drug. The market for EpiPens is considered ________ which means that the price of an Epipen ________ its marginal cost.

a monopoly; equals

monopolistic competition; is greater than

an oligopoly; equals

a monopoly; is greater than

perfect competition; equals

Question 8

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average variable cost equals

$6.00.

$300.

$2,400.

$10.00.

$600.

Question 9

Suppose the grocery store market in Kansas City is perfectly competitive. Then one store buys all the others and becomes a single-price monopoly. The figure above shows the relevant demand and cost curves. When the market is perfectly competitive, the quantity of steak is ________ pounds, and when the market is a monopoly, the quantity of steak is ________ pounds.

2,000; 4,000

4,000; 4,000

5,000; 3,000

4,000; less than 2,000 pounds.

3,000; 2,000

Question 10

The above figure illustrates a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is $40 a unit, to maximize its profit (or minimize its loss) the firm should

produce more than 10 and less than 30 units.

produce more than 30 units and less than 40 units.

produce 40 units.

shut down.

produce 30 units.

Question 11

Airlines seek new ways to save on fuel as costs soar

Fuel is an airline’s biggest single expense. In 2008, the cost of jet fuel rocketed. Airlines tried to switch to newer generation aircraft, which have more fuel-efficient engines.

Source: The New York Times , June 11, 2008

Is the price of fuel a fixed cost or a variable cost?

Is the price of a new fuel-efficient engine a fixed cost or a variable cost?

Explain how a technological advance that makes an airplane engine more fuel efficient changes an airline’s average total cost.

The cost of the new fuel-efficient engines are a _______ cost.

The cost of fuel is a _______ cost.

fixed; total

marginal; variable

fixed; variable

variable; fixed

Question 12

GM cuts jobs at its Australian manufacturing unit

GM will cut 500 jobs, or about 12% of its workforce, at its Australian plant because of a sharp fall in demand for its locally-made “Cruze” small car.

Source: The Wall Street Journal , April 8, 2013

As GM cuts its workforce, how will the marginal product and average product of a worker change in the short run?

Suppose that before the cuts the marginal product of GM workers is below their average product.

As the number of workers decreases, the marginal product of a GM worker ______ and the average product of a GM worker ______ in the short run.

does not change; does not change

decreases; decreases

decreases; increases

increases; decreases

increases; increases

Question 13

To maximize profit, a firm in monopolistic competition will produce the quantity where marginal revenue

is greater than marginal cost.

is less than marginal cost.

equals marginal cost.

equals zero.

equals average total cost.

Question 14

Austin owns the Fruit Bowl food truck. Which of the following would be short run decisions for Austin?

  1. how much fruit to buy
  2. how many workers to hire

iii. installing a new stove in his truck

i and ii

i only

i, ii and iii

ii only

ii and iii

Question 15

Paulette owns a pizza parlor. Her total cost schedule is in the above table. Her total fixed cost is equal to

$35.

$85.

Some amount, but more information is needed to determine her fixed cost.

$79.

$20.

Question 16

Consider the market for running shoes shown above. A tariff of ________ is imposed and causes the amount of shoes imported to ________ pairs.

$40; decrease from 4 million to 2 million

$20; decrease from 4 million to 3 million

$40; decrease from 5 million to 2 million

$20; decrease from 4 million to 2 million

$60; decrease from 4 million to 2 million

Question 17

Henry, a perfectly competitive lime grower in Southern California, notices that the market price of limes is greater than his marginal cost. What should Henry do?

advertise his limes to be able to sell more output

look for the output level where marginal revenue minus marginal cost is maximized

expand his output to increase profits

shut down and earn no profit but also incur no loss

shut down and incur a loss equal to his total fixed cost

Question 18

A collusive agreement to form a cartel is difficult to maintain because

supply will decrease because of the high cartel price.

each member firm can increase its own profits by cutting its price and selling more.

forming a cartel is legal but frowned upon throughout the world.

demanders will rebel once they realize a cartel has been formed.

each firm can increase its profit if it decreases its production even more than the decrease set by the cartel.

Question 19

Labor (workers)

Output (bikes)

Total fixed costs (dollars)

Total variable cost (dollars)

Total cost (dollars)

0

0

200

 

 

1

20

 

100

 

2

50

 

 

 

3

60

 

 

 

4

64

 

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The table above gives costs at Jan’s Bike Shop. Unfortunately, Jan’s record keeping has been spotty. Each worker is paid $100 a day. Labor costs are the only variable costs of production. What is the total cost of producing 50 bikes?

$200

$100

$500

$400

$300

Question 20

Keith is a perfectly competitive carnation grower. The market price is $2 per dozen carnations. Keith’s average total cost to grow carnations is $2.50 per dozen. In the long run, Keith will

exit the industry if the price and his costs do not change.

continue to make an economic profit.

incur an economic loss.

raise his price to more than $2.50 per dozen carnations.

raise his price to $2.50 per dozen carnations.

Question 21

Use the figure above to answer this question. Mary is the only veterinarian in a small town. To maximize her profit, Mary will choose to treat ________ animals per hour and charge ________ per customer in order to ________.

4; $50; operate on the inelastic portion of her demand curve

6; $20; maximize profit

6; $30; minimize average total cost

6; $20; minimize cost in order to attract more customers

4; $50; maximize profit

Question 22

The U.S. Postal Service has a monopoly over first-class mail service because

stamps are copyrighted.

stamps are patented.

the government has granted this agency a public franchise.

stamps are trademarked.

it owns a vital resource, namely all mailboxes.

Question 23

A firm’s fundamental goal is

to decrease its employment of workers in order to cut its costs.

to maximize profit.

to make a quality product.

different for each firm.

to gain market share.

Question 24

Price (dollars per unit

Quantity demanded (units per day)

Quantity supplied (units per day)

2

20

14

6

19

16

6

18

18

8

17

20

10

16

22

12

15

24

 

The table above has the domestic demand and domestic supply schedules for a good. If the world price of the good is $10 and international trade occurs, then according to the table

the country imports 6 units a day.

domestic production is higher before trade than after trade.

the country imports 16 units a day.

the country exports 22 units a day.

the country exports 6 units a day.

Question 25

How do advertising and other selling costs affect a firm?

The do not change demand and shift the average total cost curve downward.

They shift the average total cost curve upward.

They shift the marginal cost curve upward.

The only effect is that the demand for the product increases.

The only effect is that the excess capacity is reduced.

Question 26

A Nash equilibrium in the duopoly game

means that one player has greater market power.

can occur only if firms cooperate with each other.

occurs when each player takes the best possible action regardless of the strategy chosen by other firms.

will always lead to equilibrium in which the firms’ total profit is the largest.

means that a firm must be able to determine its actions and the actions of its competitor.

Question 27

The table above shows the revenue figures for the top four firms along with a total for the remaining firms in the fast-food industry. What is the four-firm concentration ratio for the industry?

80 percent

200 percent

20 percent

100 percent

25 percent

Question 28

In the 1950s, crude oil and natural gas imports were restricted to keep the domestic industries viable in case of a war. The rationale for this protection is the ________ argument for protection.

anti-dumping

national security

infant-industry

save domestic jobs

penalizing lax environmental standards

Question 29

The figure above shows the U.S. demand and U.S. supply curves for cherries. At a world price of $2 per pound once international trade occurs, the total imports of cherries to the United States from other nations equals

600,000 pounds.

200,000 pounds.

400,000 pounds.

800,000 pounds.

0 pounds.

Question 30

Quantity

(bottles per week)

Marginal cost

Average variable cost

Dollars per bottle

0

0

0

100

3.00

4.40

200

3.20

3.90

300

3.50

3.50

400

3.82

3.55

500

4.20

3.60

600

5.00

3.75

 

The table shows the cost structure of a firm selling bottles of water in a perfectly competitive market.

What is the quantity at the firm’s shutdown point?

The firm’s shutdown point occurs at a quantity of

nothing

bottles of water per week and the market price is $

nothing a bottle.

Question 31

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 6 workers, her total cost equals

$1,800.

$300.

$2,400.

$7.50.

$10.00.

Question 32

The above figure represents the market for cable television in Oakland, Florida. Time Warner Communications (TWC) is the sole provider of cable television to the residents of this Central Florida community. If TWC operated under a marginal cost pricing rule, what is the price of cable television in Oakland?

$0

$40

$30

$10

$20

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Question 33

Excess capacity exists when a firm produces

more than the profit-maximizing level of output.

less than the quantity that minimizes average total cost.

None of the above answers is correct.

less than the quantity that minimizes marginal cost.

more than the quantity that minimizes marginal cost.

Question 34

The figure above shows the U.S. demand and U.S. supply curves for cherries. In the absence of international trade, cherry farmers would receive ________ per pound of cherries.

$2.00

$2.50

$0.50

$1.00

$1.50

Question 35

Suppose Pat’s Paints is a perfectly competitive firm. If Pat’s Paints’ marginal revenue equals $5 per can, and Pat decides to sell 100 cans of paint, Pat’s total revenue equals

$500.

$20.

Information on the price of a can of paint is needed to answer the question.

$5.

$100.

Question 36

Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. When 4 workers are employed, the average product is ________ lawns mowed per week.

80

20

5

25

320

Question 37

Country A imports 1,000 cars per month. After imposing a $50 per car tariff, imports fall to 800 cars per month. How much does Country A’s government collect in tariff revenue?

$90,000

$10,000

$60,000

$40,000

$50,000

Question 38

The above figure shows the U.S. market for flip-flops. With international trade, U.S. consumers buy ________ flip-flops and U.S. producers produce ________ flip-flops.

700,000; 500,000

300,000; 700,000

700,000; 300,000

500,000; 500,000

500,000; 300,000

Question 39

Perfect competition is a market in which there are? _____ firms, each selling? _____ product; many? buyers; _____ to the entry of new firms into the industry; no advantage to established firms; and buyers and sellers _____ about prices.

few; differentiated; barriers; are well informed

many; identical; no barriers; are well informed

many; identical; barriers; have no information

few; differentiated; no barriers; have no information

Question 40

Which of the following is an implicit cost in Jim’s business venture?

  1. the salary Jim could have earned at another job
  2. the interest Jim must pay on the loan he incurred to help open his business

iii. the interest Jim lost when he used his savings to help open his business

ii and iii

iii only

i and iii

i only

ii only

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ECON312 Week 2 Quiz latest 2018

Question 1

People eat at restaurants less often when their incomes fall because of a recession. Eating at restaurants must be

a substitute for other goods.

a complement to other goods.

an inelastic good.

an inferior good.

a normal good.

Question 2

In stores, it is common to find seasonal products marked down when the season ends. What explains this behavior?

The store is trying to sell the goods and realizes that they are substitutes for other goods whose prices have risen.

The store is trying to increase its customers’ incomes by increasing their purchasing power.

The store is trying to increase its customers’ demand for the product.

The store manager must be trying to drive away customers by selling low quality products.

The law of demand is being used to increase the quantity demanded.

Question 3

As a person increases his or her caloric intake, the person’s weight increases, ceteris paribus. The relationship between the person’s caloric intake and the person’s weight is an example of

a trended relationship.

unrelated variables.

a negative relationship.

a single point on a graph.

a positive relationship.

Question 4

When the percentage change in the quantity supplied is twice the percentage change in price, then supply is

perfectly inelastic.

inelastic.

unit elastic.

elastic.

perfectly elastic.

Question 5

Suppose you eat two hamburgers for lunch. The marginal benefit of the first burger is ________ of the second burger.

smaller than the marginal benefit

equal to the marginal benefit

equal to the marginal cost and the marginal benefit

not related to the marginal benefit

larger than the marginal benefit

Question 6

The price elasticity of demand measures the extent to which the quantity demanded changes when

the price of the good changes.

consumer preferences change.

the price of a related good changes.

the expected future price of a good changes.

both the demand and supply of the good change.

Question 7

Matt pays a $50 a month membership fee at Bruno’s Gym. He can exercise at the gym as many times as he wishes. If the membership fee is measured along the vertical axis and the number of times he exercises is measured along the horizontal axis, the graph between his membership fee and the number of times he exercises will

be negatively sloped.

be positively sloped.

be a horizontal line.

start out positively sloped and then, as Matt loses interest, become negatively sloped.

be a vertical line.

Question 8

An increase in the quantity demanded is shown as

a movement toward the demand curve.

a leftward shift of the demand curve.

both a movement along the demand curve and a shift of the demand curve.

a rightward shift of the demand curve.

a movement along the demand curve.

Question 9

Researchers have found a hybrid of corn that is cheaper to grow. This technological breakthrough

increases the demand for hybrid corn.

decreases the supply of hybrid corn.

Both answers A and C are correct.

Both answers A and B are correct.

increases the supply of hybrid corn.

Question 10

Suppose the relationship between a person’s age and his or her height is plotted with the age measured along the x-axis and the height measured along the y-axis. Then, the curve showing this relationship is

negatively sloped and becoming less steep.

positively sloped and becoming more steep.

positively sloped and becoming less steep.

a straight line with a positive slope.

a straight line with a negative slope.

Question 11

Assume a market is in equilibrium. There is an increase in supply, but no change in demand As a result the equilibrium price ________, and the equilibrium quantity ________.

rises; increases

rises; does not change

rises; decreases

falls; decreases

falls; increases

Question 12

What is an inferior good?

a product that is complementary

a product of low quality that we do not want to purchase

a product for which demand increases when income decreases, and demand decreases when income increases

a product that is a substitute for another, better good

a product for which demand increases when income increases, and demand decreases when income decreases

Question 13

A time series graph

shows how a certain variable changes over time.

depicts a series of good economic times a nation had.

is not useful if the goal is to determine a variable’s trend.

shows points that are scattered.

uses bars rather than lines.

Question 14

In the diagram above, which figure(s) show(s) an inverse relationship between the variables?

only C

only B

both A and C

both B and C

only D

Question 15

When a landscaping company decides to use drafting software and computers instead of hiring designers to draw design plans by hand, it is answering the ________ question.

why

for whom

opportunity cost

what

how

Question 16

The cross elasticity of demand is a measure of how

total revenue changes when the price of a product changes.

demand for a product changes when the price of a substitute or complement changes.

responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a product.

demand for a product changes when income changes.

responsive suppliers are to changes in the price of a product.

Question 17

In the above figure, the shift in the demand curve from D to D2 can be the result of

an increase in the price of soda, a complement to pizza.

an increase in income if pizza is a normal good.

a decrease in the supply of pizza that raises the price of pizza.

a change in quantity demanded.

an increase in the price of a sub sandwich, a substitute for pizza.

Question 18

When you make the decision to spend your time attending class, which economic question are you answering?

Is this in the social interest?

For whom?

How?

What?

Why?

Question 19

Going skiing will cost Adam $80 a day. He also loses $40 per day in wages because he has to take time off from work. Adam still decides to go skiing.

His decision is rational if Adam’s marginal benefit of spending a day skiing is greater than his marginal cost.

Adam is definitely making a decision that is in the social interest.

Adam’s lost $40 per day in wages is not an opportunity cost and so did not affect his decision.

He loses a total of $120 per day, so his decision is irrational.

The $80 price of skiing is not an opportunity cost and so did not affect Adam’s decision.

Question 20

Suppose the equilibrium price of oranges is $2.00 per pound. If the actual price is above the equilibrium price, a

surplus exists and the price rises to restore equilibrium.

shortage exists and the price falls to restore equilibrium.

shortage exists and the price rises to restore equilibrium.

surplus exists but nothing happens until either the demand or the supply changes.

surplus exists and the price falls to restore equilibrium.

Question 21

The production possibilities frontier illustrates the

maximum combinations of goods and services that can be produced.

goods and services that people want.

limits to people’s wants.

resources the economy possess, but not its level of technology.

amount of each good that people want to buy.

Question 22

The above figure shows the production possibility frontier for an economy. The point or points that are attainable are

points A, B, and C.

points A and D.

points B and C.

point E.

points A, B, C, and D.

Question 23

Wichita is building a convention center and financing it with revenues raised from a city hotel tax. Local politicians assert that the convention center is essentially free for Wichita residents because out-of-town visitors are paying for it. Someone who is practicing the economic way of thinking would disagree because

there are other projects that could be undertaken with the tax funds.

the convention center may not pass a marginal cost-benefit test.

the hotel tax may reduce commercial property values in the area.

they believe that Wichita does not need a new convention center.

the hotel tax may lead to a decline in visits to Wichita.

Question 24

Which figure above shows the effect if research is published claiming that eating pizza is healthy?

Figure D

Both Figure A and Figure D

Figure B

Figure A

Figure C

Question 25

The United States can use all its resources to produce 250 DVDs or 500 shoes. China can use all of its resources to produce 30 DVDs or 300 shoes. The opportunity cost of producing a DVD in the United States is

2 shoes.

500 shoes.

1 DVD.

20 shoes.

1/2 of a shoe.

Question 26

Proponents of cuts in income tax rates argue that when income tax rates are cut, workers have an incentive to increase their work hours. This argument is based on the assumption that

workers make decisions based on the social interest.

the marginal cost of each additional work hour is not important to most workers.

workers are irrational.

the opportunity cost of working is negative.

workers make decisions based on the marginal benefit of each hour worked compared to the marginal cost of work.

Question 27

The slope of the line shown in the above figure is

5/2.

2/5.

5.

2/3.

2.

Question 28

Which figure above shows the effect of an increase in the cost of the tomato sauce used to produce pizza?

Figure D

Both Figure B and Figure C

Figure C

Figure B

Figure A

Question 29

A student at New York University used to take the Redhound bus when she visited her grandmother in Boston. After graduating, although the bus fare and the plane fare were the same as they were when she was a student, with a well-paid job on Wall Street she now takes the plane to Boston to visit her grandmother. For this student, travel by Redhound bus is

a substitute good.

a good with negative preferences.

a normal good.

a complement good.

an inferior good.

Question 30

A graph shows that the number of U.S. tourists visiting a Caribbean island increases as the temperature in the northeastern United States falls. The graph shows

a direct relationship.

an invalid relationship.

a negative relationship.

a positive relationship.

no relationship.

Question 31

The income elasticity of demand is a measure of

how responsive suppliers are to changes in the price of a product.

how demand for a product changes when the price of a substitute or complement product changes.

the extent to which the supply of a good changes when the demand changes as a result of a change in income.

how responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a product.

the extent to which the demand for a good changes when income changes.

Question 32

Moving from one point to another on a production possibilities frontier implies

increasing the production of one good and decreasing the production of another.

decreasing the production of both goods.

changing the amount of factors of production that are employed.

increasing the production of both goods.

holding the production levels of both goods constant.

Question 33

Suppose the Chicago Bears football team raises ticket prices by 13 percent and as a result the quantity of tickets demanded decreases by 21 percent. This response means that the demand for Bears tickets is

unit elastic.

elastic.

inelastic.

perfectly elastic.

perfectly inelastic.

Question 34

The American Dairy Association starts a highly successful advertising campaign that makes most people want to drink more milk. As a result,

the demand for milk increases.

the demand for milk is not affected.

the demand for milk decreases because the price of milk rises.

the quantity demanded of milk increases.

the price of milk falls to encourage people to drink more milk.

Question 35

Price

(dollars per gasoline)

Quantity demanded (gallons of gasoline)

Quantity supplied (gallons of gasoline)

3.73

337,982

441, 074

3.68

396, 398

428, 008

3.65

412, 031

412, 031

3.62

417, 899

391, 665

 

The table above shows the situation in the gasoline market in Tulsa, Oklahoma. If the price of a gallon of gasoline is $2.30 then

Without more information we cannot determine if there is a surplus, a shortage, or an equilibrium in the gasoline market in Tulsa.

there is a shortage of gasoline in Tulsa.

the gasoline market in Tulsa is in equilibrium.

there is a surplus of gasoline in Tulsa.

There is neither a surplus nor a shortage, but the market is NOT in equilibrium.

Question 36

The law of supply states that, other things remaining the same,

if the price of a good increases, firms buy less of it.

if the price of a good increases, the supply increases.

demand increases when supply increases.

as people’s income increase, the supply of goods increases.

if the price of a good increases, the quantity supplied increases.

Question 37

Milk can be used to produce cheese or butter. If the price of a pound of butter rises, what happens to the supply of cheese?

The supply of cheese decreases.

The supply of cheese increases.

The supply of cheese stays the same, and there is no change in the quantity supplied of cheese.

The supply of cheese could increase, decrease, or stay the same depending on what happens to the supply of butter.

The supply of cheese stays the same, and there is a decrease in the quantity supplied of cheese.

Question 38

A trend is

the minimum value of a variable.

a general tendency for a variable to rise or fall.

the difference between the maximum value of a variable and the minimum value of the variable.

a measure of closeness on a scatter diagram.

the maximum value of a variable.

Question 39

The figure above shows a

trend diagram.

cross-section graph.

time-series graph.

slope.

scatter diagram.

Question 40

The question “Should economics majors or sociology majors earn more after they graduate?” is an example of a ________ question.

for whom

why

where

how

what

Economics Question

In an effort to make the distribution of income more nearly equal, the government of a country passes a tax law that changes the Lorenz curve from

y = 0.97x2.1 for one year to y = 0.36x2 + 0.64x for the next year. Find the Gini coefficient of income for both years. (Round your answers to three decimal places.)

Before

After

 

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ECO 372 Final Exam Guide (New 2018)

ECO 372 Final Exam Guide (New 2018)

1.

Martha lends $200 to a friend who promises to return it after a year. Instead of lending it to her friend, Martha could have put the money in a bank where she could have earned an interest rate of 2 percent per annum. Martha’s opportunity cost of lending the money is _____.

A.$2

B.$204

C.$200

  1. $4

 

2

The exhibit given below shows the short-run aggregate demand and supply curves in an economy, AD1 and AS1, and the long-run aggregate supply curve, LRAS. The economy was initially in equilibrium when there was a decrease in aggregate demand, causing a shift of the aggregate demand curve from

  1. AD1 to AD2. Which of the following is true in this case?

 

  1. The economy will move from point B to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.

 

  1. The economy will move from point C to point B in the short run and then eventually to point A.

 

  1. The economy will move from point D to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.

 

  1. The economy will move from point D to point C in the long run.

 

3

Suppose an economy is in long-run equilibrium. An increase in consumption expenditure will:

 

 

  1. shift the short-run aggregate supply curve rightward and increase both the price level and real output in the long run.

 

  1. decrease both the price level and real gross domestic product in the long run.

 

  1. increase the price level in the long run but have no effect on real gross domestic product.

 

  1. shift the aggregate demand curve rightward and increase the real output in the long run.

 

 

4

In the long run, a higher saving rate:

 

  1. always leads to a higher level of productivity because of increasing returns to scale.

 

  1. does not lead to a higher level of income because of deterioration in labor productivity.

 

  1. always leads to a higher growth rate of output because of improvement in the stock of human capital.

 

  1. does not always lead to a higher growth rate of output because of diminishing returns to capital.

 

5.

Suppose the net foreign investment in Italy is positive. This implies that:

 

  1. Italians are buying more foreign assets than foreigners are buying Italian assets.

 

  1. foreigners are buying relatively more Italian assets.

 

  1. Italy is experiencing a net capital inflow.

 

  1. foreign direct investment in Italy is higher than foreign portfolio investment in the country.

 

 

6)

The circular-flow diagram shows that:

 

  1. firms receive wages and profits from households in the products market.

 

  1. households sell the factors of production to firms in the inputs market.

 

  1. households supply resources to firms in the products market.

 

  1. firms supply labor and other resources to the government in the factor market.

 

 

 

7)

The table given below shows the total amount of spending in the country of Mesodonia. Mesodonia’s

Mesodonia’s gross domestic product is:

Components of GDP             Value in millions

consumption                           $110

Investment                             $1400

Gov. expenditure                  $3200

Exports                                   $400

Imports                                    $550

 

Which one?

 

  1. $5,660 million.
  2. $4,710 million.
  3. $4,160 million.
  4. $4,560 million.

 

 

8

 

The country of Merilya exported goods and services worth $1.2 million and imported goods and services worth $2.7 million. The net exports of the country was _____.

 

  1. 3.9 million, and it had a trade surplus

 

  1. −$1.5 million, and it had a trade deficit

 

  1. $2 million, and it had a trade surplus

 

  1. −$3.9 million, and it had a trade deficit

 

 

9

Suppose the Fed purchases government bonds through open-market operations. All other things remaining equal, this is likely to:

 

  1. decrease the price level and increase the real wealth of consumers.

 

  1. decrease the price level and make domestic goods less expensive relative to foreign goods.

 

  1. increase the price level and eventually decrease the interest rate and investment spending.

 

  1. increase the price level and eventually decrease the demand for money as well as goods and services.

 

 

10

A rise in the price of bacon from $14 per pound to $16 per pound will reduce the purchasing power of the dollar by:

 

  1. 0.55 pounds of bacons.

 

  1. 0.06 pounds of bacon.

 

  1. 5 pounds of bacon.

 

  1. 2 pounds of bacon.

 

 

11.

A difference between commodity money and fiat money is that:

 

  1. fiat money cannot be used as a unit of account.

 

  1. commodity money is used in a barter economy.

 

  1. fiat money does not have any intrinsic value.

 

  1. commodity money cannot be used as a unit of account.

 

 

 

12

Suppose the net capital outflow from Zenovia is negative. This implies that:

 

  1. the real interest rate in Zenovia is high.

 

  1. the real interest rate in foreign countries is higher than in Zenovia.

 

  1. foreigners are not interested in buying assets in Zenovia.

 

  1. the citizens of Zenovia are investing more in foreign assets than foreigners are investing in assets in Zenovia.

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13

There is an increase in human capital when _____.

 

  1. Shiroh persuades the management of her company to offer more perks to employees

 

  1. Sue rents a laser printer to teach her employees how to fix it

 

  1. Samantha receives training in quality management after joining a new firm

 

  1. Susie puts in more than 8 hours of work at her workplace every day

 

 

14

After retirement, Molly deposits $500,000 in a local bank in Merrina. At an interest rate of 4 percent, she will receive approximately _____ after 3 years.

 

 

  1. $662,345
  2. $608,326
  3. $562,432
  4. $750,000

 

 

15

Ruth wants to calculate the present value of a sum of money that she will receive after the demise of her grandparents. To calculate the present value, she should use the:

 

 

  1. expenditure method.

 

  1. discounting method.

 

  1. value-added method.

 

  1. compounding method.

 

 

16

The buyers and sellers in the country of Perylia use corn as a medium of exchange. This means that:

 

  1. Perylia uses commodity money.

 

  1. corn cannot be used as a store of value or as a unit of account in Perylia.

 

  1. Perylia uses fiat money.

 

  1. corn can be used as a store of value but not as a unit of account in Perylia.

 

 

17

Scarcity occurs because of:

 

  1. the excess of quantity supplied over quantity demanded.

 

  1. overutilization of labor.

 

  1. limited human needs and wants.

 

  1. the limited supply of resources.

 

 

18

The Phillips curve shows:

 

 

  1. the negative relationship between inflation and unemployment.

 

  1. the positive relationship between the interest rate and the supply of money.

 

  1. the positive relationship between the price level and aggregate supply.

 

  1. the negative relationship between the interest rate and the demand for money.

 

 

19

Ephlon Inc., an Italian bike manufacturer, opens a factory in the United States. This is an example of:

 

 

  1. the accumulation of human capital.

 

  1. the catch-up effect.

 

  1. a foreign direct investment.

 

  1. a foreign portfolio investment.

 

 

20

Jack is an out-of-work sculptor. He has been looking for a job for the last two years. Unable to find any, he has given up his job search. Which of the following is true in this case?

 

 

  1. This is an example of frictional unemployment.

 

  1. This is an example of structural unemployment.

 

  1. He is a part of the unemployed labor force.

 

  1. He is a discouraged worker and will not be included in the calculation of the unemployment rate.

 

21

Suppose the central bank of a country undertakes an expansionary monetary policy. Which of the following is most likely to be the effect of such a policy, all other things remaining unchanged?

 

  1. An increase in the price level that reduces the real value of households’ money holdings and stimulates consumer spending

 

  1. An increase in the price level that stimulates spending on net exports and increases the demand for money

 

  1. A decrease in the price level that reduces the amount of money that people want to hold and decreases the interest rate.

 

  1. A decrease in the price level that reduces the interest rate and lowers the real value of the domestic currency foreign-exchange market.

 

22

Following the unexpected good performance of Leathex, all its employees were given a one-time bonus. This consequently led to a rightward shift of the demand curve for shoes manufactured by the company and a leftward shift of the demand curve for socks. This shows that shoes are:

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  1. inferior goods.

 

  1. substitutes.

 

  1. normal goods.

 

  1. complementary goods.

 

23

A higher interest rate in a country:

 

  1. encourages citizens to buy foreign assets.

 

  1. makes domestic bonds less attractive to foreigners.

 

  1. lowers saving in the country and decreases the quantity of loanable funds supplied.•

 

  1. discourages investment and decreases the quantity of loanable funds demanded.

 

 

24

If the price level in an economy is 120 and the equilibrium price level is 100, _____.•

 

  1. people will want to hold more money than is supplied by the central bank•

 

  1. the demand for money curve will shift to the left

 

  1. the purchasing power of money will increase

 

  1. the supply of money is likely to exceed the demand for money

 

 

25

A recent survey showed the health benefits of cranberry juice for treating heart and other respiratory disorders. The exhibit below shows that the initial demand curve for cranberry juice is D1. Which of the following is likely to be a consequence of the publication of the survey?

 

  1. The demand curve will shift from D1 to D3.

 

  1. There will be a movement from point A to point C on D1.

 

  1. The demand curve will shift from D1 to D2.

 

  1. There will be a movement from point A to point B on D1.

 

 

26

Keynesian economists believe that when an economy is in a recession, the government should:

 

  1. decrease tax rates rather than increase government spending because households always view such tax cuts as permanent and increase their current consumption.

 

  1. increase its purchases rather than decrease taxes because households save a part of the increase in their income as a result of tax cuts.

 

  1. increase the money supply in the economy so that interest rates decline, reducing the cost of borrowing to finance new investment projects.

 

  1. increase the money supply in the economy so that an excess supply of money can induce households to increase their consumption expenditure.

 

 

27

The Marions purchased a Persian rug worth $5,000 from an Iranian textile mill. Everything else remaining unchanged, this will:

 

  1. decrease the consumption expenditure in the domestic country by $5,000.

 

  1. decrease the net imports of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

  1. reduce the net exports of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

  1. increase the gross domestic product of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

 

 

 

28

As more capital is used in the production process, the amount of other inputs being fixed, the production function becomes:

 

  1. flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.

 

  1. steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.

 

  1. steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.

 

  1. flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.

 

 

29

The natural rate of unemployment in a country is 4 percent. This implies that:•

 

  1. the country has an unemployment rate of 4 percent in the short run.•

 

  1. the country has a 4 percent unemployment rate when the labor market is in equilibrium. •

 

  1. 4 percent of the labor force is unemployed at any given point of time.

 

  1. the unemployment rate is constant at 4 percent over time.

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30

 

 

Which of the following is true according to the circular-flow diagram?

 

  1. Firms receive wages, rent, and profit from the government.

 

  1. Firms receive income from households.

 

  1. Households receive revenue from the government.

 

  1. Households receive wages, rent, and profit from firms.

 

ECO 372 Final Exam

1 The Marions purchased a Persian rug worth $5,000 from an Iranian textile mill. Everything else remaining unchanged, this will:

decrease the net imports of the domestic country by $5,000.
decrease the consumption expenditure in the domestic country by $5,000.
reduce the net exports of the domestic country by $5,000.
increase the gross domestic product of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

 

2 The table given below shows the total amount of spending in the country of Mesodonia. Mesodonia’s gross domestic product is:

$5,660 million.
$4,560 million.
$4,160 million.
$4,710 million.

 

3 The circular-flow diagram shows that:
firms receive wages and profits from households in the products market.
households sell the factors of production to firms in the inputs market.
households supply resources to firms in the products market.
firms supply labor and other resources to the government in the factor market.

 

4 Martha lends $200 to a friend who promises to return it after a year. Instead of lending it to her friend, Martha could have put the money in a bank where she could have earned an interest rate of 2 percent per annum. Martha’s opportunity cost of lending the money is _____.

$204
$200
$2
$4

 

5 Following the unexpected good performance of Leathex, all its employees were given a one-time bonus. This consequently led to a rightward shift of the demand curve for shoes manufactured by the company and a leftward shift of the demand curve for socks. This shows that shoes are:

normal goods.
complementary goods.
substitutes.
inferior goods.

 

6 Ephlon Inc., an Italian bike manufacturer, opens a factory in the United States. This is an example of:

the catch-up effect.
the accumulation of human capital.
a foreign portfolio investment.
a foreign direct investment.

 

7 Which of the following is true according to the circular-flow diagram?

Households receive revenue from the government.
Firms receive income from households.
Firms receive wages, rent, and profit from the government.
Households receive wages, rent, and profit from firms.

 

8 Scarcity occurs because of:
overutilization of labor.
the limited supply of resources.
limited human needs and wants.
the excess of quantity supplied over quantity demanded.

 

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9 In the long run, a higher saving rate:
does not always lead to a higher growth rate of output because of diminishing returns to capital.
does not lead to a higher level of income because of deterioration in labor productivity.
always leads to a higher growth rate of output because of improvement in the stock of human capital.
always leads to a higher level of productivity because of increasing returns to scale.

 

 

10 The buyers and sellers in the country of Perylia use corn as a medium of exchange. This means that:
corn can be used as a store of value but not as a unit of account in Perylia.
Perylia uses fiat money.
Perylia uses commodity money.
corn cannot be used as a store of value or as a unit of account in Perylia.

 

11 Suppose the net foreign investment in Italy is positive. This implies that:

Italy is experiencing a net capital inflow.
foreigners are buying relatively more Italian assets.
foreign direct investment in Italy is higher than foreign portfolio investment in the country.
Italians are buying more foreign assets than foreigners are buying Italian assets.

 

12 The exhibit given below shows the short-run aggregate demand and supply curves in an economy, AD1 and AS1, and the long-run aggregate supply curve, LRAS. The economy was initially in equilibrium when there was a decrease in aggregate demand, causing a shift of the aggregate demand curve from AD1 to AD2. Which of the following is true in this case?

The economy will move from point D to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.
The economy will move from point B to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.
The economy will move from point C to point B in the short run and then eventually to point A.
The economy will move from point D to point C in the long run.

 

13 A difference between commodity money and fiat money is that:

fiat money cannot be used as a unit of account.
commodity money cannot be used as a unit of account.
commodity money is used in a barter economy.
fiat money does not have any intrinsic value.

 

 

 

14 As more capital is used in the production process, the amount of other inputs being fixed, the production function becomes:

steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.
flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.
flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.
steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.

 

15 Suppose the Fed purchases government bonds through open-market operations. All other things remaining equal, this is likely to:

decrease the price level and make domestic goods less expensive relative to foreign goods.
decrease the price level and increase the real wealth of consumers.
increase the price level and eventually decrease the demand for money as well as goods and services.
increase the price level and eventually decrease the interest rate and investment spending.

 

16 Jack is an out-of-work sculptor. He has been looking for a job for the last two years. Unable to find any, he has given up his job search. Which of the following is true in this case?

This is an example of frictional unemployment.
He is a discouraged worker and will not be included in the calculation of the unemployment rate.
This is an example of structural unemployment.
He is a part of the unemployed labor force.

 

17 The country of Merilya exported goods and services worth $1.2 million and imported goods and services worth $2.7 million. The net exports of the country was _____.

$2 million, and it had a trade surplus
−$3.9 million, and it had a trade deficit
$3.9 million, and it had a trade surplus
−$1.5 million, and it had a trade deficit

 

18 If the price level in an economy is 120 and the equilibrium price level is 100, _____.

the supply of money is likely to exceed the demand for money
the demand for money curve will shift to the left
people will want to hold more money than is supplied by the central bank
the purchasing power of money will increase

 

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19 A recent survey showed the health benefits of cranberry juice for treating heart and other respiratory disorders. The exhibit below shows that the initial demand curve for cranberry juice is D1. Which of the following is likely to be a consequence of the publication of the survey?
The demand curve will shift from D1 to D2.
There will be a movement from point A to point C on D1.
The demand curve will shift from D1 to D3.
There will be a movement from point A to point B on D1.

 

20 Suppose the central bank of a country undertakes an expansionary monetary policy. Which of the following is most likely to be the effect of such a policy, all other things remaining unchanged?

A decrease in the price level that reduces the amount of money that people want to hold and decreases the interest rate.
A decrease in the price level that reduces the interest rate and lowers the real value of the domestic currency foreign-exchange market.
An increase in the price level that stimulates spending on net exports and increases the demand for money
An increase in the price level that reduces the real value of households’ money holdings and stimulates consumer spending

 

21 The Phillips curve shows:

the positive relationship between the price level and aggregate supply.
the positive relationship between the interest rate and the supply of money.
the negative relationship between inflation and unemployment.
the negative relationship between the interest rate and the demand for money.

 

22 A rise in the price of bacon from $14 per pound to $16 per pound will reduce the purchasing power of the dollar by:

5 pounds of bacon.
0.55 pounds of bacons.
2 pounds of bacon.
0.06 pounds of bacon.

 

23 There is an increase in human capital when _____.

Susie puts in more than 8 hours of work at her workplace every day
Sue rents a laser printer to teach her employees how to fix it
Shiroh persuades the management of her company to offer more perks to employees
Samantha receives training in quality management after joining a new firm

 

24 Suppose an economy is in long-run equilibrium. An increase in consumption expenditure will:

decrease both the price level and real gross domestic product in the long run.
increase the price level in the long run but have no effect on real gross domestic product.
shift the aggregate demand curve rightward and increase the real output in the long run.
shift the short-run aggregate supply curve rightward and increase both the price level and real output in the long run.

 

25 After retirement, Molly deposits $500,000 in a local bank in Merrina. At an interest rate of 4 percent, she will receive approximately _____ after 3 years.

$662,345
$608,326
$562,432
$750,000

 

26 Ruth wants to calculate the present value of a sum of money that she will receive after the demise of her grandparents. To calculate the present value, she should use the:

discounting method.
value-added method.
expenditure method.
compounding method.

 

27 A higher interest rate in a country:

makes domestic bonds less attractive to foreigners.
lowers saving in the country and decreases the quantity of loanable funds supplied.
discourages investment and decreases the quantity of loanable funds demanded.
encourages citizens to buy foreign assets.

 

28 Keynesian economists believe that when an economy is in a recession, the government should:

increase its purchases rather than decrease taxes because households save a part of the increase in their income as a result of tax cuts.
increase the money supply in the economy so that interest rates decline, reducing the cost of borrowing to finance new investment projects.
decrease tax rates rather than increase government spending because households always view such tax cuts as permanent and increase their current consumption.
increase the money supply in the economy so that an excess supply of money can induce households to increase their consumption expenditure.

 

29 The natural rate of unemployment in a country is 4 percent. This implies that:

4 percent of the labor force is unemployed at any given point of time.
the unemployment rate is constant at 4 percent over time.
the country has a 4 percent unemployment rate when the labor market is in equilibrium.
the country has an unemployment rate of 4 percent in the short run.

 

30 Suppose the net capital outflow from Zenovia is negative. This implies that:

the real interest rate in Zenovia is high.
the citizens of Zenovia are investing more in foreign assets than foreigners are investing in assets in Zenovia.
the real interest rate in foreign countries is higher than in Zenovia.
foreigners are not interested in buying assets in Zenovia

 

 

Eco/372 Macroeconomics

Resources: National Bureau of Economic Research; Principles of Macroeconomics: Ch. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 

Scenario: Your organization’s CEO is concerned that members of the strategic planning committee are not familiar with current economic thought and principles. The CEO has assigned you the task of developing a report to introduce some of these thoughts and principles. 

Develop a 1,050-word report to the members of the strategic planning committee explaining the following information:

  • How economists are both scientists and policymakers and what principles society uses to allocate its scarce resources.
  • Using the circular flow model, explain the flow of money and goods in an economy.
  • How the economy coordinates society’s independent economic actors.
  • A country’s gross domestic product (GDP) and how it is defined and calculated.
  • How the consumer price index (CPI) is constructed and why it is an imperfect measurement of the cost of living.

Format the assignment consistent with APA guidelines. 

 

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Phoenix Eco/365 Ten Principles Of Economics And How Markets Work

Purpose of Assignment

In Week 1, students are introduced to the ten fundamental principles  on which the study of economics is based. Throughout this course, the  students will use these ten principles to better develop their  understanding of economics and how society manages its scarce resources.  Students will see how markets work using supply and demand for a good  to determine both the quantity produced and the price at which the good  sells. The concepts of equilibrium and elasticity are used to explain  the sensitivity of quantity supplied and quantity demanded to changes in  economic variables. Students will see how government policies impact  prices and quantities in markets.

 

Assignment Steps

Resources: Principles of Microeconomics, Ch. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6.

Prepare an 875-word research paper as part of a  marketing research committee for your organization about current  microeconomic thought and theory.

Identify the fundamental lessons the Ten Principles of Economics teaches regarding:

  • How people make decisions
  • How people interact
  • How the economy works as a whole 

Explain the following to help the committee members understand how markets work:

  • How society manages its scarce resources and benefits from economic interdependence.
  • Why the demand curve slopes downward and the supply curve slopes upward. 

o    Where the point of equilibrium is and what does it determine?

  • The impact of price controls, taxes, and elasticity on changes in supply, demand and equilibrium prices.

Format consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Assumptions of ordinary least square

Describe the major assumptions of ordinary least squares and define the  error term

The necessary OLS assumptions, which are used to derive the OLS estimators in linear regression models, are discussed below. OLS Assumption 1: The linear regression model is “linear in parameters.” When the dependent variable (Y)(Y)(Y) is a linear function of independent variables (X′s)(X’s)(X′s) and the error term, the regression is linear in parameters and not necessarily linear in X′sX’sX′s. For example, consider the following: A1. The linear regression model is “linear in parameters.” A2. There is a random sampling of observations. A3. The conditional mean should be zero. A4. There is no multi-collinearity (or perfect collinearity). A5. Spherical errors: There is homoscedasticity and no autocorrelation A6: Optional Assumption: Error terms should be normally distributed. a)Y=β0+β1X1+β2X2+εa)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ 1 }{ X }_{ 1 }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilona)Y=β0​+β1​X1​+β2​X2​+ε b)Y=β0+β1X12+β2X2+εb)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ 1 }{ X }_{ { 1 }^{ 2 } }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilonb)Y=β0​+β1​X12​+β2​X2​+ε c)Y=β0+β12X1+β2X2+εc)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ { 1 }^{ 2 } }{ X }_{ 1 }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilonc)Y=β0​+β12​X1​+β2​X2​+ε In the above three examples, for a) and b) OLS assumption 1 is satisfied. For c) OLS assumption 1 is not satisfied because it is not linear in parameter β1{ \beta }_{ 1 }β1​. OLS Assumption 2: There is a random sampling of observations This assumption of OLS regression …

Difference between Economic growth and Economic Development

Cleary Distinguish between economic development and economic growth

The theory of comparative advantage

Cleary describe the benefits of this theory to a nation’s economy

ACC 291 Week 5 Practice: Connect Practice Assignment

ACC 291 Week 5 Practice: Connect Practice Assignment

attempt 1

1

Healthy Eating Foods Company is a distributor of nutritious snack foods such as granola bars. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances that follow.

Required:

Record adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record closing entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

Assuming that the firm did not record a reversing entry for salaries payable, what entry is required when salaries of $6,000 are paid on January 3?

 

2

Good to Go Auto Products distributes automobile parts to service stations and repair shops. The adjusted trial balance data that follows is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019

Accounts    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    99,000
Petty Cash Fund         600
Notes Receivable, due 2020         15,000
Accounts Receivable         140,200
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    3,800
Interest Receivable         150
Merchandise Inventory         128,500
Warehouse Supplies         3,300
Office Supplies         700
Prepaid Insurance         4,640
Land         16,000
Building         107,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        16,700
Warehouse Equipment         19,800
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        9,500
Office Equipment         9,400
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        3,900
Notes Payable, due 2020                        15,000
Accounts Payable                        56,900
Interest Payable                        400
Loans Payable—Long-Term                        17,000
Mortgage Payable                        20,000
Colin O’Brien, Capital (Jan. 1)                        326,870
Colin O’Brien, Drawing         70,650
Income Summary         131,400              128,500
Sales                        1,110,300
Sales Returns and Allowances         8,400
Interest Income                        580
Purchases         463,000
Freight In         9,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        13,650
Purchases Discounts                        9,240
Warehouse Wages Expense         108,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         3,400
Salaries Expense—Sales         151,700
Travel Expense         24,000
Delivery Expense         37,425
Salaries Expense—Office         85,000
Office Supplies Expense         1,220
Insurance Expense         9,875
Utilities Expense         8,000
Telephone Expense         3,280
Payroll Taxes Expense         31,600
Building Repairs Expense         3,700
Property Taxes Expense         16,400
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         3,580
Depreciation Expense—Building         5,600
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         1,620
Interest Expense         4,000
Totals    $    1,732,340         $    1,732,340
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than one year.
Analyze:

What percentage of total operating expenses is attributable to warehouse expenses?

 

3

Superior Hardwood Company distributes hardwood products to small furniture manufacturers. The adjusted trial balance data given below is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019.

ACCOUNTS    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    34,100
Petty Cash Fund         500
Notes Receivable, due 2020         11,800
Accounts Receivable         86,000
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    6,000
Merchandise Inventory         234,000
Warehouse Supplies         2,860
Office Supplies         1,420
Prepaid Insurance         10,200
Land         46,000
Building         178,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        54,000
Warehouse Equipment         37,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        17,400
Delivery Equipment         51,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Delivery Equipment                        19,600
Office Equipment         25,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        12,000
Notes Payable, due 2020                        20,200
Accounts Payable                        49,000
Interest Payable                        580
Mortgage Payable                        61,000
Loans Payable, Long-term                        17,000
Charles Ronie, Capital (Jan. 1)                        452,460
Charles Ronie, Drawing         127,000
Income Summary         244,000              234,000
Sales                        1,685,000
Sales Returns and Allowances         18,200
Interest Income                        1,580
Purchases         767,000
Freight In         13,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        8,440
Purchases Discounts                        11,160
Warehouse Wages Expense         199,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         7,100
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         5,800
Salaries Expense—Sales         269,200
Travel and Entertainment Expense         21,500
Delivery Wages Expense         60,330
Depreciation Expense—Delivery Equipment         9,800
Salaries Expense—Office         70,600
Office Supplies Expense         4,000
Insurance Expense         6,200
Utilities Expense         9,290
Telephone Expense         6,520
Payroll Taxes Expense         59,000
Property Taxes Expense         5,600
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Building         9,000
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         4,000
Interest Expense         8,200
Totals    $    2,649,420         $    2,649,420
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than a year.
Analyze:

What is the current ratio for this business?

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4

The data below concerns adjustments to be made at Coffee Bean Importers.

Adjustments

On November 1, 2019, the firm signed a lease for a warehouse and paid rent of $21,000 in advance for a six-month period.
On December 31, 2019, an inventory of supplies showed that items costing $1,940 were on hand. The balance of the Suppliesaccount was $11,880.
A depreciation schedule for the firm’s equipment shows that a total of $10,750 should be charged off as depreciation in 2019.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed salaries of $6,100 that will not be paid until January 2020.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed the employer’s social security (6.2 percent) and Medicare (1.45 percent) taxes on all accrued salaries.
On October 1, 2019, the firm received a five-month, 8 percent note for $6,500 from a customer with an overdue balance.
Required:

Record the adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

After the adjusting entries have been posted, what is the balance of the Prepaid Rent account on January 1, 2020?

 

5

The Artisan Wines is a retail store selling vintage wines. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances below. All account balances are normal.

Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The company does not classify its operating expenses as selling expenses and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the year.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019.
Analyze:

What is the inventory turnover for Artisan Wines?

 

Explanation
Analyze:

The inventory turnover for Artisan Wines is 6.59 times, calculated as follows:

Cost of good sold    =    92,225    =    6.59
Average inventory    14,000

Average inventory    =    13,000 + 15,000    =    14,000
2
 

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attempt 2

1

The data below concerns adjustments to be made at Coffee Bean Importers.

Adjustments

On November 1, 2019, the firm signed a lease for a warehouse and paid rent of $21,000 in advance for a six-month period.
On December 31, 2019, an inventory of supplies showed that items costing $1,940 were on hand. The balance of the Suppliesaccount was $11,880.
A depreciation schedule for the firm’s equipment shows that a total of $10,750 should be charged off as depreciation in 2019.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed salaries of $6,100 that will not be paid until January 2020.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed the employer’s social security (6.2 percent) and Medicare (1.45 percent) taxes on all accrued salaries.
On October 1, 2019, the firm received a five-month, 8 percent note for $6,500 from a customer with an overdue balance.
Required:

Record the adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

After the adjusting entries have been posted, what is the balance of the Prepaid Rent account on January 1, 2020?

 

2

The Artisan Wines is a retail store selling vintage wines. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances below. All account balances are normal.

 

Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The company does not classify its operating expenses as selling expenses and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the year.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019.
Analyze:

What is the inventory turnover for Artisan Wines?

 

3

Healthy Eating Foods Company is a distributor of nutritious snack foods such as granola bars. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances that follow.

Required:

Record adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record closing entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

Assuming that the firm did not record a reversing entry for salaries payable, what entry is required when salaries of $6,000 are paid on January 3?

 

4

Good to Go Auto Products distributes automobile parts to service stations and repair shops. The adjusted trial balance data that follows is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019

Accounts    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    99,000
Petty Cash Fund         600
Notes Receivable, due 2020         15,000
Accounts Receivable         140,200
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    3,800
Interest Receivable         150
Merchandise Inventory         128,500
Warehouse Supplies         3,300
Office Supplies         700
Prepaid Insurance         4,640
Land         16,000
Building         107,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        16,700
Warehouse Equipment         19,800
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        9,500
Office Equipment         9,400
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        3,900
Notes Payable, due 2020                        15,000
Accounts Payable                        56,900
Interest Payable                        400
Loans Payable—Long-Term                        17,000
Mortgage Payable                        20,000
Colin O’Brien, Capital (Jan. 1)                        326,870
Colin O’Brien, Drawing         70,650
Income Summary         131,400              128,500
Sales                        1,110,300
Sales Returns and Allowances         8,400
Interest Income                        580
Purchases         463,000
Freight In         9,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        13,650
Purchases Discounts                        9,240
Warehouse Wages Expense         108,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         3,400
Salaries Expense—Sales         151,700
Travel Expense         24,000
Delivery Expense         37,425
Salaries Expense—Office         85,000
Office Supplies Expense         1,220
Insurance Expense         9,875
Utilities Expense         8,000
Telephone Expense         3,280
Payroll Taxes Expense         31,600
Building Repairs Expense         3,700
Property Taxes Expense         16,400
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         3,580
Depreciation Expense—Building         5,600
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         1,620
Interest Expense         4,000
Totals    $    1,732,340         $    1,732,340
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than one year.
Analyze:

What percentage of total operating expenses is attributable to warehouse expenses?

 

5

Superior Hardwood Company distributes hardwood products to small furniture manufacturers. The adjusted trial balance data given below is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019.

ACCOUNTS    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    34,100
Petty Cash Fund         500
Notes Receivable, due 2020         11,800
Accounts Receivable         86,000
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    6,000
Merchandise Inventory         234,000
Warehouse Supplies         2,860
Office Supplies         1,420
Prepaid Insurance         10,200
Land         46,000
Building         178,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        54,000
Warehouse Equipment         37,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        17,400
Delivery Equipment         51,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Delivery Equipment                        19,600
Office Equipment         25,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        12,000
Notes Payable, due 2020                        20,200
Accounts Payable                        49,000
Interest Payable                        580
Mortgage Payable                        61,000
Loans Payable, Long-term                        17,000
Charles Ronie, Capital (Jan. 1)                        452,460
Charles Ronie, Drawing         127,000
Income Summary         244,000              234,000
Sales                        1,685,000
Sales Returns and Allowances         18,200
Interest Income                        1,580
Purchases         767,000
Freight In         13,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        8,440
Purchases Discounts                        11,160
Warehouse Wages Expense         199,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         7,100
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         5,800
Salaries Expense—Sales         269,200
Travel and Entertainment Expense         21,500
Delivery Wages Expense         60,330
Depreciation Expense—Delivery Equipment         9,800
Salaries Expense—Office         70,600
Office Supplies Expense         4,000
Insurance Expense         6,200
Utilities Expense         9,290
Telephone Expense         6,520
Payroll Taxes Expense         59,000
Property Taxes Expense         5,600
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Building         9,000
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         4,000
Interest Expense         8,200
Totals    $    2,649,420         $    2,649,420
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than a year.
Analyze:

What is the current ratio for this business?

 

SCI 256 Select an ecosystem

SCI 256 Select an ecosystem in your area (forest, lake, desert, grassland).

Write a 600- to 1000-word paper explaining the following:

1)   Describe the structure of your ecosystem including important abiotic features and dominant plant and animal species.
2)   Explain some functions/processes of your ecosystem including one nutrient cycle and one food chain.
3)  Give two examples of species interactions (predation, competition, mutualism, etc.) that occur in your ecosystem.
4)  Identify an invasive species in your ecosystem. Explain its effects on the ecosystem and efforts to control or eradicate it.

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Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific

Assignment Steps 

Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific 

Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.

Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.

Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:

  1. What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
  2. Using Excel®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
  3. What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
  4. What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
  5. What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
  6. What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
  7. What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
  8. What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
  9. What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
  10. What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
  11. What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
  12. How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
  13. How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
  14. Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
  15. Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
  16. Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
  17. Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.

Format your assignment consistent with APA format. 

 

Research Paper Psyc 312

Research Paper Instructions

 

You will be responsible for writing a Research Paper focusing on a social psychology topic of your choosing. The topic must be one that is discussed in the textbook. The focus of the paper will be to present and review peer-reviewed research regarding your topic as well as provide a Biblical integration discussion for your topic.

 

For your paper, you must thoroughly review and cite 2 peer-reviewed journal articles that demonstrate research regarding your topic. Your articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental) in which the authors of the article actually formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results themselves. Theoretical/review articles and meta-analyses are not permitted to be reviewed for this paper.

 

Some examples include (please note you do not need to choose one of these topics):

 

  1. For a paper on the Bystander Effect, you could find an article in which the authors manipulated the number of people present and measured helping behavior.

 

  1. For a paper on Relational Aggression, you could find an article in which the authors measured and correlated parenting styles with degree of relational aggression in daughters.

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Keep in mind that these 2 articles must come from academic, peer-reviewed journals. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases should not be used. In addition to your 2 peer-reviewed articles, you must also cite the textbook in your paper. Other book sources will not count toward the source requirements. In the Biblical Integration section of your paper, you will be required to cite 2 different Scriptural references.

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You will submit your paper as a Microsoft Word document through Safe Assign. A “draft” link is available for you to check the originality of your work, but all papers must be submitted in the “final” link for credit and grading. Your paper must contain original work to this course only (i.e., you cannot reuse a paper or portion of a paper you have written in the past for another course). Papers that do not include a topic covered in the textbook will be returned and you will be asked to submit a new paper. Normal late policies will apply. In addition, the paper should be written mostly in your own words. Excessive use of quotes is not permitted and will result in a score reduction. Be sure you are paraphrasing information from articles well and citing correctly to avoid plagiarism. Paraphrasing that is too close to the original wording is still considered plagiarism. All instances of plagiarism will be reviewed and action taken as necessary (e.g., point reduction, Code of Honor report, a score of 0 for the paper, failure of the course).

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Your paper must include a current APA-style title page, abstract, body, and reference section. The body of the paper must be at least 5 pages with a maximum of 7 pages (not including the title page, abstract, and references). Papers shorter or longer than this requirement are subject to point deductions. Please note that there is a specific page length requirement for the Biblical Integration section (1 page). Be sure to use current APA-style citations throughout the paper to avoid plagiarism.

The structure of the paper must follow the outline below and all section components must be included for maximum credit.

 

  1. Title Page– current APA style

 

  1. Abstract– current APA style

 

  1. Introduction
  • Provide a definition of the social psychology concept you are researching
  • Provide a brief background of why this concept is important
  • To relate your concept to “real life,” provide a specific, real-world example of your concept. This example can be either something you’ve witnessed in your own life, an example you “make up” to illustrate your concept, or an example used in one of your sources. If you use an example from a source, be sure to cite appropriately.

 

  1. Review of Article I
  • Introduce the article, including the purpose of the article and any relevant hypotheses.
  • Summarize methods (i.e., type of participants, procedures used to manipulate or measure variables)
  • Summarize study results
  • Explain how study and results demonstrate or support the social psychology topic chosen (you must be able to demonstrate that you can relate the specific study results to the general topic chosen)

 

  1. Review of Article II
  • Include all of the same elements listed above

 

  1. Biblical Integration (must be at least one pagein length)
  • Discuss your topic from a Biblical standpoint (i.e., what does the Bible say about it). You must use at least twodifferent Scriptural references in this section to support your discussion.

 

  1. Conclusion
  • Briefly summarize/define the chosen topic
  • Briefly summarize the major results of each study
  • Briefly summarize the Biblical standpoint discussed

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  1. Reference Page– Current APA style
  • Include 2 peer-reviewed journal articles describing original research
  • Include textbook reference
  • (Note that the Bible does notneed to be included in your reference section)

 

Research Paper: Topic and References Instructions

 

For this assignment you will decide on your Research Paper topic and find references to be used in your paper. Before completing this assignment, thoroughly read the Research Paper Instructions in Module 7 so you know the guidelines for the paper and what will be expected of you. Be sure you are picking a Social Psychology concept covered in your textbook, and one for which you can present an example and discuss from a Biblical standpoint. For this assignment, you will create and submit an APA-style reference page, submitted as a Word document. The reference page must include 3 references with the following guidelines:

  • Two references must be peer-reviewed journal articles. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases may not be used.
  • Both of these journal articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental). This means that the authors of the article actually conducted a study themselves in which they formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results. No theoretical/review articles or meta-analyses are allowed.
  • One reference needs to be your course textbook

 

Please note that the instructor will not be able to look up each of your articles to verify whether they meet criteria (although this is sometimes obvious from the title). You are responsible for ensuring any article you submit fits the guidelines above. If not, you will need to do more research before your paper is due since you will not be able to complete the paper correctly without appropriate articles and will incur significant point deductions at that time. Attached to the end of this document is a list of questions you can ask yourself to ensure you are choosing appropriate articles.

 

At the bottom of the page underneath your APA-style references, list your topic (including the chapter number for where your topic is found in your textbook) and two different Scriptural references that you will use in your paper. This requirement allows you to check whether or not you can apply Scripture to your topic, which will be required for your final paper. Please list out both the Scriptural citation and the text. If you are referencing long passages of text, please only type out one or two of the most applicable verses for this assignment. For your paper, you can reference more than what you list here if needed. The information can be organized as follows:

 

Topic (including chapter number where topic is found):

 

Scriptural Reference 1: (e.g., John 3:16 (NIV) “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.”)

 

Scriptural Reference 2:

 

**You will be allowed to alter your references and Scriptural choices if necessary for the final Research Paper, but will need to ensure that any changes to your references continue to meet requirements for full credit on your paper.

 

Your Research Paper: Topic and References is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Questions to Ask Yourself When Choosing Articles

 

  1. Does my article come from a peer-reviewed journal article?

If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following other sources:

  1. Does the article come from a magazine, book, website, or thesis/dissertation database?

 

  1. Did the authors of this article conduct an original research study themselves?

If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following questions:

  1. Are the authors onlyreviewing someone else’s work?
  2. Are the authors compiling others’ research into a meta-analysis?
  3. Are the authors onlyproviding a theoretical discussion of the topic or describing a model they are proposing?

 

  1. Did the authors form hypotheses, seek out a sample, collect data from this sample, analyze their own results, and provide a discussion of these results?

 

If you can answer YES to questions 1, 2, and 3, then your article is appropriate for your paper!

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New hire for job position

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications.  However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package.  The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home.  The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home.  Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

 

New hire for job position

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications.  However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package.  The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home.  The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home.  Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

 

International econ

1) Explain the connection between the US trade deficit and financial capital flows.

2) Explain how comparative advantage determines the pattern of trade. Use an example to aid in your explanation.

3) Explain how the Stolper-Samuelson theorem indicates that free trade will (likely) worsen income inequality in the US, but (likely) narrow it for Mexico.

4) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a tariff on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a tariff on a small, imperfectly competitive market c. Imposition of a tariff on a large, perfectly competitive market

5) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a quota on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a quota on a small, imperfectly competitive market

6) If the US is a large importing country and imposes a tariff on the import of a good, what will the welfare effect on the exporting country be?

7) Assume that the US is a large country in the semi-conductor market. If the US is an exporter of the good and experiences a technological improvement, will the US always be better off? Show and explain why or why not.

8) National security demands have made it imperative for the US to close the toilet paper trade gap (just think what would happen in times of war if we couldn’t produce our own!). The government has decided to reduce our imports from 100 million units to 90 million units. As the supreme TP czar, which of the following policies should be chosen? Show and explain why. a. A production subsidy b. A consumption tax c. An import tariff

9) Show why in a competition between the Boeing and Airbus that autarky may be the preferred welfare situation to free trade. Explain how you draw this conclusion. 10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.

10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.

11) Explain what constraints the WTO places on US government actions.

12) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of fixed and flexible exchange rates. In your answer, consider the ramifications for fiscal and monetary policy.

13) Explain how trade may reduce pressure for immigration.

14) For each of the following cases indicate the expected change in the equilibrium exchange rate (€/$). Use supply and demand analysis (no credit without the graph). a) an increase in EU interest rates b) a fall in the price level in the US c) an increase in US barriers to imports from the EU

15) Explain why labor unions may wish to oppose international trade. Does this entail that this is a “good” government policy? Explain.

16) Explain why “dumping” is considered to be unfair trade. Does dumping – if unfair or not – cause harm in the dumped upon country? What condition is required for harm to accrue?

17) What is a senescent industry? How is protection for international trade supposed to aid this industry? How is it supposed to aid the country? Under what conditions will the aid actually accrue to the industry and the country?

1) Explain what is meant by “dollarization.” What might lead a country to make this choice for managing its money supply?

2) Explain how a managed float differs from a freely floating (flexible) exchange rate.

3) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of fixed v. flexible exchange rate systems?

4) For each of the following cases, explain that is the “best” tool for the goal trying to be achieved. Clearly demonstrate why this is the “best” tool. a) The US wishes to contain pollution generated by the consumption of widgets. b) The US wishes to protect jobs in the widgets sector. c) The US wishes to restrain imports in the widgets sector to reduce the trade imbalance with Widgeria.

5) How does the existence of “3-way trades” undermine the usefulness of the supply and demand model of the exchange rate for precisely predicting what the exchange rate will be?

1) Explain how a fixed exchange rate may contribute to a currency crisis? Is any fixed exchange rate subject to this risk?

2) Given the following information where should you invest in order to maximize your return? e = 0.001 $/peso f = 0.0011 $/peso Nominal interest rate in the US = 8% Nominal interest rate in Mexico = 10% Given your investment pattern, how do you expect the variables to evolve over time?

3) What is the Law of One Price? Under what assumptions does the Law of One Price lead to the Purchasing Power Parity model of exchange rates?

4) Suppose that the money supply in the US falls. What will happen to the value of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets? Justify your answer using at least two (2) models of the exchange rate.

1) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the IS curve. a) An increase in the foreign price level b) A fall in foreign income levels c) An increase in domestic tax rates d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets e) A collapse in business confidence f) An increase in the money supply

2) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the LM curve. a) An increase in the domestic price level b) A decrease in the money supply c) A fall in the precautionary demand for money d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets

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For Contemporary Decision Making.

  1. Consider  how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the  statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.
  2. consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.

Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean  as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank.  Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?

  1. Provide an example of empirical probability ?

 

BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activitis

Formative question

Activity 1.

  1. What is marketing? (20-40words)

 

  1. What is the USP? (20-40 words)

 

  1. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)

 

 

 

 

Activity 2.

  1. What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)

 

  1. What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words

 

 

 

Activity 3.

How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.

 

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Activity 4.

  1. How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each

 

 

 

Activity 5.

  1. Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words

 

  1. Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words

 

 

Activity 6.

  1. What is positioning? 1 sentence

 

  1. What is market mix? 20-40words

 

  1. Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words

 

 

 

 

Activity 7.

  1. What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.

 

  1. How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

 

Activity 8.

  1. How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples

 

  1. What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples

 

 

 

Activity 9.

  1. What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence

 

  1. What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples

 

 

 

Activity 10

  1. From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples

 

  1. What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence

 

 

 

Activity 11.

  1. What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.
  2. You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words

 

 

Activity 12

  1. What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.

 

  1. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which  work best? Why? 50-75 words

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Activity 13

  1. Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words

 

  1. Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.

 

 

Activity 14.

  1. How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words

 

 

 

 

Activity 15

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.

 

 

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

Activity 16.

  1. Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words

 

 

  1. How can they be documented? 1 sentence

 

 

 

Acitivty 17.

What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Summative assessment 1

Question 1.

Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.

 

 

Question 2

List five examples of basic marketing activities.

 

Question 3.

Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words

 

Question 4.

Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words

 

 

Summative Assessment 2.

Project

The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.

The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns

The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.

Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :

  • Conduct market research
  • Develop product knowledge
  • Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
  • Clearly describe the goals that you have set
  • How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
  • What resources will you required (including team members)
  • Set realistic timeline for your campaign
  • Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
  • Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
  • Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
  • Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
  • Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
  • What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
  • What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
  • Review marketing activities

1000-2000words

 

Production/Operation

Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text

 

  1. Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
  2. Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
  3. What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
  4. Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management

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Sourcing, Logistics,

  1. What is the meaning of logistics?
  2. How do firms go about planning and analyzing their logistics capabilities?
  3. Using the logic behind the Centroid Method, list five major reasons why a new electronic components manufacturing firm should move into your city or town.
  4. Why is it important for firms to focus on global procurement and sourcing?
  5. What are ways firms can be more efficient through improved global procurement and sourcing?
  6. How should firms go about making the decision whether or not to outsource?
  7. Describe how outsourcing works. Why would a firm want to outsource?

 

Case study 10-4 performance management

Possible illegal discrimination at tractors, Inc.

As the new human resource manager, you have been asked to identify those areas of current performance management system that could face legal challenge. Develop a one page summantion,  the currentsystem identifying the potentially illegal aspect of the current system and your suggestion for making the current system more legally sound.

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How to find blogs for guest-blogging in your niche

Writing Instructions

This is a “How to” post for my digital marketing blog. I need a good quality on “How to find blogs for guest-blogging in your niche” Add a little information too on how to do the actual guest-blogging. This should, however, be actionable tips, not just general info.

 

Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”

Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”

Get Essay writing help at www.homeworknest.com for this essay now! Pay someone to do your Fall Finals and get strain

Course textbook:

Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice (4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.

 

How mangers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce

Write a one page paper on how Managers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce.  How can each generation learn from one another?  Then tell me what can Generation X  do to make the workplace a better place?

Analysis, Modeling, and Design


Business Case Research Paper

A Business Case Definition:  Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.

For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan.   Include definitions and applications.   Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.

I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length.  Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.

This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.

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Business, Accounting

Ordinary Tax – 39.6%

Capital Gain – 20%

Recap on Depreciation – 25%

 

Problem 1

 

XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000.  An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building.  A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000.  Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used.  Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.

Economic Gain – 10 million

 

Depreciation rates are as follows:

 

Real Property – 39 year straight line

 

7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:

 

7 Year Property                                   5 Year Property

 

  1. 14.29%                              1.       20%
  2. 24.49%                              2.       32%
  3. 17.49       %                                  3.       19.2%
  4. 12.49       %                                  4.       11.52%
  5.   8.93       %                                  5.       11.5%
  6.   8.92       %                                  6.       5.76%
  7.   8.93
  8.   4.46

 

Signature Assignment

Assignment Steps 

Develop a 700- to 1,050-word memo to a prospective employer outlining your credentials, including: taking this class, all of the projects you have done for this class individually and with your team, and their impact on the businesses you have engaged with so a senior manager reading it would want to hire you as either an operations consultant or permanent employee.

Summarize the business case for each project.

Outline what you specifically accomplished, assuming these projects were implemented, and their estimated impacts on the business.

Utilize the learnings from your skills in global sourcing, procurement, and outsourcing which can also be of benefit to your target firm.

Format your assignment as if you would be giving a presentation to senior management

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JADM310 Week 3 Quiz 2018

Question 1

(TCO 1) A particularly dangerous situation can result when medications are combined with:

caffeine

alcohol

nicotine

excessive water

Question 2

(TCO 1) The potential for drug abuse in general presents a greater challenge for

men than for women

African Americans than for Latinos

young people than for the elderly

none of the above

Question 3

(TCO 2) A common problem among Civil War veterans, the “soldier’s disease,” was actually:

venereal disease

post-traumatic stress syndrome

morphine addiction

cocaine dependence

Question 4

(TCO 2) One of the following was NOT a significant factor in the movement toward drug regulation early twentieth century:

the abuse of patent medicines

widespread deaths from adulterated foods and drugs

the association of drug use with minority groups

Upton Sinclair’s The Jungle

Question 5

(TCO 3) The pattern of human behavior that characterizes psychological dependence closely parallels which behavior in animals?

hoarding

self-administration

self-grooming

separation anxiety

Question 6

(TCO 3) A behavioral point of view emphasizes that all behavior is ________.

learned

subconscious

inconsistent

factor-based

Question 7

(TCO 4) Withdrawal from amphetamines takes approximately

2 to 6 hours

3 to 6 hours

1 to 2 months

six to eighteen weeks

Question 8

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(TCO 4) A speedball contains a combination of:

cocaine and amphetamines

cocaine and heroin

amphetamines and heroin

cocaine and LSD

Question 9

(TCO 5) At high doses of heroin, _______ is a major risk factor that can result in death.

the slowing down of the gastrointestinal tract

respiratory depression

pinpoint pupils

increased blood pressure

Question 10

(TCO 5) Which statement concerning opium use or the nineteenth century is NOT true?

opium use was more popular with women then with men

federal laws were made prohibiting opium smoking only

opium usage in the United States was drastically different than that of Britain

products containing opium were available through Sears catalogs

Question 11

(TCO 5) While opening the doors to a new population of heroin abusers, heroin smoking avoids the problem of:

overdose

dependence

combination with cocaine

HIV-contaminated needles

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PJM 6500 Project Management – Midterm Exam

  1. Which of these countries is NOT identified in the text as having a developing economy with a substantial market?
  2. A) Russia
  3. B) China
  4. C) India
  5. D) Europe
  6. Low inflation is a trigger for improved project management skills because:
  7. A) Rampant cost increases must be passed along to the consumer
  8. B) Internal process improvement is accomplished via project management
  9. C) Lower inflation means narrower product launch windows
  10. D) Global markets are a prerequisite for low inflation
  11. The Project Management Body of Knowledge Guide definition of a project indicates that a project is:
  12. A) Multifunctional
  13. B) Permanent
  14. C) Designed to avoid using human resources
  15. D) Not limited by a budget
  16. The acronym PMBoK stands for:
  17. A) The Personal Management Before or Kernel.
  18. B) The Project Movement Behind our Kernel.
  19. C) The Project Management Body of Knowledge.
  20. D) The Performance Measurement Body of Knowledge.
  21. Which of the following is NOT a project constraint?
  22. A) The budget
  23. B) The customer requirements
  24. C) The schedule
  25. D) The technical specifications
  26. Which of the following is NOT an element of strategic management?
  27. A) Formulating cross-functional decisions
  28. B) Implementing cross-functional decisions
  29. C) Evaluating cross-functional decisions
  30. D) Eliminating cross-functional decisions
  31. Which of the following is descriptive of a vision statement?
  32. A) Inspirational
  33. B) Functional
  34. C) Supportive
  35. D) Critical
  36. Which of these strategic elements exists at a higher level than the others?
  37. A) Programs
  38. B) Objectives
  39. C) Goals
  40. D) Strategies
  41. A strategic element that contains formally titled initiatives such as the Customer Survey Project, the Small Business Alliance Project, and the Employee Relations Project is most likely a:
  42. A) Mission
  43. B) Strategy
  44. C) Goal
  45. D) Program
  46. External stakeholders that are external to a project but possess the power to effectively disrupt the project’s development are:
  47. A) Intervenor groups
  48. B) Environmental groups
  49. C) Stressor groups
  50. D) Special-interest groups
  51. Souder’s project screening criterion of realism addresses the question:
  52. A) How many workers will the project need?
  53. B) Will the project work as intended?
  54. C) Who are the stakeholders?
  55. D) How often should the project team meet?
  56. A selection model that is broad enough to be applied to multiple projects has the benefit of:
  57. A) Ease of use.
  58. B) Comparability.
  59. C) Capability.
  60. D) Flexibility.
  61. A project screening criterion that allows the company to compare long-term versus short-term projects, projects with different technologies, and projects with different commercial objectives is:
  62. A) Flexibility.
  63. B) Ease of use.
  64. C) Capability.
  65. D) Realistic.
  66. A wedding planner allows $10,000 for flowers and three weeks to receive all RSVPs back from the list of 700 guests. Both estimates are correct within a fraction of a percent. We could describe this factoid as:
  67. A) Numeric and subjective.
  68. B) Numeric and objective.
  69. C) Non-numeric and subjective.
  70. D) Non-numeric and objective.
  71. One project factor that directly impacts a firm’s internal operations is the:
  72. A) Expected return on investment.
  73. B) Financial risk.
  74. C) Need to develop employees.
  75. D) Impact on company’s image.
  76. Which statement regarding project selection is BEST?
  77. A) Organizational reality can be perfectly captured by most decision-making models.
  78. B) Before selecting any project, the team should identify all the relevant issues that play a

role in project selection.

  1. C) Decision models must contain either objective or subjective factors.
  2. D) Every decision model has both objective and subjective factors.
  3. A project manager is using a simple scoring model to decide which of four projects is best, given the company’s limited resources. The criteria, importance weights, and scores for each are shown in the table. Which project should be chosen?

Project Criteria

Importance

Weight Score

1 1 3

Greenlight 2 2 2

3 3 1

1 1 2

Runway 2 2 1

3 3 3

1 1 1

X 2 2 2

3 3 2

1 1 2

Ilevomit 2 2 2

3 3 2

  1. A) Project Greenlight
  2. B) Project Runway
  3. C) Project X
  4. D) Project Ilevomit
  5. For the project manager, leadership is:
  6. A) The process by which she influences the project team.
  7. B) The process of assembling a group of individuals.
  8. C) The process of building skills among all team members.
  9. D) The process of maintaining control of the budget.
  10. The idea that all members of a project team have the ability to offer a contrary position in order to achieve true partnership between the project manager and the team is called:
  11. A) Exchange of purpose.
  12. B) A right to say no.
  13. C) Joint accountability.
  14. D) Absolute honesty.
  15. In a partnership, each member of the project team is responsible for the project’s outcomes and the current situation, whether it is positive or shows evidence of project problems. The term that BEST describes this responsibility is:
  16. A) Exchange of purpose.
  17. B) A right to say no.
  18. C) Joint accountability.
  19. D) Absolute honesty.
  20. Which statement regarding the duties of leaders and managers is BEST?
  21. A) Leaders embrace change while managers support the status quo.
  22. B) Management is more about interpersonal relationships than leadership is.
  23. C) Leaders aim for efficiency.
  24. D) Managers aim for effectiveness.
  25. Which of these is more characteristic of a leader?
  26. A) Strive for control
  27. B) Do things right
  28. C) Demand respect
  29. D) Inspire trust
  30. A common tactic project managers use when they realize their project is underfunded is to rely on:
  31. A) Intimidation.
  32. B) Political tactics.
  33. C) Asking for forgiveness rather than permission.
  34. D) The kindness of strangers.
  35. Which personality trait is a poor match for project work?
  36. A) Introverted
  37. B) Outgoing
  38. C) Gregarious
  39. D) People-oriented
  40. Which statement about scope management is BEST?
  41. A) Scope management must take place during the conceptual development, full definition, execution, and termination phases.
  42. B) Project goals don’t matter in scope management as long as the budget is not exceeded.
  43. C) Scope management is accomplished in a single step by any one project team member.
  44. D) Scope management can begin once a project hits operational level.
  45. The Scope Management chapter begins and ends with the quote, “It’s a dream until you write it down. Then it’s:
  46. A) Etched in stone.”
  47. B) A scope statement.”
  48. C) A documented dream.”
  49. D) A goal.”
  50. Which of these is NOT an element of project scope management?
  51. A) Project champion
  52. B) Scope statement
  53. C) Project closeout
  54. D) Control systems
  55. Scope management for a project begins with:
  56. A) A work package.
  57. B) An organization breakdown structure.
  58. C) A statement of goals.
  59. D) A configuration statement.
  60. Restrictions that affect project development are:
  61. A) Problems.
  62. B) Constraints.
  63. C) Stop-limits.
  64. D) Limitations.
  65. Expected commitments from other departments in support of the project would most likely be detailed in the:
  66. A) Approach section of the SOW.
  67. B) Risks and concerns section of the SOW.
  68. C) Acceptance criteria section of the SOW.
  69. D) Resource requirements section of the SOW.
  70. The step that reflects the formal “go ahead” given to the project to commence once the scope definition, planning documents, and other contractual documents have been prepared and approved is the:
  71. A) Go ahead.
  72. B) Send off.
  73. C) Work authorization.
  74. D) Work release.
  75. Project management people skills include:
  76. A) Team building.
  77. B) Scheduling.
  78. C) Budgeting.
  79. D) Project evaluation.
  80. The first step in assembling a project team is to:
  81. A) Talk to potential team members.
  82. B) Identify the required skills.
  83. C) Negotiate with the functional supervisor.
  84. D) Notify top management.
  85. Most project resources are negotiated with:
  86. A) Project managers.
  87. B) Potential team members.
  88. C) Top management.
  89. D) External stakeholders.
  90. Stacey noted that the client was a cantankerous old man and that her current project team lacked the requisite skills to work with him. Time was running short, so the BEST approach to making sure the project team had the necessary skills was to:
  91. A) Locate a new client for this project.
  92. B) Identify a suitable training program and implement it.
  93. C) Hire a contractor for the life of the project.
  94. D) Modify the skill set to something that her current team possessed.
  95. If a functional manager will NOT release the resources you need as project manager, your best course of action is to:
  96. A) Complete the project as best you can and inform management and the client that you predicted this outcome.
  97. B) Use social media to voice your concerns.
  98. C) Notify top management of the consequences.
  99. D) Update your resume.
  100. The department chair had allotted plenty of time for all department (and project) members to prepare sections of their five-year program review. Administration demanded no less than 50 pages be devoted to a thorough and thoughtful review of activities and goals. What happened to the report was anybody’s guess; no one had actually seen one or ever heard back from administration once they had submitted it. Most of the project team members thought the report was immediately sent to the steam tunnels running underneath the campus or perhaps it would sit collecting dust as part of a make-work program to justify an assistant VP’s job. No wonder that team meetings were poorly attended and that all the sections of the report were filled with trite phrases and wide margins. This team suffers from:
  101. A) Tenure.
  102. Need homework help? Click Here!
  103. B) Poorly developed goals.
  104. C) Poorly defined team interdependencies.
  105. D) Lack of motivation.
  106. During the two hours before their 7:30 p.m. appointments on Wednesday evenings, the operations team had a weekly gripe session during which everyone gleefully unloaded on the powers that controlled their miserable lives. This session was valuable since it:
  107. A) Allowed them to feel like real men, if only for a little while.
  108. B) Rewarded good behavior.
  109. C) Established a sense of security and consistency.
  110. D) Created a clear process for addressing conflict and group norms.
  111. The difference between projects that fail and those that are ultimately successful has to do with:
  112. A) The plans that have been made to deal with problems as they arise.
  113. B) The fact that a successful project doesn’t encounter problems.
  114. C) Whether the project is for an internal or external customer.
  115. D) Whether the problem is time- or budget-related.
  116. Project risk is highest during the:
  117. A) Termination stage of the project life cycle.
  118. B) Concept stage of the project life cycle.
  119. C) Implementation stage of the project life cycle.
  120. D) Development stage of the project life cycle.
  121. Project risk is lowest during the:
  122. A) Concept stage of the project life cycle.
  123. B) Implementation stage of the project life cycle.
  124. C) Termination stage of the project life cycle.
  125. D) Development stage of the project life cycle.
  126. The greatest project risk occurs when:
  127. A) The probability of the event is high and the consequences of the event are high.
  128. B) The probability of the event is high and the consequences of the event are low.
  129. C) The probability of the event is low and the consequences of the event are high.
  130. D) The probability of the event is low and the consequences of the event are low.
  131. The greatest project opportunity occurs when:
  132. A) The project is in the concept phase.
  133. B) The project is in the development phase.
  134. C) The project is in the implementation phase.
  135. D) The project is in the termination phase.
  136. The overall project risk factor is known to be 0.6. The probability of dependency failure is twice the probability of complexity failure and four times the probability of maturity failure. The consequence of performance failure is twice the consequence of reliability failure, four times the consequence of schedule failure and eight times the consequence of cost failure. What is the probability of maturity failure?

Maturity X Cost Y

Complexity 2X Schedule 2Y

Dependency 4X Reliability 4Y

Performance 8Y

  1. A) 0.213
  2. B) 0.197
  3. C) 0.104
  4. D) 0.148
  5. Use the failure probability and consequence scores shown in the table to determine the consequence of failure for the project.

Maturity 0.6 Cost 0.2

Complexity 0.8 Schedule 0.3

Dependency 0.6 Reliability 0.2

Performance 0.5

  1. A) Greater than 0.7
  2. B) Less than or equal to 0.7 but greater than 0.5
  3. C) Less than or equal to 0.5 but greater than 0.3
  4. D) Less than 0.2

True and False: Write T for True or F for False on the line.

  1. Projects, rather than repetitive tasks, are now the basis for most value-added in business.

True

False

  1. The emergence of global markets has made project management skills more critical.

True

False

  1. The same project managed in the same fashion may succeed in one organization but fail in another.

True

False

  1. Most companies are well suited to allow for successful completion of projects in

conjunction with other ongoing corporate activities.

True

False

  1. Risks can be quantified by multiplying the likelihood a failure will occur by the severity of the failure.

True

False

 

ECO100 Knowledge Check 1

Question

Question 1

If macroeconomics looks at the economy as a whole, it focuses on which of the following?

  1. households
  2. business firms
  3. unemployed people
  4. the division of labor

Question 2

In a discussion of economics, which of the following would exert the most influence on an individual firm’s decision to hire workers?

  1. wage levels
  2. the macroeconomy
  3. the firm’s income
  4. household income

Question 3

What is the basic difference between macroeconomics and microeconomics?

  1. microeconomics looks at the forest (aggregate markets) while macroeconomics looks at the trees (individual markets).
  2. macroeconomics is concerned with groups of individuals while microeconomics is concerned with single countries.
  3. microeconomics is concerned with the trees (individual markets) while macroeconomics is concerned with the forest (aggregate markets).
  4. macroeconomics is concerned with generalization while microeconomics is concerned with specialization.

Question 4

What is the basic difference between macroeconomics and microeconomics?

  1. microeconomics concentrates on individual markets while macroeconomics focuses primarily on international trade.
  2. microeconomics concentrates on the behaviour of individual consumers while macroeconomics focuses on the behaviour of firms.
  3. microeconomics concentrates on the behaviour of individual consumers and firms while macroeconomics focuses on the performance of the entire economy.
  4. microeconomics explores the causes of inflation while macroeconomics focuses on the causes of unemployment.

Question 5

Which of the following is most likely a topic of discussion in macroeconomics?

  1. an increase in the price of a hamburger
  2. a decrease in the production of DVD players by a consumer electronics company
  3. an increase in the wage rate paid to automobile workers
  4. a decrease in the unemployment rate

Question 6

Attending college is a case where the ________________ exceeds the monetary cost.

  1. budget constraint
  2. marginal analysis
  3. opportunity cost
  4. marginal utility

Question 7

Most real-world choices aren’t about getting all of one thing or another; instead, most choices involve _________________, which includes comparing the benefits and costs of choosing a little more or a little less of a good.

  1. utility
  2. opportunity cost
  3. benefit analysis
  4. marginal analysis

Question 8

The law of ____________________________ explains why people and societies rarely make all-or-nothing choices.

  1. consumption
  2. marginal analysis
  3. diminishing marginal utility
  4. utility

Question 9

Also called the opportunity set—a diagram which shows what choices are possible—which of the following is the model that economists use to illustrate the process of individual choice in a situation of scarcity?

  1. consumption set
  2. budget constraint
  3. original budget
  4. income cap

Question 10

Scarcity implies that:

  1. consumers would be willing to purchase the same quantity of a good at a higher price.
  2. it is impossible to completely fulfill the unlimited human desirefor goods and services with the limited resources available.
  3. at the current market price, consumers are willing to purchase more of a good than suppliers are willing to produce.
  4. consumers cannot afford the goods and services available

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UOP MKT 571 Final Exam

  1. A fundamental and distinctive mode of expression that appears in a field of human endeavor is called a __________.

style

theme

trend

pattern

  1. A firm should use undifferentiated marketing to promote its products when:

the market shows several natural segments.

it wants to appeal to multiple market segments

it wants to customize its products for each consumer.

all consumers have the same wants and preferences.

  1. The marketing department of Style Wheel Inc., a manufacturer of luxury cars, initiates intensive marketing efforts prior to launching a new model. Three months into the launch of the new model, the department decides to assess the short-term effects of its marketing activities. Which of the following is a reliable measure of performance for this purpose?

Perceived quality

Market share

Customer awareness

Shareholder value

  1. ___________ the first step a firm should take while setting the price for a product.

Determining demand

Selecting the pricing objective

Selecting a pricing method

Estimating cost

  1. Business markets differ from consumer markets in that:

in business markets, purchasing is often executed through intermediaries.

the total demand for many goods and services in business markets is elastic.

buying decisions are subject to multiple influences.

in business markets, a marked typically deals with several smaller buyers.

  1. Which of the following describes the term product system?

It is a set of variants that are developed for a single product.

It is a group of products that perform a similar function and belong to a single product class.

It refers to a set of products available only to high-income consumers.

It refers to a set of different but related items that operate in a compatible manner.

  1. The width of a company’s product mix refers to:

the extent to which the different product lines in the mix are related in terms of end use.

the number of variants offered for each product in a product line.

the number of different product lines carried by the company.

the total number of items in the product mix.

  1. C-level executives. Nowadays, a __________ is being appointed by many firms as C-level executives.

chief marketing officer

finance manager

chief information officer

marketing manager

  1. In which of the following stages of a product life cycle are profits nonexistent?

Introduction

Maturity

decline

Growth

  1. Which of the following statements is true?

Their influence on purchase is significant.

Their effectiveness derives from individualized presentation and feedback.

They are often less effective than mass communication channels.

They include public relations, advertising and sales promotions.

  1. _______________ to the capacity to satisfy humanity’s needs without harming future generations.

Profitability

Sustainability

Accountability

Durability

  1. Fashion Vista Designers, a firm that sells designer clothes, has outlets in four countries. In each country, it offers the climatic conditions of the country and match the cultural sensibilities of the local population. The marketing department of Fashion Vista often releases advertisements that show regional celebrities endorsing the company’s products. In this scenario, which of the following types of market segmentation does Fashion Vista employ?

Geographic segmentation

Psychographic segmentation

Demographic segmentation

Behavioral segmentation

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  1. Which of the following is a difference between business markets and consumer markets?

In business markets, buyers usually purchase products through intermediaries, while in consumer markets, buyers usually purchase products directly from manufacturers.

Suppliers in business markets are often expected to tailor their products to suit the requirements of individual business customers.

In business markets, the total demand for goods and services is affected by price changes, whereas in consumer markets, the total demand for goods and services is not affected by price changes.

Purchasing decisions are made by the end user and purchasing decisions are made by a buying committee.

  1. Which of the following measures reflects the short-term results of a firm’s marketing efforts?

Perceived quality

Customer awareness

Sales turnover

Market share

  1. _________ refers to the activity of designing a company’s product and image so that they occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market

targeting

segmentation

Positioning

Customization

  1. __________ the process of maximizing customer loyalty by cautiously handling detailed information about customers and all customer touch points.

Product modification

Customer cloning

Customer relationship management

Enterprise resource planning

  1. The __________ encompasses the engaged engaged in producing, distributing, and promoting a product or a service.

legal environment

demographic environment

natural environment

task environment

  1. __________ divides the market into units looking for nations, states, regions, cities, or neighborhoods.

Geographic segmentation

Behavioral segmentation

Demographic segmentation

Psychographic segmentation

  1. In the context of the value chain, __________ is a primary activity that involves bringing into the business.

operations

inbound logistics

technology development

marketing

  1. __________ refers to a marketing strategy in which a firm tries to cater to all customer groups with all the products they might require

Multiple segment specialization

Single-segment concentration

Individual marketing

Full market coverage

  1. Entities that assist in the distribution process of a product do not take __________.

agents

merchants

jobbers

facilitators

  1. Which of the following statements is true of a sharing economy?

An organization’s trust and reputation have a role in determining its place in a sharing economy.

A sharing economy is usually the result of two activities, harvesting and divesting.

Self-policing mechanisms are typically absent in most platforms that are part of a sharing-related business.

In a sharing economy, in individual experiences the benefits of being both a consumer and a producer.

  1. Which of the following statements is true of fads?

They usually satisfy a strong customer need.

They tend to win over only a limited following.

They have a long acceptance cycle.

They last for several generations.

  1. The ___________releases to the core business process in which an organization researches, develops, and introduces novel, high-quality products quickly and within the firm’s budget.

customer acquisition process

customer relationship management process

new-offering realization process

fulfillment management process

  1. When marketers combine an existing brand with a new brand, the product is called a __________.

sub-brand

parent brand

master brand

family brand

  1. __________ is a period in a typical product life cycle characterized by rapid market acceptance and significant profit improvement.

Introduction

Growth

decline

Maturity

  1. __________ seeks to create brand awareness among consumers and communicate about new products or new features of existing products.

Informative advertising

Reinforcement advertising

Reminder advertising

Persuasive advertising

  1. A customer-focused __________ presents a strong, convincing reason why the target market should be a product or service.

value proposition

value network

project objective

mission statement

  1. A company that interacts with its customers to get product ideas should:

engage the right customers in the right way.

allow all its customers to participate in the product design process.

focus solely on its lead users.

prohibit customers from innovating products without their consent.

  1.  __________ is one of the methods used to develop ideas for a new product in which each feature of an existing product is noted and modified.

Attribute listing

Morphological analysis

Mind mapping

Reverse-assumption analysis

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NUR3826 Week 4 Final Exam

Question 1

A nurse who has an obvious physical disability applies for a staff nurse position. Which question, asked by the nurse recruiter, is legal?

“How long have you been disabled?”

“How does your disability affect your life?”

“Are you able to fulfill the requirements of this job?”

“Has your condition stabilized, or do you foresee it getting worse with time?”

Question 2

What is the basic purpose of the state board of nursing?

To ensure that all practicing nurses are competent

To restrict nursing practice through regulations

To ensure that all schools of nursing seek national accreditation

To establish a means of protecting the public at large

Question 3

A nurse brings suit against the hospital after being terminated for excessive absenteeism. Who is the defendant in this lawsuit?

The nurse bringing the suit

The nurse’s attorney

The hospital

The hospital’s attorney

Question 4

Which of the following principles underlies the actions of all health care providers and assures that those actions will meet or exceed standards of care?

Veracity

Maleficence

Beneficence

Autonomy

Question 5

What is the nurse’s legal duty with regard to implementing a physician’s order?

The nurse should follow the order unless the nurse believes some other course of action would be better.

The nurse should follow the order unless the nurse has reason to believe that the patient could come to harm if the order is followed.

The nurse should review each order with the physician and then follow the order.

The nurse should question every order with the physician, since physicians are only human.

Question 6

Which patient incident should be addressed because it is the primary cause of action in lawsuits against long-term care facilities?

Inadequate resident nutrition

Resident falls

Medication errors

Abuse of residents

Question 7

Ethical theories that derive norms and rules from the duties human beings owe to each other fall under the broad classification of:

Teleological theories.

Deontological theories.

Utilitarian theories.

Situational ethics.

Question 8

Which of the following actions is a requirement of the standard of care when it comes to technology and equipment in nursing practice?

Select and properly use equipment within health care settings.

Clean and repair equipment so that it can be readily used.

Modify equipment or improvise as needed in clinical settings.

Notify the FDA is equipment is not working properly.

Question 9

Students do not need to be licensed to practice nursing actions because:

They practice on their instructors’ licenses.

They practice as an exception to the licensure requirement.

They have a lower standard of care than do licensed nurses.

Clinical contracts preclude the need for licenses.

Question 10

A nurse’s neighbor routinely calls and asks for advice regarding health issues. What should the nurse do about these calls?

Tell the neighbor that the nurse is not legally able to give health advice outside the work environment.

Be certain that any advice given reflects both nursing and community standards.

Charge the neighbor a flat fee of $25 for each call.

Tell the neighbor that nurses are not educationally prepared to give health advice.

Question 11

When one delegates tasks to another, accountability for that task:

Is transferred to the person performing the task.

Is retained by the person who transfers the task.

Is held jointly by the person transferring the task and the person performing the task.

Can be imputed to either the person performing the task or the person transferring performance of the task.

Question 12

When giving health-related advice, the nurse can avoid liability if the advice reflects:

A solid medical diagnosis.

Nursing and community standards.

A quick assessment and treatment recommendations.

There is no way to avoid liability when giving advice.

Question 13

The overall goal of American antitrust laws is to:

Prevent competition while creating efficient markets.

Promote competition while creating efficient markets.

Promote competition without affecting market practices.

Prevent competition without affecting market practices.

Question 14

The single most critical factor in determining whether a particular nurse acted with reasonable care in a given situation is:

The number of years the nurse has practiced as a professional.

The experience the nurse has in a particular clinical setting.

The ability of the nurse to perform according to his or her job description.

How the nurse’s conduct compared to the conduct of other nurses with similar backgrounds and experience.

Question 15

Persons who are qualified under the Americans with Disabilities Act include:

Persons who have gender identity disorders and sexual behavior disorders.

Persons who are bisexual and homosexual.

Persons who are currently using illegal drugs.

Persons who are recovering or rehabilitated alcoholics.

Question 16

When the nurse manager transfers full responsibility for the performance of a task without transferring the accountability for the ultimate outcome, the task has been:

Regulated.

Supervised

Delegated.

Retained.

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Question 17

Consent, once validly given by a competent adult patient:

May not be revoked.

May be revoked only in writing if the original consent was written.

May be revoked at any time prior to the procedure or treatment being implemented.

May be revoked only if a second procedure supersedes the first procedure.

Question 18

Nurses in which health care settings are required to comply with the Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990?

Solely in formal institutional settings, such as hospitals.

In all health care settings except home health care settings.

In all health care settings, including home health care settings, if federal funds are received.

In home health care settings only if they have a validly executed advanced directive when care is first rendered.

Question 19

A nurse is caring for a 45-year-old patient who reveals that recent injuries are a result of domestic violence. The patient begs the nurse not to “tell anyone.” What action, taken by the nurse, is correct?

Tell the patient that the law requires reporting this incident.

Promise the patient the information will not be shared.

Talk with the patient about the reason for secrecy.

Report the revelation to the charge nurse immediately.

Question 20

The number of states that now have elder abuse laws is:

40

45

48

50

Question 21

Which of the following best describes the term “Telehealth”?

Transmission of information from one site to another.

Delivery of health care through a telecommunications system.

Transmission of sounds and images between two or more sites.

Combination of robotics and virtual reality to allow treatment modalities in distant sites.

Question 22

Apparent consent occurs when the patient:

Voluntarily signs a consent form for an invasive procedure.

Orally agrees to have an invasive procedure performed.

Allows a family member to sign the informed consent form for him or her.

Shows by his or her conduct that he or she agrees to the treatment.

Question 23

In passing the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, Congress attempted to combine the two legal concepts of:

Disability and the right to work.

Disability and equality.

Disability and autonomy.

Disability and fairness.

Question 24

A nurse, while under a general employment contract with a hospital, is subject to the right to direct and control the details of his or her work by a second entity. Such a nurse would be said to be acting as a (an):

Dual servant.

Borrowed servant.

Independent contractor.

Agent of the principal.

Question 25

Internal sources for determining standards of care include:

Hospital policy and procedure manuals.

Professional journals and nursing texts.

Previous and relevant court cases.

State standards of care as defined by the state board of nursing.

Question 26

The defendant in a lawsuit is the party:

Bringing the lawsuit against another.

Who was injured by the nurse or health care provider.

Who is answering a complaint brought against him or her.

Who is the health care institution in the case.

Question 27

One of the most important state legislative acts in the area of community health nursing is the:

State nurse practice act.

State Medicaid law.

State family consent doctrine.

State reporting statute.

Question 28

Which advanced nurse practitioner role is authorized by nurse practice acts, medical practice acts, and allied health laws?

Nurse anesthetist

Nurse midwife

Family nurse practitioner

Clinical nurse specialist

Question 29

Since unlicensed personnel are not licensed by the state in their own right, they may perform delegated tasks because:

They practice on the license of the professional delegating the task.

They are sanctioned by the American Hospital Association as an exception to the requirement for licensure.

They work under the auspices and licensure of the institution, not the professional nurse.

They are sanctioned by the state nurse practice act as an exception to the requirement for licensure.

Question 30

When nurses assist patients to understand their own value system and make choices consistent with those values, the approach to advocacy is said to be the:

Rights protection model.

Autonomy model.

Values-based decision model.

Patient advocate model.

Question 31

The main purpose of documentation is to:

Communicate the patient’s condition to all members of the health care team.

Record patient information for future research studies.

Verify dates of patients’ admissions to health care institutions.

Ensure that all charges are validly documented and assessed to the patient for collection from third-party payers.

Question 32

What is the most significant professional qualification necessary for a nurse who practices as a school nurse?

The nurse’s ability to work closely with school officials.

The nurse’s ability to properly counsel students about medical concerns.

The nurse’s ability to exercise independent judgment in emergency situations.

The nurse’s ability to effectively teach students about their health and wellness.

Question 33

The functions of risk management include all of the following except:

Defining situations that place the entity at some financial risk.

Intervening in and investigating potential risks that exist in the health care setting.

Identifying opportunities for improving patient care.

Identifying opportunities and funding for patient research.

Question 34

The legal guide to the practice of registered nursing is:

ANA Code of Ethics.

Nightingale Pledge.

State Nurse Practice Act.

Nurse’s Bill of Rights.

Question 35

When a nurse manager assists an employee in deciding about the employee’s future career and possible options available to him or her, the manager is most likely following the ethical principle of:

Justice

Fidelity

Autonomy

Paternalism

Question 36

The standard of care under Good Samaritan laws is usually the:

Standard of the reasonably prudent patient.

Emergency care standard.

Disaster care standard.

Standard of the prudent hospital-based staff nurse.

Question 37

The court found a nurse manager liable for failure to warn. Which option reflects a failure to warn scenario?

The nurse manager did not adequately supervise a newly hired nurse who had not practiced nursing in five years.

The nurse manager did not tell a potential employer that a former employee was asked to resign for incompetence.

The nurse manager did not advise a newly hired nurse that continuing education was an annual requirement for promotion.

The nurse manager did not notify the physician regarding worsening of a patient’s respiratory status.

Question 38

One of the earliest needs for the EMTALA was seen as the need to prevent:

Patients being turned away from clinics because of inability to pay for services.

Health maintenance organizations from making a profit by providing substandard care.

Patients being turned away from emergency centers based on inability to pay for services.

Illegal aliens from receiving free services in the United States.

Question 39

Which group or person has authority to write statutory law such as nurse practice acts?

State legislatures

State boards of nursing

State governors

State nursing associations

Question 40

The doctrine of personal liability is a rule that:

Protects nurses against liability for malpractice.

Holds everyone responsible for his or her own negligent conduct.

Makes some persons responsible for the actions of others.

Ensures that no one has liability in certain legal actions.

Question 41

The statute of limitations for a lawsuit:

Defines events that will not be allowed to be discussed at trial.

Defines the period of time in which a lawsuit may be filed.

Is suspended for minors in all states until they become 18 years of age.

Limits the number of plaintiffs and defendants in any given lawsuit.

Question 42

By passing the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act, Congress:

Established the right of all Americans to have health insurance.

Established the right of access to medical care, regardless of ability to pay.

Established the right of access to medical care, dependent upon the ability to pay.

Set into motion a socialized medical plan for all Americans.

Question 43

Delegation has been a concept used in nursing:

Since the 1990s.

Since the early 1970s.

Since the mid-1950s.

Throughout all of nursing’s history.

Question 44

A confused patient frequently calls out for “help” throughout the shift. When nursing staff respond to the call, the patient is unable to explain what is needed. What action should be taken by the nurse?

Continue to respond and attempt to reorient the patient.

Move the call bell out of the patient’s reach to deter erroneous calls.

Restrain the patient in soft wrist restraints until the physician can be reached.

Chemically restrain the patient with a mild sedative so he/she will sleep.

Question 45

A nurse has decided to obtain individual professional liability insurance. In general, which type of insurance is best for most nurses?

Claims-made

Certificate-based

Occurrence-based

Employer-sponsored

Question 46

A patient on the medical/surgical unit became confused and dangerous to himself and others in the setting, restraints were applied, and the patient was confined to bed. The nurse’s best defense for applying the restraints would be:

Consent.

Self-defense.

Necessity.

Privilege.

Question 47

The standard of care of the nursing student is:

Greater than that of the RN.

Less than that of the RN.

The same as that of the RN.

Not comparable to the standard of the RN.

Question 48

A school nurse negligently administered an overdose of medication to a student, causing the student to suffer a severe reaction that necessitated hospitalization. Should a lawsuit result from this case, the nurse would be held to what standard?

The reasonably prudent school nurse

The reasonably prudent pediatric nurse

The reasonably prudent general duty hospital nurse

The reasonably prudent advanced nurse practitioner

Question 49

Discrimination against which group of persons necessitated the Americans with Disabilities Act?

The increasing population of older Americans

Those returning from war with orthopedic injuries

The increasing numbers of people injured in motor vehicle accidents

Those living with HIV/AIDS

Question 50

External sources for determining standards of care include:

Hospital policy and procedure manuals.

Professional journals and nursing texts.

The individual nurse’s experience and education.

The individual nurse’s job description.

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Kaplan MN580 Midterm Exam 2018

Question 1

When advising a patient about the influenza nasal spray vaccine, the NP considers the following:

Question options:

1) Its use is acceptable during pregnancy.

2) Its use is limited to children younger than 6 years.

3) It contains live, attenuated virus.

4) This is the preferred method of influenza protection in the presence of airway disease.

Question 2

Which of the following is true about the MMR vaccine?

Question options:

1) This vaccine contains live virus.

2) Its use is contraindicated in persons with a history of egg allergy.

3) Revaccination of an immune person is associated with risk of allergic reaction.

4) One dose is recommended for young adults who have not been previously immunized.

Question 3

Which of the following is the most prudent first-line treatment choice for an otherwise well toddler with acute otitis media (AOM) who requires antimicrobial therapy?

Question options:

1) Ceftibuten.

2) Amoxicillin.

3) Cefuroxime.

4) Azithromycin.

Question 4

The most common causative organism of bronchiolitis is:

Question options:

1) haemophilus influenzae.

2) parainfluenza virus.

3) respiratory syncytial virus.

4) coxsackievirus.

Question 5

At which of the following ages in an infant’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about teething most helpful?

Question options:

1) 1–2 months.

2) 2–4 months.

3) 4–6 months.

4) 8–10 months.

Question 6

A young child should use a rear-facing car seat until at least age:

Question options:

1) 12 months.

2) 18 months.

3) 24 months.

4) 30 months.

Question 7 1 / 2 points

Risk factors for dyslipidemia in children include which of the following? Select all that apply.

Question options:

1) Blood pressure at the 70th to 80th percentile for age.

2) Breastfeeding into the toddler years.

3) Family history of lipid abnormalities.

4) Family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Question 8

Which of the following laboratory tests can identify the causative organism of bronchiolitis?

Question options:

1) Nasal washing antigen test.

2) Antibody test via blood sample.

3) Urine culture.

4) A laboratory test is not available.

Question 9

Physical examination findings in otitis externa include:

Question options:

1) tympanic membrane immobility.

2) increased ear pain with tragus palpation.

3) tympanic membrane erythema.

4) tympanic membrane bullae.

Question 10

Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?

Question options:

1) Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7 to 10 days.

2) Mild midfacial fullness and tenderness.

3) Preauricular lymphadenopathy.

4) Marked eyelid edema.

Question 11

Aortic stenosis in a 15-year-old male is most likely:

Question options:

1) a sequela of rheumatic fever.

2) a result of a congenital defect.

3) calcific in nature.

4) found with atrial septal defect.

Question 12

Which of the following do you expect to find in an examination of a 2-week-old infant?

Question options:

1) A visual preference for the human face.

2) A preference for low-pitched voices.

3) Indifference to the cry of other neonates.

4) Poorly developed sense of smell.

Question 13

An 18-year-old woman has a chief complaint of a “sore throat and swollen glands” for the past 3 days. Her physical examination includes a temperature of 101° F (38. 3° C), exudative pharyngitis, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Right and left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness is absent. The most likely diagnosis is:

Question options:

1) streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis.

2) infectious mononucleosis.

3) viral pharyngitis.

4) vincent angina.

Question 14

At which of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about infant sleep position most helpful?

Question options:

1) Birth.

2) 2 weeks.

3) 2 months.

4) 4 months.

Question 15

With regard to seasonal influenza prevention in well children, the NP considers that:

Question options:

1) compared with school-aged children, younger children (? 24 months old) have an increased risk of seasonal influenza-related hospitalization.

2) a full adult dose of seasonal influenza vaccine should be given starting at age 4 years.

3) the use of the seasonal influenza vaccine in well children is discouraged.

4) widespread use of the vaccine is likely to increase the risk of eczema and antibiotic allergies.

Question 16

Rebound tenderness is best described as abdominal pain that worsens with:

Question options:

1) light palpation at the site of the discomfort.

2) release of deep palpation at the site of the discomfort.

3) palpation on the contralateral side of the abdomen.

4) deep palpation at the site of the discomfort.

Question 17

A Still murmur:

Question options:

1) is heard in the presence of cardiac pathology.

2) has a humming or vibratory quality.

3) is a reason for denying sports participation clearance.

4) can become louder when the patient is standing.

Question 18

Common causative organisms of acute suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the following except:

Question options:

1) staphylococcus aureus.

2) haemophilus influenzae.

3) streptococcus pneumoniae.

4) pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Question 19

Which of the following imaging studies potentially exposes the patient being evaluated for abdominal pain to the lowest ionizing radiation burden?

Question options:

1) Ultrasound.

2) Barium enema.

3) CT scan.

4) Abdominal flat plate.

Question 20

At which age is a child at greatest risk of death from pertussis?

Question options:

1) <1 year.

2) 2–4 years.

3) 5–10 years.

4) >10 years.

Question 21

A healthy 3-year-old child is in your office for well-child care. You expect this child to be able to:

Question options:

1) name five colors.

2) alternate feet when climbing stairs.

3) speak in two-word phrases.

4) tie shoelaces.

Question 22

Treatment options in acute and recurrent allergic conjunctivitis include all of the following except:

Question options:

1) cromolyn ophthalmic drops.

2) oral antihistamines.

3) ophthalmological antihistamines.

4) corticosteroid ophthalmic drops.

Question 23

Rectal bleeding associated with anal fissure is usually described by the patient as:

Question options:

1) drops of blood noticed when wiping.

2) dark brown to black in color and mixed in with normal-appearing stool.

3) a large amount of brisk red bleeding.

4) significant blood clots and mucus mixed with stool.

Question 24

Concerning the MMR vaccine, which of the following is true?

Question options:

1) The link between use of MMR vaccine and childhood autism has been firmly established.

2) There is no credible scientific evidence that MMR use increases the risk of autism.

3) The use of the combined vaccine is associated with increased autism risk, but giving the vaccine’s three components as separate vaccines minimizes this risk.

4) The vaccine contains thimerosal, a mercury derivative.

Question 25

You are examining an 18-year-old man who is seeking a sports clearance physical examination. You note a mid-systolic murmur that gets louder when he stands. This may represent:

Question options:

1) aortic stenosis.

2) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

3) a physiologic murmur.

4) a Still’s murmur.

Question 26

Which of the following statements is correct about the varicella vaccine?

Question options:

1) This vaccine contains killed varicella-zoster virus (VZV).

2) A short febrile illness is common during the first days after vaccination.

3) Children should have a varicella titer drawn before receiving the vaccine.

4) Rarely, mild cases of chickenpox have been reported in immunized patients.

Question 27

A healthy 6-year-old girl presents for care. Her parents request that she receive vaccination for influenza and report that she has not received this vaccine in the past. How many doses of influenza vaccine should she receive this flu season?

Question options:

1) 1.

2) 2.

3) 3.

4) 4.

Question 28

At which of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about toilet-training readiness most helpful?

Question options:

1) 12 months.

2) 15 months.

3) 18 months.

4) 24 months.

Question 29

The murmur of atrial septal defect is usually:

Question options:

1) found in children with symptoms of cardiac disease.

2) first found on a 2–6-month well-baby examination.

3) found with mitral valve prolapse.

4) presystolic in timing.

Question 30

You are examining an 18-month-old boy who is not speaking any discernible words. Mom tells you he has not said “mama or dada” yet or babbled or smiled responsively. You:

Question options:

1) encourage the mother to enroll her son in daycare to increase his socialization.

2) conduct further evaluation of milestone attainment.

3) reassure the parent that delayed speech is common in boys.

4) order audiogram and tympanometry.

Question 31

Treatment options for streptococcal pharyngitis for a patient with penicillin allergy include all of the following except:

Question options:

1) azithromycin.

2) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

3) clarithromycin.

4) clindamycin.

Question 32

Which of the following is one of the more common sources of hepatitis A infection in the United States?

Question options:

1) Receiving blood products.

2) Ingestion of raw shellfish.

3) Drinking municipally sourced tap water drinking water.

4) Exposure to fecally contaminated food.

Question 33

Juice intake is acceptable in children 6 months and older per which of the following recommendations? Select all that apply.

Question options:

1) The juice is mixed in small amounts to flavor water.

2) Only 100% juice is used.

3) Juice replaces no more than one serving of milk.

4) The juice is consumed in the morning with breakfast.

5) No more than 6 oz. (177 mL) per day is recommended for children 6 months to 5 years.

Question 34

Treatment of viral conjunctivitis can include:

Question options:

1) moxifloxacin ophthalmic drops.

2) polymyxin B ophthalmic drops.

3) oral acyclovir.

4) no antibiotic therapy needed.

Question 35 1 / 2 points

Which of the following benchmarks indicate normal development by a healthy child born at term who is now 12 months of age? Select all that apply.

Question options:

1) Talking in two-word sentences.

2) Pointing to a desired object.

3) Reaching for a desired object.

4) Walking backward.

 

COM 539 Final Exam Guide (New, 2018)

  1. Relative to Americans, Canadians are more likely to be:

Happy and casual

Educated and informal

Bilingual and formal

Sociable and casual

  1. Which of the following is an acceptable method of negotiating the price objection?

Apologize for the product’s high price

Clarify the link between price and quality

Make price the focal point of your presentation

Focus on an individual product feature

  1. John Bieland, the equipment buyer for Great Lakes Manufacturing, purchased two large riveting machines from Hoseke Corporation’s sales representative, Lindell Ross. Because of a clerical error, the machines shipped a day later than scheduled, which put the delivery truck in the middle of a blizzard that shut down roads for several days. By the time the machines were delivered by Hoseke Corporation, they were a full week late. John Bieland sends an email to Lindell, cc’ing the CEOs of Great Lakes Manufacturing and Hoseke Corporation, expressing his dissatisfaction. What should Lindell offer to John to rectify the situation?

Lindell should discount any further purchases by half.

Lindell should refund John’s money.

Lindell should send John 2 new machines

Lindell should consult with John to find out what would help him regain trust in Lindell and Hoseke Corporation.

  1. Managing an organization’s personal selling function to include planning, implementing, and controlling the sales management process is called:

Sales control

Sales supervision

Sales leadership

Sales management

 

  1. With respect to the sales training process, after Brenda is done assessing the sales training needs, she should begin working on:

Performing sales training

Setting training objectives

Setting the sales training schedule

Evaluating training alternatives

  1. Developing a long-term relationship that focuses on solving the customer’s buying problems is referred to as:

consulting

transitioning

selling

partnering

  1. Steve is looking for a way to analyze customer data from his territory in an effort to identify new opportunities for sales revenue growth.  _______________ could help Steve with this task.

Deal analytics

Sales call auditing software

Cloud computing

Customer Relationship Management

  1. The primary goal of a ____________ presentation strategy is to influence the prospect’s beliefs, attitudes, or behavior, and to encourage buyer action.

persuasive

value

sensory

reminder

  1. Which of the following is true with respect to negotiations in foreign cultures?

Business rituals are largely the same across cultures

It is sometimes advisable to become antagonistic during negotiations

German buyers are unlikely to look you in the eye

Different cultural expectations can cause miscommunication

  1. The most widely used system for dividing responsibility is to organize the sales force on the basis of:

Products

Geography

Markets

Customers

  1. JoAnn has a website for her business.  She advertises her business on a number of online services, but she is not sure which ones are driving traffic to her website and which are not worth the money for advertising.  The best thing for JoAnn to do is:

All websites are public so there really is not a way to determine how people find a website.

Buy advertising everywhere

Only advertise 1 or 2 places and see if her sales go up or down

Use a service such as Google Analytics® to determine what websites and searches are bringing traffic to her site.

  1. The most likely reason for salespeople to make follow-up telephone calls to customers is that:

sales managers cannot make all the calls themselves

customer service representatives cannot be trusted to make the calls

the customer may place repeat orders during a phone call

follow-up calls are more efficient than e-mails

 

  1. By demonstrating effective listening, a salesperson is able to do which of the following?

Beat out the competition

Always uncover two or three explicit needs

Convince the buyer that the salesperson’s product is best

Help build the buyer’s trust

  1. “Smart” sales-force automation tools that analyze data on past customer behavior, cross-selling opportunities, and demographics to identify areas of opportunity are referred to collectively as?

Sales force automation

Cloud computing

Deal analytics

CRM

  1. A customer has a negative experience at your business and writes about this on a social media review site. What is the best thing for you to do?

Respond calmly and don’t take it personally.

Never admit responsibility and divert blame.

Ignore it.  People don’t take those sites seriously.

Post your reasons for not meeting their expectations.

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  1. The purpose of the follow-up communication between customer and salesperson is to express thanks for the order and to:

introduce related products

determine if the customer is satisfied

request referrals for other prospects

complete the call card form

  1. Andrew is a new sales rep for an industrial chemical supplier. Andrew makes it a point to never be late for an appointment and to always follow through immediately on promises he makes to his customers. These behaviors help Andrew build trust with his customers because they perceive him as:

dependable

likeable

competent

candid

  1. Steve is a salesperson who is responsible for selling only two of his company’s 15 products.  Steve is working in a _____________ sales force.

Specialized

Centralized

Geographic

Decentralized

  1. Which the following best describes the process of strategic prospecting?

The process of turning prospects into customers

The process of locating new customers

The process of generating leads

The process of identifying, qualifying, and prioritizing sales opportunities

  1. Conveying interest and understanding is the objective of which active listening component?

Evaluating

Sensing

Responding

Interpreting

  1. A series of creative improvements in the sales process that enhance the customer experience is known as:

value-added selling

relationship modeling

customer-oriented sales

transactional selling

  1. Which statement is most likely true about the communication-style model?

Emotion and dominance are the two primary dimensions.

It is based on 3 important dimensions of human behavior

It is based on a highly accurate self-rating system.

It is composed of 4 distinct quadrants.

  1. When a prospect has voiced an objection, it is most likely best for the salesperson to:

Deny the accuracy of the objection

Clarify the true nature of the problem

Suggest postponing the negotiations

Divert attention to a product feature

  1. In order for salespeople to be able to deliver complete comparative product information in sales presentations they must possess:

trust

competitor knowledge

adaptability

assertiveness

  1. Anthony is a purchasing agent for a hospital. One day the hospital receives a shipment from one of its suppliers with several items missing. Anthony calls the supplier and talks to a customer service representative who is very friendly and helpful. Anthony calls the supplier again the next day but talks to a different customer service representative. This customer service representative is not as friendly and not as helpful. Which of the following describes the problem the supplier has with customer service?

The first customer service agent set an unrealistic expectation

Customer service people are hard to train

The quality of the service provided is inconsistent across customer service agents

The second customer service agent needs more training

  1. Steve is a salesperson for XYZ Corporation. His territory includes 50 established accounts which he calls on regularly. Although Steve is supposed to allocate some time to prospecting, he’d rather call on his existing accounts. Like many salespeople in his position, Steve resists prospecting because:

His established accounts are too important.

He is afraid of rejection.

He’d rather use his spare time for paperwork.

He doesn’t believe it’s necessary.

  1. Working to reach an agreement that is mutually satisfactory to both buyer and seller is also called:

negotiation

practice theory

tactics

agreement

  1. When a customer service problem requires an apology, a salesperson should most likely:

Send a text message to the customer

Delegate the task to a customer service representative

Send a prompt email to the customer

Call the customer personally

  1. In order to better understand their own product’s position in the market place, salespeople need:

A high degree of competitor knowledge.

To be candid.

To be customer oriented.

A high degree of customer knowledge.

  1. You have a business that you want to set up on Facebook®. What is the best way to drive traffic to your business using Facebook?

Create a profile using the name of your business.

Facebook  does not have business options and only personal profiles are allowed.

Use a lot of hashtags with your business name.

Create a business/fan page.

 

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NR511 Midterm Exam 2018

Question

Question 1.Question : Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?

Creating a physician expert panel

Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence

Conducting an external review of a guideline

Developing evidence-based tables

Question 2.Question : African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

Inhaled corticosteroids

Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators

Leukotriene receptor agonists

Oral corticosteroids

Question 3.Question : Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?

The tumor size cannot be evaluated; the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes; and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.

The cancer is in situ; it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread cannot be evaluated otherwise.

The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.

The cancer is about 5 cm in size; nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated; and there is no evidence of distant spreading.

Question 4.Question : Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

Meclizine

Diphenhydramine

Diamox

Diamox

Promethazine

Question 5.Question : Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:

Filiform/digitate wart

Dysplastic cervical lesion

Condyloma acuminata

Koilocytosis

Question 6.Question : Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

Dementia

Alzheimer’s disease

Parkinson’s disease

Delirium

Question 7.Question : You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?

“Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”

“Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”

“Drive to the emergency room now.”

“Call 911.”

Question 8.Question : A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?

NSAIDs

Beets

Vitamin A

Red meat

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Question 9.Question : Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?

Fluid restriction

Hemodialysis 4 days a week

High-protein diet

Maintenance of blood pressure at 120/80

Question 10.Question : Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

Glaucoma

Increased sperm quality

Bladder cancer

Eczema

Question 11.Question : A chronic cough lasts longer than:

3 weeks

1 month

6 months

1 year

Question 12.Question : The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

Parkinson’s disease

Alzheimer’s disease

A CVA

Bell’s palsy

Question 13.Question : When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

Tension

Migraine

Cluster

Stress

Question 14.Question : Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?

African American men

Scandinavian men and women

Caucasian women

Asian men

Question 15.Question : The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:

Pharyngitis

Allergies

Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)

Perforation of the eardrum

Question 16.Question : Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:

Severe asthma

A common valvular lesion

Severe hypertension

A prosthetic heart valve

Question 17.Question : A 34-year-old patient was treated for a UTI and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?

Send a urine specimen for microscopy and evaluate for fungal colonies.

Increase the dose of antibiotic.

Order a cytoscopy.

Order a different antibiotic.

Question 18.Question : Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.

A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.

A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.

The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 19.Question : Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?

It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone during pregnancy.

This condition only occurs on the face.

Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.

It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.

Question 20.Question : Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

“You must be under a lot of stress lately.”

“It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”

“The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”

“We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 21.Question : A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:

Stage 2 hypertension

Hypertensive

Normal in healthy older adults

Acceptable if the patient has DM

Question 22.Question : When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?

1 month

3 months

6 months

As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.

Question 23.Question : Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?

He should stop smoking today.

He should stop smoking tomorrow.

His quit date should be in 1 week.

He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.

Question 24.Question : When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

Spores

Leukocytes

Pseudohyphae

Epithelial cells

Question 25.Question : The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

No activity at all

A blank stare

Urine is usually voided involuntarily

The attack usually lasts several minutes

Question 26.Question : Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?

Permethrin cream

Lindane

Crotamiton lotion and cream

Ivermectin

Question 27.Question : The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?

Viral conjunctivitis

Keratoconjunctivitis

Bacterial conjunctivitis

Allergic conjunctivitis

Question 28.Question : Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

“Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”

“Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”

“Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”

“You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 29.Question : How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?

Every 3 months

Every 6 months

Annually

Whenever there is a problem

Question 30.Question : Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

Primary

Secondary

Tertiary

Question 31.Question : The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?

Repeat the test.

Refer to a nephrologist.

Measure the serum protein.

Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Question 32.Question : Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

CN V

CN VII

CN IX

CN X

Question 33.Question : Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?

Kidneys, ureter, bladder x-ray

Cystoscopy with biopsy

Magnetic resonance imaging

Urine tumor marker (NMP22)

Question 34.Question : The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:

Biopsy

Best practice

Boundary

Border irregularity

Question 35.Question : Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.

After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.

These persons may drive but never alone.

Question 36.Question : Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?

Greater than 30

Greater than 40

Greater than 50

Greater than 60

Question 37.Question : The most common cause of CAP is?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Legionella pneumoniae

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 38.Question : Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?

Serum calcium

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

Complete blood cell count

Question 39.Question : A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?

The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.

Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.

A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.

The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.

Question 40.Question : Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?

Concurrent vertigo or ataxia

Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane

If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment

All of the above

Question 41.Question : Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?

BUN and creatinine

Electrolytes

Creatinine clearance

Urinalysis

Question 42.Question : Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?

It is an old wives’ tale.

It is used as a last resort.

Salicylic acid is more effective.

It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.

Question 43.Question : What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?

Penicillin

Quinolone

Cephalosporin

Macrolide

Question 44.Question : Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?

Perforation of the tympanic membrane

Otosclerosis

Cholesteatoma

Presbycusis

Question 45.Question : Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”

An ulcer

A fissure

Lichenification

An excoriation

Question 46.Question : A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?

The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.

The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.

Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.

Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.

Question 47.Question : The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

IgA

IgE

IgG

IgM

Question 48.Question : A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?

Pancreatitis

Peptic ulcer disease

Diverticulitis

All of the above

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Question 49.Question : Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?

B-type natriuretic peptide

C-reactive protein

Serum albumin

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 50.Question : You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?

Baker phenomenon

Arnold reflex

Cough reflex

Tragus reflex

 

Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?

Western blot

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test

Viral load

Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

White blood cell count

Polymorphonuclear cells

C-reactive protein (CRP)

Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?

GABA

Acetylcholine

Dopamine

Serotonin

Question 4.Question : Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:

Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle

Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm

Inability to supinate and pronate the arm

Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance

Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?

The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.

The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.

When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.

Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

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Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

Decreased C-reactive protein

Hyperalbuminemia

Morning stiffness

Weight gain

Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?

Dogs

Cats

Humans

Rodents

Question 8.Question : A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods. She is pale and states  she can no longer exercise. Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?

Transvaginal ultrasound

Endometrial biopsy

MRI

Abdominal computed tomography scan

Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?

“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”

“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”

“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”

All of the above

Question 10.Question : A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3  months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?

Serum calcium

TSH

Electrolytes

Urine specific gravity

Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

Insulin

Metformin

Glucotrol

Precose

Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

An enlarged rubbery gland

A hard irregular gland

A tender gland

A boggy gland

Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?

Remove the insect with tweezers.

Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.

Sedate Eddie with diazepam.

Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”

Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?

Anemia of chronic disease

Sideroblastic anemia

Iron-deficiency anemia

Thalassemia

Question 15.Question : An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

Parkinson’s disease

Prostate cancer

All of the above

Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:

Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints

Rigid joints with diminished range of motion

Joint swelling and immobility on rising

A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub

Question 17.Question : A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?

Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.

Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.

Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or  prescribe a splint.

Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.

Question 18.Question : The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

1 month

3 months

6 months

12 months

Question 19.Question : A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

The scrotum will be dark.

The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.

The scrotum will appear milky white.

The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?

Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance

Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression

Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?

A favorable prognostic trend

Disease progression

The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s

medications

The eradication of the HIV

Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:

Erythema infectiosum

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Laterothoracic exanthem

Erythema migrans

Morbilli exanthem

Question 23.Question : You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:

Articular

Inflammatory

Nonarticular

A and B

Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?

1,200 mg/day

1,000 mg/day

1,300 mg/day

1,500 mg/day

Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?

Analysis of partner’s sperm

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Hysterosalpingogram

Estrogen level

Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

Superficial burns

Superficial partial-thickness burns

Deep partial-thickness burns

Full-thickness burns

Question 27.Question : A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Endometrial hyperplasia

Vagismus

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?

Two

Three

Four

Five

Question 29.Question : Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?

Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine

Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain

Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?

Testosterone level

Prostate-specific antigen

Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity

Prolactin level

Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?

“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”

“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”

“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”

“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”

Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

Osteoarthritis

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Rheumatoid arthritis

Sjögren’s syndrome

Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

Acetylcholine

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Dopamine

Serotonin

Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?

Refer to a urologist immediately.

Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.

Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.

Prescribe ibuprofen.

Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?

Prednisone

Metformin

Synthroid

Cephalexin

Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?

IV

Abdomen

Upper lateral thigh

Deltoid

Question 37.Question : It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is  especially true during which time period?

Before the initiation of treatment

1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment

When switching to a different medication

1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications

Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

Pregnancy

Pituitary dysfunction

Inadequate estrogen levels

Genetic disorders

Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?

Sertraline

Fluoxetine

Citoprolam

Imipramine

Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:

Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning

Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy

Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician

Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication

Question 41.Question : John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing  localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

Valgus stress test

McMurray circumduction test

Lachman test

Varus stress test

Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?

Pain

Nausea

Light-headedness

Palpitations

Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Endometriosis

Sexually transmitted infections

Ovarian cyst

Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?

Tick

Brown recluse spider

Wasp

Stinging caterpillar

Question 45.Question : Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equine compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?

Gastrocnemius weakness

A reduced or absent ankle reflex

Numbness in the lateral foot

Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?

Pregnancy test

Complete blood cell count

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Urine dip for protein

Question 47.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?

Ketoacidosis

Cirrhosis

Hypoglycemic episodes

All of the above

Question 48.Question : The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?

SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.

SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.

SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than

TCAs.

SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.

Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?

Autogenic

Autologous

Allogeneic

Syngeneic

Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?

Arsenic

Lead

Carbon monoxide

Strychnine

Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:

Autonomy and feeling valued by others

Exhilaration and productivity

Spirituality

Career success and material rewards

Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?

Overweight

Mild obesity

Moderate obesity

Morbid obesity

Question 53.Question : A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular selfexamination (TSE). Which of the following should be examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Testicular cancer

Inguinal hernia

Varicocele

All of the above

Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Radical orchidectomy

Lumpectomy

Radiation implants

All of the above

Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?

Chelation

Dialysis

Gastric lavage

Bowel irrigation

Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”

“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”

“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”

“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”

Question 57.Question : A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?

Fluconazole

Estrogen vaginal cream

Metronidazole

Doxycycline

Question 58.Question : The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?

“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”

“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”

“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”

“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”

Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?

A sprain

A strain

A partial fracture

A fracture

Question 60.Question : Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?

Heat cramps

Heat syncope

Heat exhaustion

Heat stroke

Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?

CAGE

SANE

SAD PERSONAS

DIGFAST

Question 62.Question : One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?

Bone

Synovium

Tendons

Fascia

Question 63.Question : After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?

A viral syndrome

Lyme disease

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Relapsing fever

Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

Sinus bradycardia

Atrial fibrillation

Supraventricular tachycardia

U waves

Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?

Pregnancy

Estrogen level

Progesterone level

LH level

Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

Elevated TSH

Normal TSH

Low TSH

Undetectable TSH

Question 67.Question : A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?

No treatment at this time

Diet and exercise for 6-week trial

Diet, exercise, and oral medication

Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin

Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?

Diabetes mellitus

Hypertension

Atherosclerosis

All of the above

Question 69.Question : Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel  syndrome?

Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families.  Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.

Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.

An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.

Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.

Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone

Doxycycline

Acyclovir

Metronidazole

Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

The goal of treat

NR511 Midterm Exam

NR511 Midterm Exam 2018

Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?

Western blot

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test

Viral load

Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

White blood cell count

Polymorphonuclear cells

C-reactive protein (CRP)

Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?

GABA

Acetylcholine

Dopamine

Serotonin

Need homework help? Click Here!

Question 4.Question : Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:

Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle

Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm

Inability to supinate and pronate the arm

Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance

Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?

The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.

The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.

When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.

Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

Decreased C-reactive protein

Hyperalbuminemia

Morning stiffness

Weight gain

Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?

Dogs

Cats

Humans

Rodents

Question 8.Question : A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods. She is pale and states  she can no longer exercise. Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?

Transvaginal ultrasound

Endometrial biopsy

MRI

Abdominal computed tomography scan

Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?

“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”

“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”

“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”

All of the above

Question 10.Question : A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3  months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?

Serum calcium

TSH

Electrolytes

Urine specific gravity

Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

Insulin

Metformin

Glucotrol

Precose

Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

An enlarged rubbery gland

A hard irregular gland

A tender gland

A boggy gland

Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?

Remove the insect with tweezers.

Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.

Sedate Eddie with diazepam.

Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”

Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?

Anemia of chronic disease

Sideroblastic anemia

Iron-deficiency anemia

Thalassemia

Question 15.Question : An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

Parkinson’s disease

Prostate cancer

All of the above

Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:

Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints

Rigid joints with diminished range of motion

Joint swelling and immobility on rising

A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub

Question 17.Question : A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?

Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.

Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.

Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or  prescribe a splint.

Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.

Question 18.Question : The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

1 month

3 months

6 months

12 months

Question 19.Question : A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

The scrotum will be dark.

The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.

The scrotum will appear milky white.

The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?

Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance

Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression

Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?

A favorable prognostic trend

Disease progression

The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s

medications

The eradication of the HIV

Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:

Erythema infectiosum

Laterothoracic exanthem

Erythema migrans

Morbilli exanthem

Question 23.Question : You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:

Articular

Inflammatory

Nonarticular

A and B

Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?

1,200 mg/day

1,000 mg/day

1,300 mg/day

1,500 mg/day

Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?

Analysis of partner’s sperm

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Hysterosalpingogram

Estrogen level

Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

Superficial burns

Superficial partial-thickness burns

Deep partial-thickness burns

Full-thickness burns

Question 27.Question : A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Endometrial hyperplasia

Vagismus

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?

Two

Three

Four

Five

Question 29.Question : Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?

Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine

Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain

Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?

Testosterone level

Prostate-specific antigen

Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity

Prolactin level

Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?

“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”

“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”

“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”

“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”

Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

Osteoarthritis

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Rheumatoid arthritis

Sjögren’s syndrome

Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

Acetylcholine

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Dopamine

Serotonin

Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?

Refer to a urologist immediately.

Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.

Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.

Prescribe ibuprofen.

Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?

Prednisone

Metformin

Synthroid

Cephalexin

Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?

IV

Abdomen

Upper lateral thigh

Deltoid

Question 37.Question : It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is  especially true during which time period?

Before the initiation of treatment

1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment

When switching to a different medication

1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications

Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

Pregnancy

Pituitary dysfunction

Inadequate estrogen levels

Genetic disorders

Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?

Sertraline

Fluoxetine

Citoprolam

Imipramine

Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:

Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning

Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy

Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician

Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication

Question 41.Question : John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing  localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

Valgus stress test

McMurray circumduction test

Lachman test

Varus stress test

Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?

Pain

Nausea

Light-headedness

Palpitations

Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Endometriosis

Sexually transmitted infections

Ovarian cyst

Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?

Tick

Brown recluse spider

Wasp

Stinging caterpillar

Question 45.Question : Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equine compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?

Gastrocnemius weakness

A reduced or absent ankle reflex

Numbness in the lateral foot

Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?

Pregnancy test

Complete blood cell count

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Urine dip for protein

Question 47.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?

Ketoacidosis

Cirrhosis

Hypoglycemic episodes

All of the above

Question 48.Question : The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?

SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.

SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.

SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than

TCAs.

SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.

Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?

Autogenic

Autologous

Allogeneic

Syngeneic

Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?

Arsenic

Lead

Carbon monoxide

Strychnine

Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:

Autonomy and feeling valued by others

Exhilaration and productivity

Spirituality

Career success and material rewards

Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?

Overweight

Mild obesity

Moderate obesity

Morbid obesity

Question 53.Question : A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular selfexamination (TSE). Which of the following should be examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Testicular cancer

Inguinal hernia

Varicocele

All of the above

Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Radical orchidectomy

Lumpectomy

Radiation implants

All of the above

Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?

Chelation

Dialysis

Gastric lavage

Bowel irrigation

Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”

“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”

“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”

“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”

Question 57.Question : A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?

Fluconazole

Estrogen vaginal cream

Metronidazole

Doxycycline

Question 58.Question : The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?

“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”

“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”

“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”

“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”

Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?

A sprain

A strain

A partial fracture

A fracture

Question 60.Question : Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?

Heat cramps

Heat syncope

Heat exhaustion

Heat stroke

Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?

CAGE

SANE

SAD PERSONAS

DIGFAST

Question 62.Question : One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?

Bone

Synovium

Tendons

Fascia

Question 63.Question : After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?

A viral syndrome

Lyme disease

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Relapsing fever

Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

Sinus bradycardia

Atrial fibrillation

Supraventricular tachycardia

U waves

Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?

Pregnancy

Estrogen level

Progesterone level

LH level

Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

Elevated TSH

Normal TSH

Low TSH

Undetectable TSH

Question 67.Question : A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?

No treatment at this time

Diet and exercise for 6-week trial

Diet, exercise, and oral medication

Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin

Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?

Diabetes mellitus

Hypertension

Atherosclerosis

All of the above

Question 69.Question : Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel  syndrome?

Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families.  Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.

Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.

An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.

Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.

Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone

Doxycycline

Acyclovir

Metronidazole

Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.

Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.

Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.

All of the above

Question 72.Question : Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?

Elevated uric acid level

Elevated blood urea nitrogen

Decreased urine pH

Decreased C-reactive protein

Question 73.Question : Which of the following data is indicative of testicular torsion?

Absent cremasteric reflex

Pain relieved on testicular elevation

Testicle very low in the scrotum

Swollen scrotum with “red dot sign”

Question 74.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?

Reduces postprandial blood glucose

Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

Reduces total cholesterol

All of the above

Question 75.Question : A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?

Pregnancy test

Pelvic ultrasound

Endometrial biopsy

Platelet count

Question 76.Question : What is the most common cause of generalized musculoskeletal pain in women ages 20 to 55?

Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)

Anemia

Fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS)

Sports-related injuries

Question 77.Question : If the international normalized ratio (INR) result is above the therapeutic range in a patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin, what might the clinician do?

Stop the warfarin for 1 week, and then repeat the INR.

Withhold one or more days of anticoagulant therapy.

Restart therapy at a lower dose immediately.

The prothrombin time and INR should be reevaluated within 1 month of the dosage adjustments.

Question 78.Question : A 32-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because she has been unable to get pregnant after 12 months of unprotected sex. In order to determine the cause of the infertility, the clinician should question her about which of these possible causes?

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Oral contraceptive use for 15 years

Early menarche

Diet high in soy protein

Question 79.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?

There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.

Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.

Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.

All of the above

Question 80.Question : The clinician should prescribe an antibiotic that covers which of these organisms for a patient with acute prostatitis?

Gram-positive cocci

Gram-negative cocci

Gram-positive bacillus

Gram-negative bacillus

Question 81.Question : Which household solution should be used to clean a bathroom if sharing with a friend who has HIV?

100% bleach

50% bleach and 50% vinegar

Nine parts H2O to one part bleach

The friend must have his or her own bathroom.

Question 82.Question : Sandra is 42 years old and has just been diagnosed with leukemia. She is complaining of bone and joint pain. Which type of leukemia is most likely the culprit?

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

Acute myelogenous leukemia

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Question 83.Question : Which of the following is identified as an eating disorder in which a person craves food substitutes, such as clay, ice chips, and cotton, and is considered an objective finding associated with severe iron deficiency?

Ferritin

Porter’s syndrome

Hypochromasia

Pica

Question 84.Question : The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?

High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4

Free T4 and serum calcium

Free T3 and T4

TSH and thyroxin antibodies

Question 85.Question : The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?

“As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”

“I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”

“My optometrist checks my eyes.”

“I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”

Question 86.Question : Triggering factors for acute exacerbations of which of the following conditions include exposure to ultraviolet (UV)-B and UV-A rays?

Rheumatoid arthritis

Scleroderma

SLE

Sjögren’s syndrome

Question 87.Question : Which of the following characteristics separates anaphylaxis from a vasovagal reaction?

Bradycardia

Extreme diaphoresis

Severe bronchoconstriction

Hypotension

Question 88.Question : Mr. Jackson is a 65-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis. The clinician has explained to Mr. Jackson that the goals for managing osteoarthritis include controlling pain, maximizing functional independence and mobility,

minimizing disability, and preserving quality of life. Mr. Jackson explains to the clinician that his first choice would be to use complementary therapies to control his condition and asks what therapies are most effective in treating osteoarthritis. What would be the most  appropriate response from the clinician?

“Complementary therapies should be considered only if surgical interventions are not successful.”

“I am unfamiliar with the available complementary therapies for osteoarthritis and prefer to discuss more mainstream treatments, such as NSAIDs and physical therapy, to manage your condition.”

“I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you. Complementary therapies, such as acupuncture, acupressure, and tai-chi, are being studied for use in the treatment of osteoarthritis and have shown promise when used with standard medical therapy.”

“It would be crazy to use complementary therapies to treat such a serious condition.”

Question 89.Question : One benefit of motivational interviewing (MI) is:

It assumes that ambivalence is a normal part of the change process.

It can be utilized during routine office visits.

It is a therapeutic technique which is not necessarily time intensive.

All are benefits of MI.

Question 90.Question : What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?

9%

18%

24%

36%

Question 91.Question : Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

2 weeks

1 month

3 months

6 months

Question 92.Question : Which statement about HIV postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for health-care workers is the most accurate?

PEP should be started within hours of exposure.

PEP should be started within 72 hours of exposure.

Renal and hepatic function tests should be done 6 weeks after beginning PEP.

PEP will prevent potential hepatitis C infection if present.

Question 93.Question : The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an xray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?

Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury

Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury

Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle

All of the above

Question 94.Question : A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

Rice

Carrots

Spinach

Potatoes

Question 95.Question : A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve?

CN II

CN III

CN IV

CN V

Question 96.Question : A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?

Pheochromocytoma

Hyperthyroidism

Cardiac arrhythmias

All of the above

Question 97.Question : Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?

Urinalysis

Gram stain of urethral discharge

Gram stain of urethral discharge

Complete blood cell count with differential

Ultrasound of the scrotum

Question 98.Question : BATHEing the patient refers to:

A technique used in primary care to get the patient to accept the need for psychological or psychiatric referral.

A technique used to facilitate cultural understandingc.

A technique used to perform psychotherapyd.

A technique that is a quick screen for psychiatric issues and interventions for psychological problems

 

 

 

 

 

Question 99. Question :BATHEing the patient is an advanced practice nursingintervention that allows the practitioner to:

Develop a therapeutic relationship without “owning” the patient’s problem

Conduct psychological counseling within the context of the primary care encounter

Focus on the “process” and not the assessment

Make the patient and family happier

 

Question 100. Question A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with abnormaluterine bleeding and pain during intercourse. The clinicianshould consider which of the following diagnoses? Leiomyoma

Pregnancy

Ovarian cancer

All of the above

 

MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam

MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam

Question

  1. During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient’s vestibule and expects to see the:

A ) urethral meatus and vaginal orifice.

  1. B) vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
  2. C) urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands.
  3. D) paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
  4. During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?
  5. A) Cervix
  6. B) Uterus
  7. C) Ovaries
  8. D) Fallopian tubes
  9. The uterus is usually positioned tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as:
  10. A) anteverted and anteflexed.
  11. B) retroverted and anteflexed.

C retroverted and retroflexed.

D)superiorverted and anteflexed.

  1. An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. The nurse notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. The nurse should use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The nurse should:
  2. A) use the Tanner’s table on the five stages of sexual development.
  3. B) describe her development and compare it with that of other girls her age.
  4. C) use Jacobsen’s table on expected development on the basis of height and weight data.
  5. D) reassure her that her development is within normal limits and should tell her not to worry about the next step.
  6. A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a checkup. The nurse reads on her chart that her cervix is softened and looks cyanotic. The nurse knows that the woman is exhibiting _____ sign and _____ sign.
  7. A) Tanner’s; Hegar’s
  8. B) Hegar’s; Goodell’s
  9. C) Chadwick’s; Hegar’s
  10. D) Goodell’s; Chadwick’s
  11. A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will hurt the fetus. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true?
  12. A) If intercourse is avoided, then the risk for infection is minimal.
  13. B) A thick mucus plug forms that protects the fetus from infection.
  14. C) The acidic pH of vaginal secretions promotes the growth of pathogenic bacteria.
  15. D) The mucus plug that forms in the cervical canal is a good medium for bacterial growth.
  16. The changes normally associated with menopause occur generally because the cells in the reproductive tract are:

A)aging.

B)becoming fibrous.

C)estrogen dependent.

D)able to respond to estrogen.

  1. The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which of these are changes associated with menopause?
  2. A) Uterine and ovarian atrophy along with thinning vaginal epithelium
  3. B) Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size
  4. C) Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions
  5. D) Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy
  6. A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? “A postmenopausal woman:
  7. A) is not at any greater risk for heart disease than a younger woman is.”
  8. B) should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions.”
  9. C) has only stopped menstruating; there really are no other significant changes with which she should be concerned.”
  10. D) is likely to have difficulty with sexual pleasure as a result of drastic changes in the female sexual response cycle.”
  11. A woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. The nurse should plan to begin the interview with the:
  12. A) menstrual history because it is generally nonthreatening.
  13. B) obstetric history because it is the most important information.
  14. C) urinary system history because there may be problems in this area as well.
  15. D) sexual history because it will build rapport to discuss this first.
  16. A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as gravida _____, para _____, AB _____.
  17. A) 2; 2; 1
  18. B) 3; 2; 0
  19. C) 3; 2; 1
  20. D) 3; 3; 1
  21. During the interview with a female patient, the nurse gathers data that indicate that the patient is perimenopausal. Which of these statements made by this patient leads to this conclusion?

A)”I have noticed that my muscles ache at night when I go to bed.”

  1. B) “I will be very happy when I can stop worrying about having a period.”
  2. C) “I have been noticing that I sweat a lot more than I used to, especially at night.”
  3. D) “I have only been pregnant twice, but both times I had breast tenderness as my first symptom.”
  4. A 50-year-old woman calls the clinic because she has noticed some changes in her body and breasts and wonders if they could be due to the hormone replacement therapy (HRT) she started 3 months ago. The nurse should tell her:
  5. A) “Hormone replacement therapy is at such a low dose that side effects are very unusual.”
  6. B) “Hormone replacement therapy has several side effects, including fluid retention, breast tenderness, and vaginal bleeding.”
  7. C) “It would be very unusual to have vaginal bleeding with hormone replacement therapy, and I suggest you come in to the clinic immediately to have this evaluated.”

D)”It sounds as if your dose of estrogen is too high; I think you may need to decrease the amount you are taking and then call back in a week.”

  1. A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she “wets herself a little.” She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is:
  2. A) dysuria.
  3. B) stress incontinence.
  4. C) hematuria.
  5. D) urge incontinence.
  6. During the interview a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse’s most appropriate response to this would be:
  7. A) “Oh, don’t worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal.”
  8. B) “Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?”
  9. C) “I’d like some information about the discharge. What color is it?”
  10. D) “Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?”
  11. A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, “Have you noticed:
  12. A) a change in your urination patterns?”
  13. B) any excessive vaginal bleeding?”
  14. C) any unusual vaginal discharge or itching?”
  15. D) any changes in your desire for intercourse?”
  16. Which statement would be most appropriate when the nurse is introducing the topic of sexual relationships during an interview?

A)”Now it is time to talk about your sexual history. When did you first have intercourse?”

  1. B) “Women often feel dissatisfied with their sexual relationships. Would it be okay to discuss this now?”
  2. C) “Often women have questions about their sexual relationship and how it affects their health. Do you have any questions?”
  3. D) “Most women your age have had more than one sexual partner. How many would you say you have had?”
  4. A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her history, the nurse should ask:
  5. A) “Do you have a history of heart murmurs?”
  6. B) “Will you be in a monogamous relationship?”
  7. C) “Have you thought this choice through carefully?”
  8. D) “If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?”
  9. A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first?
  10. A) Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics.
  11. B) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
  12. C) Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory disease—the most common cause of infertility.
  13. D) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert.
  14. A nurse is assessing a patient’s risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be:
  15. A) “You know that it’s important to use condoms for protection, right?”
  16. B) “Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?”
  17. C) “Do you have a sexually transmitted infection?”
  18. D) “You are aware of the dangers of unprotected sex, aren’t you?”
  19. When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening statement would be least threatening?
  20. A) “Do you have any questions about growing up?”
  21. B) “What has your mother told you about growing up?”
  22. C)  “When did you notice that your body was changing?”
  23. D) “I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you’ll feel?”
  24. When the nurse is discussing sexuality and sexual issues with adolescents, a permission statement helps to convey that it is normal to think or feel a certain way. Which of these is the best example of a permission statement?
  25. A) “It is okay that you have become sexually active.”
  26. B) “Often girls your age have questions about sexual activity. Have you any questions?”
  27. C) “If it is okay with you, I’d like to ask you some questions about your sexual history.”
  28. D) “Often girls your age engage in sexual activity. It is okay to tell me if you have had intercourse.”
  29. The nurse is preparing to interview a postmenopausal woman. Which of these statements is true with regard to the history of a postmenopausal woman?
  30. A) The nurse should ask a postmenopausal woman if she ever has vaginal bleeding.
  31. B) Once a woman reaches menopause, the nurse does not need to ask any further history questions.
  32. C) The nurse should screen for monthly breast tenderness.
  33. D) Postmenopausal women are not at risk for contracting sexually transmitted infections and thus these questions can be omitted.
  34. During the examination portion of a patient’s visit, she will be in lithotomy position. Which statement below reflects some things that the nurse can do to make this more comfortable for her?
  35. A) Ask her to place her hands and arms behind her head.
  36. B) Elevate her head and shoulders to maintain eye contact.
  37. C) Allow her to choose to have her feet in the stirrups or have them resting side by side on the edge of the table.
  38. D) Allow her to keep her buttocks about 6 inches from the edge of the table to prevent her from feeling as if she will fall off.
  39. An 18-year-old patient is having her first pelvic examination. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
  40. A) Invite her mother to be present during the examination.
  41. B) Avoid the lithotomy position this first time because it can be uncomfortable and embarrassing.
  42. C) Raise the head of the examination table and give her a mirror so that she can view the exam.
  43. D) Drape her fully, leaving the drape between her legs elevated to avoid embarrassing her with eye contact.
  44. The nurse has just completed an inspection of a nulliparous woman’s external genitalia. Which of these would be a description of a finding within normal limits?
  45. A) Redness of the labia majora
  46. B) Multiple nontender sebaceous cysts
  47. C) Discharge that is sticky and yellow-green
  48. D) Gaping and slightly shriveled labia majora
  49. The nurse is preparing for an internal genitalia examination of a woman. Which order of the examination is correct?
  50. A) Bimanual, speculum, rectovaginal
  51. B) Speculum, rectovaginal, bimanual
  52. C) Speculum, bimanual, rectovaginal
  53. D) Rectovaginal, bimanual, speculum
  54. During an internal examination of a woman’s genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum?
  55. A) Instruct the woman to bear down, open the speculum blades, and apply in a swift, upward movement.
  56. B) Insert the blades of the speculum on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 30-degree angle while continuing to insert them. Ask the woman to bear down after the speculum is inserted.
  57. C) Instruct the woman to bear down, turn the width of the blades horizontally, and insert the speculum at a 45-degree angle downward toward the small of the woman’s back.
  58. D) Lock the blades open by turning the thumbscrew. Once the blades are open, apply pressure to the introitus and insert the blades at a 45-degree angle downward to bring the cervix into view.
  59. The nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal?
  60. A) Nabothian cysts are present.
  61. B) The cervical os is a horizontal slit.
  62. C) The cervical surface is granular and red.
  63. D) Stringy and opaque secretions are present.
  64. A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are:
  65. A) “If you are menstruating, please use pads to avoid placing anything into the vagina.”
  66. B) “Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment.”
  67. C) “If you suspect that you have a vaginal infection, please gather a sample of the discharge to bring with you.”
  68. D) “We would like you to use a mild saline douche before your examination. You may pick this up in our office.”
  69. During an examination, which tests will the nurse collect to screen for cervical cancer?
  70. A) Endocervical specimen, cervical scrape, and vaginal pool
  71. B) Endocervical specimen, vaginal pool, and acetic acid wash
  72. C) Endocervical specimen, KOH preparation, and acetic acid wash
  73. D) Cervical scrape, acetic acid wash, saline mount (“wet prep”)
  74. When performing the bimanual examination, the nurse notices that the cervix feels smooth and firm, is round, and is fixed in place (does not move). When cervical palpation is performed, the patient complains of some pain. The nurse’s interpretation of these results should be which of these?
  75. A) These findings are all within normal limits.
  76. B) The cervical consistency should be soft and velvety—not firm.
  77. C) The cervix should move when palpated; an immobile cervix may indicate malignancy.
  78. D) Pain may occur during palpation of the cervix.
  79. The nurse is palpating a female patient’s adnexa. The findings include a firm, smooth uterine wall; the ovaries are palpable and feel smooth and firm. The fallopian tube is firm and pulsating. The nurse’s most appropriate course of action would be to:
  80. A) tell the patient that her examination was normal.
  81. B) give her an immediate referral to a gynecologist.
  82. C) suggest that she return in a month for a recheck to verify the findings.
  83. D) tell the patient that she may have an ovarian cyst that should be evaluated further.
  84. A 65-year-old woman is in the office for routine gynecologic care. She had a complete hysterectomy 3 months ago after cervical cancer was detected. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true with regard to this visit?
  85. A) Her cervical mucosa will be red and dry looking.
  86. B) She will not need to have a Pap smear done.
  87. C) The nurse can expect to find that her uterus will be somewhat enlarged and her ovaries small and hard.
  88. D) The nurse should plan to lubricate the instruments and the examining hand well to avoid a painful examination.
  89. The nurse is preparing to examine the external genitalia of a school-age girl. Which of these positions would be most appropriate in this situation?
  90. A) In the parent’s lap
  91. B) In a frog-leg position on the examining table
  92. C) In the lithotomy position with the feet in stirrups
  93. D) Lying flat on the examining table with legs extended
  94. When assessing a newborn infant’s genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant’s mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply:
  95. A) “This is a normal finding in newborns and should resolve within a few weeks.”

B “This could indicate an abnormality and may need to be evaluated by a physician.”

  1. C) “We will need to have estrogen levels evaluated to make sure that they are within normal limits.”
  2. D) “We will need to keep close watch over the next few days to see if the genitalia decrease in size.”
  3. During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which of these conditions?
  4. A) Candidiasis
  5. B) Trichomoniasis
  6. C) Atrophic vaginitis
  7. D) Bacterial vaginosis
  8. A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. There is also inguinal lymphadenopathy present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
  9. A) pediculosis pubis.
  10. B) contact dermatitis.
  11. C) human papillomavirus.
  12. D) herpes simplex virus type 2.
  13. When performing an external genitalia examination of a 10-year-old girl, the nurse notices that there is no pubic hair, and the mons and the labia are covered with fine vellus hair. These findings are consistent with stage _____ of sexual maturity, according to the Sexual Maturity Rating scale.
  14. A) 1
  15. B) 2
  16. C) 3
  17. D) 4
  18. A 46-year-old woman is in the clinic for her annual gynecologic examination. She voices a concern about ovarian cancer because her mother and sister died of it. The nurse knows that which of these statements is correct regarding ovarian cancer?
  19. A) Ovarian cancer rarely has any symptoms.
  20. B) The Pap smear detects the presence of ovarian cancer.
  21. C) Women at high risk for ovarian cancer should have annual transvaginal ultrasonography for screening.
  22. D) Women over age 40 years should have a thorough pelvic examination every 3 years.
  23. During a bimanual examination, the nurse detects a solid tumor on the ovary that is heavy and fixed, with a poorly defined mass. This finding is suggestive of:
  24. A) an ovarian cyst.
  25. B) endometriosis.
  26. C) ovarian cancer.
  27. D) an ectopic pregnancy.
  28. A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden fever of 101° F and abdominal pain. Upon examination, the nurse notices that she has rigid, boardlike lower abdominal musculature. When the nurse tries to perform a vaginal examination, the patient has severe pain when the uterus and cervix are moved. The nurse knows that these signs and symptoms are suggestive of:
  29. A) endometriosis.
  30. B) uterine fibroids.
  31. C) ectopic pregnancy.
  32. D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
  33. During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware of any problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be:
  34. A) syphilitic chancre.
  35. B) herpes simplex virus type 2 (herpes genitalis).
  36. C) human papillomavirus (HPV), or genital warts.
  37. D) pediculosis pubis (crab lice).
  38. During an examination, the nurse would expect the cervical os of a woman who has never had children to appear:
  39. A) stellate.
  40. B) small and round.
  41. C) as a horizontal irregular slit.
  42. D) everted.
  43. A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV, or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _____ cancer.
  44. A) uterine
  45. B) cervical
  46. C) ovarian
  47. D) endometrial
  48. During an internal examination, the nurse notices that the cervix bulges outside the introitus when the patient is asked to strain. The nurse will document this as:
  49. A) uterine prolapse, graded first degree.
  50. B) uterine prolapse, graded second degree.
  51. C) uterine prolapse, graded third degree.
  52. D) a normal finding.
  53. A 35-year-old woman is at the clinic for a gynecologic examination. During the examination, she asks the nurse, “How often do I need to have this Pap test done?” Which reply by the nurse is correct?

A)”It depends. Do you smoke?”

B)”This will need to be done annually until you are 65.”

C)”If you have 2 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you can wait 5 years between tests.”

D)”After age 30, if you have 3 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you may be screened every 2 to 3 years.”

  1. The nurse is palpating an ovarian mass during an internal examination of a 63-year-old woman. Which findings of the mass’s characteristics would suggest the presence of an ovarian cyst? Select all that apply.
  2. A) Heavy and solid
  3. B) Mobile and fluctuant

C)Mobile and solid

  1. D) Fixed
  2. E) Smooth and round
  3. F) Poorly defined

 

HealthCare Information Systems (7pgs)

Questions:

  1. How proper use of Information Systems can enhance Health Care?

 

Millennium development goals report

Instructions for developing the MDGs Report HLTH 4380 Fall 2018 In this Project, we will use the United Nations Millennium Declaration document called Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) adopted by world leaders at the dawn of the 21st century as our guide. The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are eight international development goals that were established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000, and subsequent adoption of the United Nations Millennium Declaration. Although these Goals have universal appeal, they are readily applicable to mainly developing countries and Middle-income countries of the world. Of course they have some relevance to the United States, but you are not required to make any comparison with US or any other industrialized country. The idea of including this part of the project is for us to examine the global perspectives of public health and the extent to which world leaders (governments, civil society groups, NGOs) in low-resource settings are affected by the poor health vulnerabilities and efforts being made by countries to improve population health. The MDGs has eight goals with targets and indicators; and range from halving extreme poverty rates to halting the spread of HIV/AIDS and providing universal primary education by the target date of 2015. I have provided the eight goals below: 1. To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger 2. To achieve universal primary education 3. To promote gender equality and empower women 4. To reduce child mortality 5. To improve maternal health 6. To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases 7. To ensure environmental sustainability 8. To develop a global partnership for development These goals have been reviewed in July 2015, and a new development plan Agenda 2030 Sustainable Development Goals has been put in place. I have posted a copy of final review of the MDGs document on Blackboard (under MDG Assignment Resources). Your role is to select TWO GOALS from the MDGs and two specific countries outside the United States and other industrialized countries to assess the extent to which your selected countries did in achieving the goal by July 2015 (the target and indicators for that MDG goals you picked by July of 2015). You may include what the country need to do as part of your postMDG steps. The post MDG’s are Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) MDG Expectation: Visit the web link of countries you have selected for this project. You can just google by typing “your selected country and MDG report.” For example, if I selected Ghana, I will google “Ghana MDG report” and you will find all MDG reports for Ghana in different years. Select the three most current reports of the respective country selected. The link below is for the assessment of UN member’s countries progress towards achievement of MDG’s. Assess (based on your chosen goals and targets for the MDG’s) whether the country (of your interest) is likely to meet those MDG’s (for that country) by 2015 according to your specific objective /goals. Critically evaluate whether your specific community or your country of interest will meet respective goals and objectives as well as the accompanying dates. Prepare a six page comparative analytic report that includes the information below (you may additional information for extra credit): • Short definition or description of your Goals (from the MDGs) for the two countries, and a briefly descriptions of each country’s background context. The context of each country is important for understanding why or why not the results achieved in the manner in they have been reported. • Most important issue each country addressed in each Goal. • Individuals most affected by this objective (age, gender, ethnicity, etc.) and a country of your interest. • Ethnic/racial groups most affected • Value of addressing this Goal and consequences of not meeting your objective • Most interesting data to use to gain more attention to this objective or Goal • Details of community and national efforts to address this issue and any local data that you may be able to secure. There is detailed information on the MDG’s and what countries are doing to achieve a specific goal. Make sure to select a peer reviewed publication and cite appropriately. Please, refer to this website for additional information on MDGs: http://www.healthpolicyinitiative.com/index.cfm?id=onlineCDs&groupID=7 3 Note that the MDG’s are primarily United Nations target to improve health and social wellbeing of populations of the world (mainly outside the United States). The US uses the Healthy People as a national guide for improving health and social outcomes. Healthy People are a set of goals and objectives spanning a 10-year period, designed to guide national health promotion and disease prevention efforts for the population in the United States. Prepare a critical and detailed six-page report to address those issues. You will utilize and cite, according to the APA Style and Format (6th edition). Make sure that you have at least seven additional references aside the Healthy People 2020 and MDGs documents. My suggestions when writing this paper is to avoid direct quoting from any source (even those you will cite those sources). I strongly recommend that you paraphrase and cite appropriately instead of direct quoting.

BSBSUS401 Implement & monitor environmentally sustainable work practices

What is the purpose of National Greenhouse & Energy Reporting Legislation?

 

  1. What is the purpose of Environment Protection & Biodiversity Conservation Legislation?
  2. What is the Kyoto Protocol?
  3. Who has the prime responsibility for environmental protection?
  4. How do organisations know how to behave ethically in regards to sustainability?

Activity 2.

What process might an assessor follow when analysing procedures to ensure compliance with

  1. environmental regulations?
  2. How might an assessor conduct an assessment?

Activity 3.

  1. What is resource efficiency?
  2. What is an Environmental Management System?
  3. How can a work group be engaged in disseminating environmental and resource efficiency information?

 

Activity 4.

  1. Explain the differences between qualitative and quantitative information.
  2. What do you think are the advantages of presenting analysed data in graphical format, rather than a written report?
  3. Your organisation is interested in analysing and organising information about the amount of paper it uses. Convert the data provided into a format that is easily used.

Activity 5.

  1. What are the goals of resource usage assessments? Give at least 6 examples.
  2. List the steps (in order) that need to be taken when carrying out a resource usage assessment.

Activity 6.

  1. Identify 5 benefits of environmental purchasing.

Activity 7.

  1. How can organisations ensure that work processes meet environmental requirements and identify areas in which changes need to be made? Give at least 6 examples.
  2. What is problem solving in the context of environmental work processes and what is its aim/s?

Activity 8.

  1. List at least 5 various ways that organisations can access stakeholder input.

Activity 9.

  1. What are the advantages of joining an industry association? List two examples.
  2. What are the advantages of joining an environmental program? Give 2 examples.
  3. What is the hierarchy of control?
  4. Rearrange the controls in their correct order, as specified in the hierarchy of control:

Administration, Elimination, Engineering, Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), and Substitution.

Activity 11.

  1. What are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)?
  2. What five criteria should be met when creating targets?
  3. Identify what is wrong with the following targets and rewrite them so they conform to SMART criteria.
  4. The Absolute Advertising Agency will reduce its paper waste.
  5. The Fish Factory will reduce its energy consumption to zero in the next month.

Activity 12.

  1. Identify five things a business could do to reduce its energy consumption.
  2. Identify five things an organisation could do to reduce its waste.

Activity 13.

  1. Identify the four steps of the continuous improvement cycle.
  2. Identify five things an organisation can do to improve the performance of its employees.

Activity 14.

  1. Explain why it is a good idea to integrate environmental procedures and practices with pre-existing organisation procedures and practices.
  2. What needs to be done when existing procedures or work practices are changed or new procedures and work practices are introduced?

Activity 15.

Define the term “Engagement”.

Engagement is the emotional commitment the employee has to the organization and its goals. It relates to a state of involvement and participation.

 

  1. Why is it important to ensure that employees do not become disengaged?
  2. What are the benefits of having a diverse team?

Activity 16.

  1. List at least six people/groups who might make up an organisations stakeholders.
  2. Each stakeholder will have different areas of expertise. Complete the table by providing reasons that an organisation should seek suggestions & ideas about their environmental and resource efficiency management for each of the listed stakeholders.

 

Activity 17.

  1. A school is thinking about installing low-flush toilets in all of its bathrooms and air hand-driers to replace paper towel dispensers. Purchasing new toilets for the entire school will cost $22,000. It will need to employ plumbers to fit the toilets at a cost of $9,500. It is estimated that this will save the school $16,000 in water consumption fees. The hand driers will cost $13,500. The cost of employing electricians to install the hand driers will come to $4,400. As the school will no longer have to purchase paper towels, it will save $7,300 per year. It also estimates it will save $1,000 a year in cleaning costs, as the bathrooms will take less time to clean, and bins will need to be emptied less frequently. The school will incur additional electricity costs of $1,700 per year, however. Calculate the combined payback period for the installation of low flush toilets and air hand driers.

Activity 18.

  1. Determine whether the following statements are true or false.

Activity 19.

  1. Place the steps, which need to be observed when creating an environment report in their correct order.
  • Communicate with the audience to understand their concerns, questions, expectations & interests.
  • Create performance Indicators.
  • Decide how you are going to publish report.
  • Gather the data and evaluate it.
  • Identify the data you will need to produce the report.
  • Identify key environmental aspects that need to be covered by the report.
  • Identify the target audience for your report.
  • Make improvements to reporting procedures for future reports.
  • Obtain Feedback.
  • Produce, publish and distribute the report.
  1. Identify 5 benefits of creating and distributing an environmental report.

Activity20.

  1. Why is it important to carry out regular evaluations of environmental management systems/ strategies and improvement plans?

Activity 21.

  1. List 5 reasons that efficiency targets should be/ might need to be regularly reviewed.

Activity 22.

  1. Identify the characteristics of an effective reward system. Give 4 examples.

Question 1.

What methods can be used to convey information and identify sustainability improvements?

Question 2.

What are the essential features of a non-compliance form that could be used by employees to report any non-compliance issues?

Question 3.

What is the effect of environmental regulations and legislation on business?

Question 4.

What common environmental and energy efficiency issues can you think of?

Question5.

What benchmarks might be used for environmental & resource sustainability?

List at least 8 examples of techniques or tools that can be used to achieve efficiency.

Question 6.

Define the term “Sustainability” and explain how it relates to resource usage.

Question 7.

What are the steps in creating an Environment Management System (EMS)?

Question 8.

How do sustainable businesses foster ethical behaviours in staff and management?

Summative Assessment 2

Project 1.

 

Essay Question –write a response to the following quote from Unlimited Sustainable Development Solutions.

Organisations today are being asked to address an increasingly complex set of environmental issues. As noted in the quote:

“Sustainability is achieved when we understand the economic, environmental, and social consequences of our actions and make deliberate choices that allow all people to lead healthy, productive and enjoyable lives”.

Your response should include a discussion of:

  • Complex environmental issues.
  • Methods of measuring an organisation’s environmental impact.
  • Methods of managing an organisation’s environmental impact.
  • Methods of reducing an organisation’s environmental impact.

Project 2.

Youare the supervisor of a group of 15 workers in a business involved in an industry of your choice. You have been asked to plan and organise a number of work group activities in relation to measuring current resource use and devising strategies to improve usage.

  1. Identify a minimum of 3 appropriate work group activities and provide an overview of what is involved with each activity.
  2. Develop a plan to monitor resource use and improvements for environmental performance as a result of the activities undertaken by your work group.

 

 

Millennium development goals

Pick two MDGs

Evaluate the progress with a case study of two developing countries. 

 

HSA 505 Case Study 3 Missed Opportunities

HSA 505 Case Study 3 Missed Opportunities

 

Due Week 9 and worth 200 points

 

Read the case study titled “Missed Opportunities”, located in the online course shell.

 

Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:

  1. Examine the pros and cons from the perspective of Crestview Hospital of the placement of its new billboard directly adjacent to Briarwood Medical Center. Interpret the reaction of customers and other community stakeholders to the billboard postings.
  2. Use competitive marketing entry strategies to suggest the action that Briarwood Hospital should undertake to counter the messages in the new Crestview Hospital Billboard postings.
  3. Recommend the marketing communication strategy or strategies that both Crestview and Briarwood Hospitals should employ. Justify why the Governing Board of both hospitals should take a proactive role in promoting and implementing effective marketing strategies.
  4. Assess the value of the various marketing research tool(s) that Briarwood and Crestview hospital could use to promote effective marketing communication strategies. Justify your response.
  5. Use at least five (5) quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

 

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

 

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Evaluate marketing research tools involved in the marketing process.
  • Formulate competitive market entry strategies based on analysis of global markets that comply to initiatives in the health care industry.
  • Determine the marketing communications strategy used in health care services.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in health services strategic marketing.
  • Write clearly and concisely about health services strategic marketing using proper writing mechanics.

HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets

HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets

Read the case study titled “GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets” located in the XanEdu case pack (Link Below)

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

  • Determine two (2) emerging trends in the external environment that prompted General Electric (GE) Healthcare to develop a new strategy for the production and marketing of a low cost Electroencephalography (EEG) machine in bottom of the pyramid markets (BOP).
  • Examine two (2) internal barriers GE Healthcare faced when developing its BOP market in India and determine the manner in which they hindered GE Healthcare’s growth in this market segment.
  • Analyze two (2) of the significant external barriers that GE Healthcare faced when trying to meet its marketing goals in the Indian market. Propose two (2) ways to address these barriers.
  • Analyze the specific steps GE took in developing its strategy to grow its BOP market. Determine the manner in which those actions apply to the principles of strategic thinking and strategic planning.
  • Determine the manner in which GE Healthcare’s strategy to improve its position in BOP markets contributed to the organization’s value chain in both emerging and developed markets.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Differentiate between strategic management, strategic thinking, strategic planning, and managing strategic momentum.
  • Analyze the significance of the external environment’s impact on health care organizations.
  • Examine the role of internal environmental analysis in identifying the basis for sustained competitive advantage.
  • Examine the organizational value chain, including the components of the service delivery and support activities.
  • Examine barriers to new product development that comply with initiatives in the health care industry.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in the strategic management of health care organizations.
  • Write clearly and concisely about strategic management of health care organizations using proper writing mechanics.

Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic / organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric.

 

Week 2 – Healthy People 2020

After reviewing the Healthy People 2020 website, discuss the concept of MAP-IT.  Choose a health topic of your choice to briefly discuss how MAP-IT can be implemented in the community of your choice.
Topic: Affordable Medication Program

Length:  Minimum of two full pages of text in length.  Please ensure you cite your references in APA format. Please ensure you cite your references in APA format with a minimum of 3 references

 

https://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/tools-and-resources/Program-Planning

 

Influences of Health Care Research

Identify one innovation that has been developed in the past 20 years that has influenced the health care industry, such as: Telemedicine Organ transplants Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that discusses the following: Explain how evidence-based research influences the health care industry. Compare external influences on health care research. Cite 3 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references to support your paper. Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

Human Resource Management Overview

Assignment 1: Human Resource Management Overview

 Due Week 4 and worth 200 points

 

Using the course readings, articles, and your personal experiences, address the role of human resource management.

 Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:

1.Determine key roles that human resource management plays in the health care field..

2.Evaluate three to five (3-5) functions of human resource management in terms of their level of support to the health care field, and then select which one you believe is the primary function in furthering the health care field..

3.Analyze the role of human resource management in an organization’s strategic plan..

4.Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment.  Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources..

 

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions..
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length..

 

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Appraise the aspects of managing human resources (HR) in health care organizations. .
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in health care human resources management..
  • Write clearly and concisely about health care human resources management using proper writing mechanics..

 

MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017 

MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017

Question 1 2 / 2 points

Which statement about confusion is true?

Question options:

  1. a) Confusion is a disease process.
  2. b) Confusion is always temporary.
  3. c) Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.
  4. d) Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.

Question 2 0 / 2 points

Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

Question options:

  1. a) Meclizine
  2. b) Diphenhydramine
  3. c) Diamox
  4. d) Promethazine

Question 3 2 / 2 points

The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

Question options:

  1. a) No activity at all
  2. b) A blank stare
  3. c) Urine is usually voided involuntarily
  4. d) The attack usually lasts several minutes

Question 4 2 / 2 points

How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?

Question options:

  1. a) Every 3 months
  2. b) Every 6 months
  3. c) Annually
  4. d) Whenever there is a problem

Question 5 2 / 2 points

Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)?

Question options:

  1. a) A teenage male
  2. b) A 65-year-old male
  3. c) A 25-year-old female
  4. d) A 60-year-old female

Question 6 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a specific test to MS?

Question options:

  1. a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  2. b) Computed tomography (CT) scan
  3. c) A lumbar puncture
  4. d) There is no specific test.

Question 7 2 / 2 points

Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

Question options:

  1. a) Cholinesterase inhibitors
  2. b) Anxiolytics
  3. c) Antidepressants
  4. d) Atypical antipsychotics

Question 8 2 / 2 points

Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?

Question options:

  1. a) Epidural hematoma
  2. b) Subdural hematoma
  3. c) Subarachnoid hematoma
  4. d) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

Question 9 2 / 2 points

Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

Question options:

  1. a) CN V
  2. b) CN VII
  3. c) CN IX
  4. d) CN X

Question 10 2 / 2 points

Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

Question options:

  1. a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
  2. b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
  3. c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
  4. d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 11 2 / 2 points

Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

Question options:

  1. a) A female in her reproductive years
  2. b) A 40-year-old African American male
  3. c) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
  4. d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

Question options:

  1. a) Dementia
  2. b) Alzheimer’s disease
  3. c) Parkinson’s disease
  4. d) Delirium

Question 13 2 / 2 points

Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?

Question options:

  1. a) Purulent meningitis
  2. b) Chronic meningitis
  3. c) Aseptic meningitis
  4. d) Herpes meningitis

Question 14 2 / 2 points

Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?

Question options:

  1. a) MRI
  2. b) CT
  3. c) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
  4. d) An initial lumbar puncture

Question 15 2 / 2 points

What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?

Question options:

  1. a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
  2. b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
  3. c) A pain that is worse upon awakening
  4. d) A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 16 1 / 1 point

Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

Question options:

  1. a) “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
  2. b) “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
  3. c) “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
  4. d) “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:

Question options:

  1. a) “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
  2. b) “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
  3. c) “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
  4. d) “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”

Question 18 2 / 2 points

Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?

Question options:

  1. a) Resting tremor
  2. b) Bradykinesia
  3. c) Rigidity
  4. d) Postural instability

Question 19 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?

Question options:

  1. a) Light sensitivity
  2. b) Pulsatile pain
  3. c) Sound sensitivity
  4. d) Experiencing an aura

Question 20 2 / 2 points

Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?

Question options:

  1. a) The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.
  2. b) There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.
  3. c) Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.
  4. d) The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.

Question 21 2 / 2 points

Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?

Question options:

  1. a) Greater than 25%
  2. b) Greater than 50%
  3. c) Greater than 75%
  4. d) Only for 100% occlusion

Question 22 2 / 2 points

What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?

Question options:

  1. a) Aspirin
  2. b) Ticlopidine
  3. c) Clopidogrel
  4. d) Aspirin and clopidogrel

Question 23 2 / 2 points

Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?

Question options:

  1. a) MRI
  2. b) CT
  3. c) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
  4. d) EEG

Question 24 2 / 2 points

Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?

Question options:

  1. a) Sam-e
  2. b) Saint John’s Wort
  3. c) Melatonin
  4. d) Saw Palmetto

Question 25 0 / 2 points

Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?

Question options:

  1. a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube
  2. b) Determining if the patient can drive on the highway
  3. c) Asking the patient about a news event from the current week
  4. d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean

Question 26 2 / 2 points

About 90% of all headaches are?

Question options:

  1. a) Tension
  2. b) Migraine
  3. c) Cluster
  4. d) Without pathological cause

Question 27 2 / 2 points

Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

Question options:

  1. a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
  2. b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
  3. c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
  4. d) These persons may drive but never alone.

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?

Question options:

  1. a) Glatiramer acetate
  2. b) Natalizumab
  3. c) Fingolimod
  4. d) Glucocorticoids

Question 29 2 / 2 points

The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

Question options:

  1. a) Parkinson’s disease
  2. b) Alzheimer’s disease
  3. c) A CVA
  4. d) Bell’s palsy

Question 30 2 / 2 points

A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?

Question options:

  1. a) Spinothalamic dysfunction
  2. b) Ratcheting
  3. c) Cogwheeling
  4. d) Hand tremors

Question 31 2 / 2 points

Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?

Question options:

  1. a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
  2. b) Parkinson’s disease
  3. c) Alzheimer’s disease
  4. d) Huntington’s disease

Question 32 1 / 1 point

Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?

Question options:

  1. a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
  2. b) Parkinson’s disease
  3. c) Alzheimer’s disease
  4. d) Delirium

Question 33 2 / 2 points

A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:

Question options:

  1. a) SLUMS
  2. b) MoCA
  3. c) FAST
  4. d) MMSE

Question 34 2 / 2 points

Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?

Question options:

  1. a) 1 hour
  2. b) 3 hours
  3. c) 6 hours
  4. d) 12 hours

Question 35 2 / 2 points

When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

Question options:

  1. a) Tension
  2. b) Migraine
  3. c) Cluster
  4. d) Stress

Question 36 2 / 2 points

The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

Question options:

  1. a) Acetylcholine
  2. b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
  3. c) Dopamine
  4. d) Serotonin

Question 37 2 / 2 points

The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

Question options:

  1. a) 1 month
  2. b) 3 months
  3. c) 6 months
  4. d) 12 months

Question 38 1 / 1 point

A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?

Question options:

  1. a) Pheochromocytoma
  2. b) Hyperthyroidism
  3. c) Cardiac arrhythmias
  4. d) All of the above

Question 39 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?

Question options:

  1. a) Benzodiazepines
  2. b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
  3. c) Tricyclic antidepressants
  4. d) Cognitive behavioral therapy

Question 40 1 / 1 point

Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

Question options:

  1. a) Hypersomnolence
  2. b) Blunted feelings
  3. c) Loss of interest in significant activities
  4. d) Intrusive recurrent recollections of the event

Question 41 2 / 2 points

Which of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?

Question options:

  1. a) Decrease in adrenal size
  2. b) Increased cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormone
  3. c) An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone
  4. d) Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone

Question 42 2 / 2 points

The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?

Question options:

  1. a) SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
  2. b) SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
  3. c) SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.
  4. d) SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.

Question 43 2 / 2 points

After discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?

Question options:

  1. a) 2 weeks
  2. b) 3 weeks
  3. c) 4 weeks
  4. d) 5 weeks

Question 44 2 / 2 points

It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?

Question options:

a) Before the initiation of treatment

b) 1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment

c) When switching to a different medication

d) 1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications

Question 45 2 / 2 points

A patient is experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications. The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to treating these side effects?

Question options:

a) Give the patient a “drug holiday” until the symptoms resolve and then restart the medication.

b) Switch the patient to a different antipsychotic.

c) Treat the patient with anticholinergics.

d) Treat the patient with anticonvulsants.

Question 46 1 / 1 point

According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?

Question options:

a) Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance

b) Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression

c) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance

d) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Question 47 1 / 1 point

The clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana. The patient stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere with her life. What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that the clinician should educate this patient about?

Question options:

a) Memory impairment

b) Sexual dysfunction

c) Dry mouth

d) There are no long-term consequences of marijuana use.

Question 48 2 / 2 points

Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?

Question options:

a) GABA

b) Acetylcholine

c) Dopamine

d) Serotonin

Question 49 2 / 2 points

What blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?

Question options:

a) 0.05

b) 0.1

c) 0.2

d) 0.3

Question 50 2 / 2 points

Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?

Question options:

a) Every 30 minutes

b) Every 60 minutes

c) Every 90 minutes

d) Every 180 minutes

Question 51 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?

Question options:

a) Hypercholesterolemia

b) Hypermagnesmia

c) Leukocytosis

d) Decreased TRH

Question 52 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?

Question options:

a) Sertraline

b) Fluoxetine

c) Citoprolam

d) Imipramine

Question 53 2 / 2 points

Which of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

Question options:

a) Liver function

b) Vision

c) Growth parameters

d) Renal function

Question 54 2 / 2 points

It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?

Question options:

a) Depression

b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

c) Substance abuse

d) PTSD

Question 55 2 / 2 points

Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

Question options:

a) 2 weeks

b) 1 month

c) 3 months

d) 6 months

Question 56 2 / 2 points

Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?

Question options:

a) Depression

b) Anxiety

c) Substance-related addictions

d) Gambling

Question 57 1 / 1 point

What is recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision)?

Question options:

a) Clinical disorder or focus of clinical attention

b) Personality or environmental problems

c) Environmental and psychosocial stressors

d) Global assessment of functioning

Question 58 2 / 2 points

Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?

Question options:

a) CAGE

b) SANE

c) SAD PERSONAS

d) DIGFAST

Question 59 2 / 2 points

Assessing for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following diagnostic groups?

Question options:

a) ADHD

b) Bipolar

c) Depression

d) Anxiety

Question 60 1 / 1 point

Bipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except?

Question options:

a) Substance abuse and medication effects

b) Medical and neurological disorders

c) Cluster B personality disorders and depression

d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 61 1 / 1 point

The use of benzodiazepines in the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and comorbid depression can exacerbate depressive symptoms.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 62 1 / 1 point

Depressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder are treated the same as major depressive disorder.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 63 1 / 1 point

Women in abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers when they leave the relationship than women who stay.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 64 1 / 1 point

Adults must show childhood onset of symptoms to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 65 1 / 1 point

Parkinson’s disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 66 1 / 1 point

The best predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 67 1 / 1 point

A no-suicide contract can prevent a suicide attempt.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 68 1 / 1 point

Depression is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of the severe mental illnesses.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 69 1 / 1 point

Clozapine (Clozaril) requires laboratory monitoring at specified frequencies with results reported to a national registry.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 70 1 / 1 point

When combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can have significant liver P450-interaction effects.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 71 1 / 1 point

A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?

Question options:

a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

b) Endometrial hyperplasia

c) Vagismus

d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 72 2 / 2 points

A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?

Question options:

a) Ceftriaxone

b) Doxycycline

c) Acyclovir

d) Metronidazole

Question 73 1 / 1 point

A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to?

Question options:

a) Gonorrhea

b) HPV

c) Chlamydia

d) Trichomonas

Question 74 1 / 1 point

A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear.Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?

Question options:

a) Trichomonas

b) Bacterial vaginosis

c) HPV

d) Herpes simplex virus

Question 75 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?

Question options:

a) Metronidazole

b) Ceftriaxone

c) Diflucan

d) Doxycycline

Question 76 1 / 1 point

A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?

Question options:

a) Fluconazole

b) Estrogen vaginal cream

c) Metronidazole

d) Doxycycline

Question 77 2 / 2 points

Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:

Question options:

a) Filiform/digitate wart

b) Dysplastic cervical lesion

c) Condyloma acuminata

d) Koilocytosis

Question 78 0 / 2 points

During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question options:

a) An enlarged rubbery gland

b) A hard irregular gland

c) A tender gland

d) A boggy gland

Question 79 2 / 2 points

Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers?

Question options:

a) Necrotizing fasciitis

b) Periorbital cellulitis

c) Erysipelas

d) “Flesh-eating” cellulitis

Question 80 2 / 2 points

The forced vital capacity is decreased in:

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Chronic bronchitis

c) Emphysema

d) Restrictive disease

Question 81 2 / 2 points

The most common cause of CAP is?

Question options:

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

b) Klebsiella pneumoniae

c) Legionella pneumoniae

d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 82 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Increased white blood cells

c) Insulin resistance

d) Hyperactivity

Question 83 2 / 2 points

The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

Question options:

a) IgA

b) IgE

c) IgG

d) IgM

Question 84 2 / 2 points

A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

Question options:

a) The scrotum will be dark.

b) The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.

c) The scrotum will appear milky white.

d) The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 85 0 / 2 points

During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question options:

a) An enlarged rubbery gland

b) A hard irregular gland

c) A tender gland

d) A boggy gland

Question 86 2 / 2 points

A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?

Question options:

a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.

b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.

c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.

d) There is metastasis to distant organs.

Question 87 1 / 1 point

A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?

Question options:

a) Risk of osteoporosis

b) May have hot flushes

c) May have impotence

d) All of the above

Question 88 1 / 1 point

A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Question options:

a) Testicular cancer

b) Inguinal hernia

c) Varicocele

d) All of the above

Question 89 1 / 1 point

What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Question options:

a) Radical orchidectomy

b) Lumpectomy

c) Radiation implants

d) All of the above

Question 90 1 / 1 point

A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?

Question options:

a) Every month

b) Every 3 to 4 months

c) Every 6 to 12 months

d) Every year

Question 91 2 / 2 points

Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

Question options:

a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”

b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”

c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”

d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 92 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”

Question options:

a) An ulcer

b) A fissure

c) Lichenification

d) An excoriation