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Addiction Paper- Alcohol
You will choose a specific addiction and complete a 3–5-page paper about the topic in current APA format. This is a research paper, so make sure you construct and write it appropriately. You may choose any addiction discussed in the course material; you must email the instructor if you are unsure of the appropriateness of a chosen topic. The paper must address possible causes of the addiction as well as the prevalence and potential treatments. Include at least 3 outside sources (not including the course textbooks) from current professional journals (published within the last 5 years). Your paper must include a title page, an abstract, and a reference page in addition to the 3–5 pages of text.
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, SuperFun Toys Case Study, SuperFun Toys Case Study Data Set
Review the SuperFun Toys Case Study and Data Set.
Develop a 250-word case study analysis including the following:
Compute the probability of a stock-out for the order quantities suggested by members of the management team (i.e. 15,000; 18,000; 24,000; 28,000).
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
Case Study – SuperFun Toys
SuperFun Toys, Inc., sells a variety of new and innovative children’s toys. Management learned the pre-holiday season is the best time to introduce a new toy because many families use this time to look for new ideas for December holiday gifts. When SuperFun discovers a new toy with good market potential, it chooses an October market entry date. To get toys in its stores by October, SuperFun places one-time orders with its manufacturers in June or July of each year.
Demand for children’s toys can be highly volatile. If a new toy catches on, a sense of shortage in the marketplace often increases the demand to high levels and large profits can be realized. However, new toys can also flop, leaving SuperFun stuck with high levels of inventory that must be sold at reduced prices. The most important question the company faces is deciding how many units of a new toy should be purchased to meet anticipated sales demand. If too few are purchased, sales will be lost; if too many are purchased, profits will be reduced because of low prices realized in clearance sales.
This is where SuperFun feels that you, as an MBA student, can bring value.
For the coming season, SuperFun plans to introduce a new product called Weather Teddy. This variation of a talking teddy bear is made by a company in Taiwan. When a child presses Teddy’s hand, the bear begins to talk. A built-in barometer selects one of five responses predicting the weather conditions. The responses range from “It looks to be a very nice day! Have fun” to “I think it may rain today. Don’t forget your umbrella.” Tests with the product show even though it is not a perfect weather predictor, its predictions are surprisingly good. Several of SuperFun’s managers claimed Teddy gave predictions of the weather that were as good as many local television weather forecasters.
As with other products, SuperFun faces the decision of how many Weather Teddy units to order for the coming holiday season. Members of the management team suggested order quantities of 15,000, 18,000, 24,000, or 28,000 units. The wide range of order quantities suggested indicates considerable disagreement concerning the market potential.
Having a sound background in statistics and business, you are required to perform statistical analysis and the profit projections which is typically done by the product management group. You want to provide management with an analysis of the stock-out probabilities for various order quantities, an estimate of the profit potential, and to help make an order quantity recommendation.
SuperFun expects to sell Weather Teddy for $24 based on a cost of $16 per unit. If inventory remains after the holiday season, SuperFun will sell all surplus inventories for $5 per unit. After reviewing the sales history of similar products, SuperFun’s senior sales forecaster predicted an expected demand of 20,000 units with a 95% probability that demand would be between 10,000 units and 30,000 units.
Provide your insights, questions and examples for Sampling Error.
Provide your insights, questions and examples for Sampling Distribution of Sample Means
Provide your insights, questions and examples for Central Limit Theorem.
Provide your insights, questions and examples forStandard Error of the Mean.
Consider the concept of point estimate and discuss the need to build a confidence interval using the point estimate.
Consider the phrase “confidence interval” – what does the word “confidence” imply and what is the information provided by the word “interval”? Provide an example to illustrate the concepts.
Expansion Strategy and Establishing a Re-Order Point
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set,
Write a 500-word report based on the case you selected: Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set Scenarios.
Include answers to the following:
Case 1: Bell Computer Company
Compute the expected value for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of maximizing the expected profit?
Compute the variation for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of minimizing the risk or uncertainty?
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques:
Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion.
HRM 517 Week 9 DQ
Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion. Provide a rationale for your response.
Watch the video titled “More Management Techniques from The One Minute Manager” (6 min 28 s), found on NBC Learn. Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” NBC Learn Video Title: Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” Date: Sep 6, 1982 Duration: 00:06:28
From the video, give your opinion on the three approaches discussed in the video (goal setting, praise, and reprimand). Assess how these are or are not applicable to a team setting, and whether this is still pertinent in today’s workforce given that the video is nearly three decades old.
Community Support Pamphlet
You will create a pamphlet to be used in presenting to a community or church group in order to solicit support for substance abuse/addiction treatment. In your presentation or pamphlet, discuss the prevalence of addiction and what communities can do to help. Use at least 3 statistics regarding addiction, and give at least 3 ideas of ways communities can help. Make sure to document your sources in current APA format.
MY PAMPHLET NEEDS TO BE ON THE OPIOD EPEDIC IN THE STATE OF…
Pamphlet Instructions:
Your pamphlet may be constructed in Microsoft Word and must have an attractive, appealing design. It may be bi-fold or tri-fold, but it must include the following:
Information on both sides of the paper;
8 ½ X 11 or 8 ½ X 14 paper size;
12-point Times New Roman font;
A minimum of 3 statistics and 3 suggestions for community help; and
A separate reference page to be submitted with the pamphlet.
Normal Distribution
the use of the standard normal distribution. Next use the Excel functions NORMSINV and NORMSDIST and provide examples of your usage for each function.
The SOX Act Prepare a Power Point presentation of at least 20 slides that includes the following:
Assess the provision of the Sox Act that requires the establishment of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) and the measures that public accounting firms are taking to ensure that they maintain their independence in all audit assignments, including the mechanisms they are establishing to ensure that the necessary independence and integrity are prevalent in all aspects of their relationship with their clients.Analyze how executives of corporate America have embraced the new regulations and requirements of the Sox Act while maintaining their purpose to produce a profit for investors and staying in compliance of the new rules in the industry. Explain what those new requirements are for the CEO and CFO of publicly traded companies. Describe your assessment of the responsibilities established for accounting personnel—including protection for whistle-blowers—and for the public accounting auditors. Determine how the responsibilities of the board of directors audit committee have changed due to the Sox Act in overseeing the financial reporting process and to hire and be in charge of the independent auditors. Provide recommended sanctions to be imposed on those who do not comply with the SOX Act provisions, and whether or not the sanctions should be stiffened or should include other personnel in the organization. Researched sources should follow these guidelines: At least half of the researched sources should be from authoritative electronic sources related to the accounting field. The findings presented in the paper should be accurate renditions of the Sox Act, including citations and references. Follow APA guidelines when citing references. Include a reference slide.
SEJPME Final Exam
SEJPME Final Exam
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion
2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”
3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law
9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)
10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness
11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True
17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night
18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False
19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression
20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10
21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True
23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations
25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton
28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.
32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective
33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)
34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)
35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment
36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable
38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate
43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military
46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False
48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command
49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams
50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective
Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30
2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical
3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization
4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service
6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice
7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions
8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture
9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True
10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control
11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan
12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False
13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff
15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False
17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7
19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)
20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence
23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces
25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises
26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade
2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information
economics
diplomacy
the military
3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True
4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force
subordinate unified command
5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts
6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational
intermediate
7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe
maritime safety
maritime security
8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy
10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints
11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service
Bureau of Navigation
12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False
13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
when directed by the President
14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy
15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process
16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct
18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve
19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent
20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine
Law of warfare
21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities
major combat operations
forcible entry operations
22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction
23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True
False
24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador
Secretary of State
25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage
26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience
opposition
vulnerability
indifference
27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council
28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False
29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem
30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort
command and control authority
unity of command
32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False
34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line
35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit
effort
workload
36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability
37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True
39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True
41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)
43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries
cyberspace operations
major combat operations
humanitarian assistance
44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True
45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War
46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation
situational awareness
influence
47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests
48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic
ill-prepared
segregated
49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True
50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
CJUS Quiz 3 L U
Question 1
Correct Answer:
As a result of two Supreme Court cases, ____________________, states
that have transfer hearings must provide certain rights to the juvenile,
including sufficient notice to the child”s family and defense attorney, the
right to counsel, and a statement of the reason for the court order
regarding transfer.
Question 2
Correct Answer:
____________________ in the juvenile justice system this is the
equivalent of parole in the adult criminal justice system.
Question 3
Correct
Answer:
At the end of the adjudication hearing, most juvenile court statutes require
the judge to make a factual finding on the legal issues and evidence. What
is not one of the ways the case is resolved?
Question 4
Correct Answer:
Gerald is 16 years old and is on trial for a double homicide in a criminal
court. In the state where he was charged, the prosecutor decides what
court to file charges.
Based on the scenario, what type of waiver procedure occurred?
Question 5
____________________ is the primary form of correctional treatment
used by the juvenile justice system.
Correct Answer:
Question 6
Correct Answer:
The process in which a juvenile referral is received and a decision made
to file a petition in juvenile court to release the juvenile, to place the
juvenile under supervision, or to refer the juvenile elsewhere is called:
Question 7
Correct Answer:
Milieu therapy, developed by William Glasser during the 1970s,
emphasizes current, rather than past, behavior by stressing that offenders
are completely responsible for their own actions.
Question 8
Correct Answer:
At what stage does a juvenile probation officer determine whether court
intervention is necessary?
Question 9
Correct
Answer:
Which of the following is not an associated problem with intake?
Allowing juvenile courts to enter into consent decrees with
juveniles without filing petitions and without formal adjudication
Question 10
Correct
Answer:
In a study of the extent of racial discrimination and disparity among
juvenile property offenders in Missouri, it was found that:
Question 11
Correct Answer:
Once the agency makes a decision that judicial disposition is required, a
____________ is filed.
Question 12
Correct Answer:
Today, all fifty states and the District of Columbia have statutory
restitution programs.
Question 13
Correct Answer:
Johnny was found delinquent and was sentenced to a secure detention
facility for 18 months. He was represented by a newly licensed juvenile
public defender. Johnny”s parents are considering an appeal based on
deficiencies in his defense.
Juvenile court statutes normally restrict appeals to cases where the
juvenile seeks review of a _________________, which is a document
that ends the litigation between two parties by determining all their rights
and disposing of all the issues.
Question 14
Correct Answer:
Which of the following items was not identified as one of the minimum
standards for all juveniles confined in training schools in the Inmates of
the Boys” Training School v. Affleck decision?
Question 15
Correct Answer:
Which of the following statement about balanced probation is true?
Question 1
Selected
Answer:
Cruz v. Beto, a Supreme Court decision involving the right of inmates to
exercise their religious beliefs, involved:
a Buddhist who was not allowed to use the prison chapel and
was placed in solitary confinement for sharing his religious
material with other prisoners.
Question 2
Selected Answer:
Today, prisoners must be given all but which of the following due process
rights?
All of the above must be given.
Question 3
Selected Answer:
Each frivolous or malicious lawsuit or appeal that an inmate files counts as
a ________ against the inmate.
strike
Question 4
Selected Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four main parts of the Prison
Litigation Reform Act?
Emotional abuse requirement
Question 5
Selected
Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four goals that jails should attempt
to accomplish in preparing inmates for reentry in society?
Avoid a complex and time-consuming intake and
assessment process
Question 6
Selected Answer:
The overriding concern in prisons and jails is, and should be:
security.
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points
Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to
Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to criminal justice research. Address each of the following in your paper:
Identify the various types of survey research utilized in the field of criminal justice.
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of:
o In person surveys
o Telephone surveys
o Computer-based surveys
o Focus group surveys
Describe the purpose of sampling as part of the research process.
Identify the types of reliability and validity as they are applied to criminal justice research.
Discuss the importance of ensuring that data collection methods and instruments are both reliable and valid.
Include at least four peer-reviewed references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Submit your assignment to the Assignment Files tab.
Reflection paper
You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.
Law Reflection paper written at HomeworkNest.com
You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.
You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.
The student will choose a major event (disaster, incident, catastrophe or preplanned event) involving homeland security (emergency management focus allowed). The student will advise the instructor, through email, of the event topic for approval. The student will provide an in-depth analysis of the event starting with an overview of the event. The student will analyze the use of all phases of emergency management (mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery, and the subcomponents found in each phase) as much as is applicable to each based on the event. The analysis will be written in standard current APA formatting using headings and references. A minimum of 5 references are required. The analysis and critique must be at least 5 full pages of content. The student will conclude the analysis with recommendations for improvements in any areas found to be lacking.
The Analysis and Critique of Major Event Paper
After Action Results based on Analysis/Critique of Major Event Paper PowerPoint Presentation
The student will summarize his or her findings in an audio/visual PPT presentation. The student will use PPT Mix, which may be turned into a Windows Media Video WMV, to present and record his or her critique. A minimum of ten content slides are required. The student will at the minimum use the same headings as required in the written analysis. The presentation be at least ten minutes long and should last no more than 30 minutes maximum. References will be included on the last slide. Once submitted for grading the student will email his or her PPT video to the rest of the class for their review. The student does not have to show him or herself in the video unless they wish to.
Course Textbook: Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
Reference Attached
Please read the case DCS Sanitation Management v. Eloy Castillo (and supporting notes), linked in the reference below:
DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/login?auth=CAS&url=http://www-lexisnexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/lnacui2api/api/version1/getDocCui? oc=00240&hnsd=f&hgn=t&lni=4J44-6R600038X2H9&hns=t&perma=true&hv=t&hl=t&csi=270944%2C270077%2C11059%2C8411&secondRedirectIndicator=true
Once you have read and reviewed the case scenario, respond to the following questions:
Discuss the legal implications for employers and employees for requiring employees to sign noncompete agreements. What factors did the court consider in making its decision? Compare and contrast Ohio and Nebraska’s positions on noncompete clauses.
Which state’s laws support ethical reasoning in the resolution of this case?
Your response should be a minimum of two pages in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying APA style citations.
References:
Course Textbook(s) Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://advance-lexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/api/permalink/d34471c6-4b5b-4640-8dbe202b87d433b1/?context=1516831
LAW 531 Final Exam Guide 2018
Which of the following is a difference between embezzlement and larceny?
Embezzlement is an unintentional tort, whereas larceny is a nonintent crime.
Embezzlement is the stealing of property by a person to whom the property was entrusted, whereas larceny is the stealing of property by a person not entrusted with it.
Embezzlement is usually punishable by the payment of monetary damages, whereas larceny is usually punishable by the death penalty.
Embezzlement is the snatching of personal property from a person’s home, whereas larceny is the snatching of personal property from a person on the street.
Workers’ compensation is defined as the:
insurance obtained by employees from private insurance companies and government-sponsored programs.
remuneration awarded to employees and their families when the employees are injured on the job.
set of programs mandated by the government to ensure safety in places of work.
system that provides retirement and death benefits to covered employees and their dependents.
Corporate officers are best described as:
directors elected by a corporation’s shareholders.
owners of a corporation with limited liability for its debts and obligations.
employees appointed to manage the daily operations of a corporation.
Which of the following scenarios is an example of law and ethics contradicting each other?
An iron-ore manufacturing company provides its employees with high-quality safety equipment.
A florist in the United States employs an illegal immigrant to help the immigrant and her family overcome their financial difficulties.
A large apparel retailer copies the trademarked garment designs of a well-known fashion designer.
A restaurateur, whose restaurant is violating labor laws, bribes a federal official to prevent him from reporting the violations.
Which of the following best describes the term warranty?
It refers to the terms in a sales contract stipulating the party that will bear the risk of loss of goods during shipment.
It is a purchaser’s title to goods obtained by the impersonation of another person.
It is the seller’s assurance to a buyer that the goods sold meet certain standards of quality.
It refers to the transfer of possession of stolen property to a person who had bought the property without the knowledge that it has been stolen.
Which of the following is a category of torts?
Nonintent crime
Professional malpractice
Strict liability
Personal liability
Which of the following is a remedy that requires the breaching party to perform the acts promised in a contract?
Special damages
Punitive damages
Binding arbitration
Specific performance
Which of the following is a characteristic of torts?
They are usually not tried by the jury.
They are punishable by the death penalty.
They are tried by criminal procedure.
They are brought to court by a plaintiff.
Laws that prohibit discrimination based on race, gender, or religion in the workplace primarily serve the function of:
creating a new status quo.
minimizing the freedom of employees.
advocating social justice.
providing a basis for compromise
Which of the following is a difference between arbitration and mediation?
Arbitration is an informal method of dispute resolution, whereas mediation is a formal method of dispute resolution.
The decision of an arbitrator is nonbinding, whereas the decision of a mediator is binding.
An arbitrator is authorized to issue an award, whereas a mediator can only assist in reaching a settlement.
The role of an arbitrator is merely to assist parties in reaching a settlement, whereas the role of a mediator is similar to the role of a trial judge.
Which of the following is an advantage of franchising?
It enables two businesses to pool their resources to pursue a common goal.
It allows a business to consist of only general partners.
It allows businesses to reach profitable new markets.
It grants free access to the intellectual property of a business to anyone in the same market.
Laws that protect governments from being overthrown primarily serve the function of:
minimizing individual freedom.
maintaining the status quo.
advocating social justice
providing bases for compromise
A goal of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is to:
allow directors and executive officers of public companies to be given personal loans from the companies.
end conflicts of interest, establishing better corporate governance.
enable smooth settlement of alleged fraud among major corporations.
control and closely monitor the financial accounts of all corporations in the United States.
Insider trading is considered illegal because:
it fails to account for the short-swing profits brought into a company.
it limits investment opportunities for the investing public.
it results in excessive losses for the company.
it makes use of nonmaterial public information.
Which of the following is a criticism of the ethical fundamentalism theory?
It does not reach an agreement on what the universal rules should be.
It does not allow people to decide for themselves what is right and what is wrong.
It is impossible to measure the “good” that may result from different actions.
It is impossible in the real world to expect that everyone in society will obey moral rules.
Ken owns a small convenience store in a street corner in California. One afternoon, a teenage boy enters his store, looks around, and prepares to walk out without buying anything. Ken is wary of the boy because of the boy’s shabby clothing. He stops and asks the boy to empty his pockets and then questions him for about five minutes. After finding that the boy does not have anything from the store on him, Ken reluctantly lets him go. Which of the following is a merchant protection statute that Ken has violated?
Adverse possession
Reasonable grounds for suspicion
Adequate assurance of performance
Reasonable duration of detention
Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining a patent for an invention?
The invention must be original.
The invention needs to be recognizable to the general public.
The invention needs to be made of highly valuable components.
The invention must be in the form of a service.
Which of the following applies to trade restraints that are inherently anticompetitive?
The rule of reason
The per se rule
The rule of four
The pro rata rule
Which of the following is prohibited by the Food Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) with regard to food?
The sale of non-organic food products
The sale of adulterated food
Labeling of raw seafood products
Labeling of genetically engineered food products
The power and authority to exclude competition or control prices is known as __________.
monopoly power
implied power
enumerated power
reserved power
A group boycott occurs when:
competitors agree that they will distribute their goods to only a particular portion of the market.
competitors at one level of distribution collectively refuse to deal with others at a different level of distribution.
parties enter into a trade agreement that has greater anticompetitive effects than procompetitive effects.
parties at different levels of distribution enter into an agreement to adhere to a schedule that will stabilize prices.
When can an arbitrator’s decision and award be appealed to the courts?
While drafting a submission agreement
When an arbitration is binding
While entering a negotiation
When an arbitration is nonbinding
The obligation owed by individuals to one another not to cause any unreasonable harm or any risk of harm is called:
duty of restitution.
duty of restoration.
duty of loyalty.
duty of care
Robert orders coffee while having breakfast in a diner. He suffers third-degree burn injuries when the coffee accidently spills on him. He presses charges against the diner for failing to notify him that the coffee was exceptionally hot. In this scenario, the diner is guilty of a(n) __________.
nonintent crime
unintentional tort
intent crime
intentional tort
When an employer does not discriminate against women in general but treats women above the age of 40 differently, the employer is practicing __________.
racial discrimination
religious discrimination
sex-plus discrimination
color discrimination
The manifestation of the substance of a contract by two or more individuals is called ______.
acceptance
an offer
an agreement
consideration
When one party acquires a license to use another party’s business model and intellectual property in the distribution of goods and services, the arrangement is a __________.
franchise
joint venture
kickback
limited liability partnership
Corporate officers are elected by a corporation’s __________.
owners
common stockholders
board of directors
preferred stockholders
An agency that appears to be created by a principal but does not exist in reality is called a(n) __________.
fully disclosed agency
apparent agency
implied agency
agency by ratification
Helen buys a toy railway set for her 3-year-old son, Ben. The product’s cover mentions that the toy is suitable for children only aged between 3 and 12. While playing with the toy one evening, without Helen’s supervision, Ben chokes on an inch-long engine driver figure that forms part of the train. Although he survives, he is traumatized by the incident. For which type of defect can Helen sue the toy manufacturer?
Failure to warn
Defect in product packaging
Failure to tamperproof
Defect in manufacture
Patty Plaintiff’s Really Bad Week
In this assignment, you’ll need to decide whether Patty Plaintiff has any legal claims arising from a series of unfortunate events. After reading the scenario, answer the questions that follow, making sure to fully explain the basis of your decision.
Patty Plaintiff is shopping at her favorite store, Cash Mart. She is looking for a new laptop, but she can’t find one she likes. Then, realizing that she is going to be late for an appointment, she attempts to leave the store, walking very fast. However, before she can leave, she is stopped by a security guard who accuses her of shoplifting. Patty, who has taken nothing, denies any wrong doing. The officer insists and takes Patty to a small room in the back of the store. The guard tells Patty that if she attempts to leave the room she will be arrested and sent to jail. At this point, the guard leaves the room. Patty is scared and waits in the room for over an hour until the manager comes in and apologizes and tells Patty that she is free to go.
About this same time, Gerry Golfer is hitting golf balls in his backyard. Gerry decides to break out his new driver and hits a golf ball out of his backyard into the Cash Mart parking lot. The golf ball hits Patty Plaintiff on the head and knocks her unconscious just as she is leaving the store.
Five days later, after recovering from her injuries, Patty returns to work at Acme Corporation. Unfortunately, she used her company email to send her mom a personal email about her injury despite being aware that Acme’s company policy prohibits use of company email for personal communication. Patty’s supervisor, Barry Bossley, discovers Patty’s violation and Patty is reprimanded. When Patty goes home she uses her personal computer to post disparaging comments about her boss and Acme Corporation on social media. The next day Patty is fired from her job.
In 5-6 pages, answer the following question: What types of legal claims could Patty make against Cash Mart, Gerry, and Acme Corporation? Consider the following:
What are the possible tort claims that Patty can make against Cash Mart? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
Was Gerry negligent when he hit the golf ball that injured Patty? Discuss the elements of negligence and use facts from the scenario to support your decision.
Does Patty have a right to privacy when using Acme Corporation’s e-mail system? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
Can Patty be legally fired from her job for making negative comments about her boss and her company on social media? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
Assignment 2 International crime witness. Part 1
Write a 3 to 5 pages paper in which you.
Determine the pertinent demograhic, social, political, and economic factors about your chosen county. The country is Saudi Arabia’
.2. Examine the manner in which your chosen country criminal code would likey view the crime you witnessed. Provide a rationale for the response.
3.Choose two individuals rights that the United States grants criminal suspects, such as search and seizure, right to counsel, etc., and analyze Saudi Arabia perspective on each right. Provide support for the analysis.
Investigate the manner in which the police in Sauri Arabia would likely treat the defendant, Provide justification for the response.
Classify the fundamental similarties and difference betwee the police culture in Saudi Ararbia compared to the United States.
Use at least 4 quality references. No wikipedia.
The Assignment must be APA Format. Typed, double space using Times New Roman font size 12 with one-inch margins on all sizes, citations and references must follow APA .
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student name, the professor name , the corse title and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page lenth.
I want origina work, my school use Safe assign. Paper must be less than 20%. Thanks Please disregard attachment that my student course guide. Once again thanks.
Levels Of Competing Cultures
Investigate the competing cultures within the Dallas, Texas metropolitan area also known as the ‘The Dallas–Fort Worth–Arlington, Texas Metropolitan Statistical Area’. To prepare for this assignment, read the attached and other information you find on the internet to answer the following.
You must use APA format. Citations and resources must also be included and documented properly according to APA format.
What is the African American population of the area?
Have Hispanic immigrants surpassed African Americans in numbers since 2000?
Do the numbers of foreign born in the area exceed the number of other native born Americans (with no African American or Hispanic American backgrounds) in this area?
Has unemployment in the area decreased since 2000? Has family income in the area decreased since 2000?
Has unemployment in the area increased for any specific group since 2000? Has family income in the area increased for any specifc groups since 2007?
Is there a coalition of some kind comprised of all major ethnic and racial groups in the area? Have there been cultural clashes as with the recent World Trade Center mosque proposal in New York City?
NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS
Discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS
In a well-organized, two to three page essay (minimum 750 words) discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS. Be sure to include who benefited by this decision and what negative consequences might follow.
(Essay must be plagiarism free)
REference Showalter,J. S.(2012). The Law of Healthcare Administration.(7th ed.). Chicago, IL: Health Administration Press. ISBN: 978-1-56793-421-2
The Exclusionary Rule Evaluation
Write a 700- to 1,400-word paper in which you analyze the rationale and purpose of the exclusionary rule and identify exceptions to the exclusionary rule. In your analysis, state the costs and benefits of the exclusionary rule, as well as alternative remedies to the rule. State your position on the exclusionary rule and provide support for your position. Pleaseremember, when stating your position, not to use the first person. This is a requirement of proper APA formatting and my policies.
Incorporate information from the CJi Interactive activity in your paper.
There are two broad approaches to financing health care: a market-based
Who is provided access?
Most government financed frameworks are slanted to make accessible for each individual living in the country with treatment which proposes access to some major level of consideration. Dominant part of individuals pay for scope through duties and extra charges. In government financed health mind the government may give care itself, for example, the United Kingdom or they may contact different suppliers to do as such ex: Germany and Japan or in the United States government financed
Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606
Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
(20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
13, 7, 6, 6, 3
14, 12, 11, 10, 8
65, 65, 65, 65, 65
12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
(20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
Why is the median relatively unaffected?
Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
(24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximatepercentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
(20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
(16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.
Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.
(2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:
(2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:
(2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the directionand strength of the correlation coefficient?
(4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
(2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
(4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.
Critical Writing Assignment
Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.
Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.
Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.
Organizational and Strategic leadership
Question:
Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history
Which of the following can be classified as a priori knowledge?
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
Plato holds that we obtain knowledge:
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Plato was hesitant to build a theory of knowledge on the physical world because
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:
Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following is NOT one of the five sources of knowledge listed in Dew & Foreman:
Question 8
3 out of 3 points
By “noumena” Kant is referring to:
Question 9
3 out of 3 points
Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:
Question 10
Rene Descartes was a:
Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Scientific anti-realism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist. They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work. This view fits best with which truth theory:
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
The philosopher who believed we are born with innate “categories of understanding” was:
Question 13
3 out of 3 points
Locke divided knowledge into matters of fact and relations of ideas.
Question 14
3 out of 3 points
According to Morris, source skepticism questions:
Question 15
3 out of 3 points
Evidentialists hold that some propositions are self-evident.
Question 16
3 out of 3 points
According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the evidentialist principle.
Question 17
3 out of 3 points
According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.
Question 18
Which is NOT Morris’ position on relativism:
Question 19
3 out of 3 points
According to the traditional definition of knowledge:
Question 20
3 out of 3 points
Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. Which category of skeptic is she?
Question 1
Which of the following statements are not true according to Hasker.
Question 2
The function of a metaphysical theory is to:
Question 3
In searching for the “ultimately real,” Hasker is looking for:
Question 4
According to Hasker, Metaphysical theories should be judged on the basis of their factual adequacy, logical consistency, and explanatory power.
Question 5
According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.
Question 6
The view that our choices are governed by whatever is our strongest motive in a given situation is called:
Question 7
According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:
Question 8
Determinism claims that ultimately our choices don’t make any difference.
Question 9
According to Hasker, a misconception that some have of libertarianism:
Question 10
The scientific case for determinism holds that:
Question 11
Behaviorism states that mental properties are merely a special category of physical properties.
Question 12
Which of the following statements is true about Behaviorism?
Question 13
Which of the following is a weakness/problem with Materialism?
Question 14
Emergentism states that the mind is produced by the brain and therefore is identical with the brain.
Question 15
Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Dualism?
Question 16
The term “contiguity” means:
Question 17
Which of the following affirms the existence of essences?
Question 18
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:
Question 19
Which of these is a characteristic of substances?
Question 20
According to Dr. Baggett, which of the following best describes libertarian free will:
Question 1
Which of the following is not true concerning expert authority?
Question 2
Which of the following is true of metaphysical theories?
Question 3
One rule of thumb in doing metaphysics is the recognition that there are some beliefs that should never be challenged or questioned.
Question 4
In the field of Metaphysics, wholism is the view that complex entities are identical to their component parts.
Question 5
In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.
Question 6
Which doctrine does Hasker suggest to be a way to resolve of the problem of divine foreknowledge and human freedom?
Question 7
The theory that says some actions are chosen and performed by the agent without their being any sufficient cause or condition prior to the action itself.
Question 8
For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:
Question 9
According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:
Question 10
One major argument for libertarianism is:
Question 11
Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?
Question 12
According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.
Question 13
On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.
Question 14
Based on his discussion of John Hick’s examples of resurrection, which of the following statements would Hasker NOT agree to?
Question 15
Idealism tries to avoid the MindBody problem by reducing mental properties to physical properties.
Question 16
An example of an essential property is the fruit on a tree.
Question 17
The kind of “relationship” that is the real problem behind the mind/body problem can be best characterized as:
Question 18
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:
Question 19
Of the elements of causality, the one that seems to be missing in the relationship between the mind and the body:
Question 20
Which of these is a characteristic of substances?
Question 1
In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.
Question 2
Some of the most important questions in metaphysics deal with:
Question 3
Christian theology has made extensive use of pagan philosophy in developing and interpreting
Christian revelation.
Question 4
Which of the following is not a source of authority mentioned in Hasker?
Question 5
According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.
Question 6
According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:
Question 7
According to Hasker, determinism claims that people never make choices.
Question 8
One major argument for libertarianism is:
Question 9
According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:
Question 10
For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:
Question 11
Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?
Question 12
What is one of the advantages of Dualism?
Question 13
According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.
Question 14
On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.
Question 15
Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Materialism?
Question 16
Which of the following is not an element of causality?
Question 17
Which of the following is an essential property of a person according to the PointeCast.
Question 18
Metaphysical Realism says that:
Question 19 Which of the following is a correct statement about “essences?”
Question 20
Which of these is an example of an essential property?
Question 1
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:
Question 2
According to Hume, why can we never arrive at certainty?
Question 3
According to Dew & Foreman, faith is one of the sources of knowledge.
Question 4
For Locke, which of the ideas below would be a complex idea:
Question 5
For Hume, which of the following would be a matter of fact:
Question 6
For Plato, the realm where things are constantly in a flux and changing is:
Question 7
The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:
Question 8
Scientific antirealism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist. They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work. This view fits best with which truth theory:
Question 9
David Hume was a:
Question 10
The one below that is NOT one of the necessary criteria for the traditional definition of knowledge:
Question 11
Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:
Question 12
The basis for Descartes knowledge of the material world was:
Question 13
One problem with the coherence theory of truth is that it is not linked with the real world but only systems of beliefs.
Question 14
According to the traditional definition of knowledge:
Question 15
Certain basic beliefs can be accepted rationally without evidence or proof, according to:
Question 16
According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.
Question 17
According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the evidentialist principle.
Question 18
Morris’ list of ancient skeptics included:
Question 19
William James held that precursive faith allowed us to set aside evidence in order to choose a belief.
Question 20
Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. Which category of skeptic is she?
Question 1
3 out of 3 points
According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
A good metaphysical theory should be characterized by explanatory power.
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
According to Hasker, we can and should thoughtfully evaluate our worldviews.
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
According to Hasker, which is true of the premises we use in doing metaphysics?
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
The function of a metaphysical theory is to:
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Why evolution is true 10 page critique and personal reflection
Term Draft Paper
APA style Focus on the reflections of the understanding of what evolution is and what it is not. Include personal journey of discovery related to concept of evolution. Philosophical, theological,and sociological reflections,
demonstrartion of a scientific understanding of evolution critique andevaluaute ideas presented in the book using scientific understanding of the process of evolution.
_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity,
Judaism, and Islam:
Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Dualists believe in one God.
Question 8
3 out of 3 points
It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.
Question 9
3 out of 3 points
Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.
Question 10
3 out of 3 points
Sally believes that the truth about God cannot be known, so she cannot make a judgment on the issue. What position does Sally represent?
Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.
Question 13
3 out of 3 points
What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 14
3 out of 3 points
“The universe might always have existed” is an irrelevant objection to the Cosmological argument.
Question 15
3 out of 3 points
According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 16
3 out of 3 points
In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 17
3 out of 3 points
The elements appealed to for design in the universe include which of the following?
Question 18
3 out of 3 points
“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 19
3 out of 3 points
The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 20
Needs Grading
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1
_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 2
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 3
Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion.
Question 4
Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 5
The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.
Question 6
Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?
Question 7
If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.
Question 8
________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 9
Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.
Question 10
What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?
Question 11
This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.
Question 12
The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.
Question 13
Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 14
Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 15
According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 16
According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 17
The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.
Question 18
According to the class presentation, one can successfully provide a single argument for God’s existence.
Question 19
The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 20
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.
Question 2
If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 3
According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.
Question 4
In a critical dialogue about religious beliefs, Evans recommends beginning by asking the other person to accept your own religious presuppositions.
Question 5
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 6
Dualists believe in one God.
Question 7
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 8
What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?
Question 9 If all the premises of a valid deductive argument are true, then the argument is:
Question 10
Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.
Question 11
According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 12
Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?
There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.
Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.
Question 13
The ontological argument states that the natural world appears to exhibit a purposive design and infers its cause must therefore be an intelligent designer.
Question 14
According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.
Question 15
Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 16
According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.
Question 17
In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 18
The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.
Question 19
A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 20
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1
Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”
Question 2
According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.
Question 3
“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?
Question 4
According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.
Question 5
According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.
Question 6
Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?
Question 7
Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?
Question 8
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 9
Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his non-existence is not possible:
Question 10
Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.
Question 11
Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 12
Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?
Question 13
The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.
Question 14
Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:
Question 15
Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.
Question 16
According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 17
In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 18
The fine-tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 19
A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 20
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non‐believers, she is acting like:
Question 2 3 out of 3 points
“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?
Question 3 3 out of 3 points
Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.
Question 4 3 out of 3 points
The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.
Question 5 3 out of 3 points
Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion. Question 63 out of 3 points
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 7 3 out of 3 points
________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 8 3 out of 3 points
Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.
Question 9 3 out of 3 points
Natural theologians attempt to see what can be known about God independently of any specific religious authority.
Question 10 3 out of 3 points
Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?
Question 113 out of 3 points
What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 12 3 out of 3 points
According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.
Question 13
3 out of 3 points Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 14 3 out of 3 points
Non‐temporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 15 3 out of 3 points
Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?
There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.
ii. Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.
Question 16 3 out of 3 points
According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.
Question 17 3 out of 3 points
The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.
Question 18 3 out of 3 points
The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 19 3 out of 3 points
The fine‐tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 20
Needs Grading To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1
3 out of 3 points
Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.
Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?
Question 8
3 out of 3 points
Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.
Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?
Question 10
3 out of 3 points
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 11
3 out of 3 points
The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?
Question 13
3 out of 3 points
A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.
Question 14
3 out of 3 points
Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:
Question 15
3 out of 3 points
_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.
Question 16
3 out of 3 points
According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.
Question 17
3 out of 3 points
The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.
Question 18
3 out of 3 points
The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 19
3 out of 3 points
“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 1 The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.
Question 2 The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.
Question 3 Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.
Question 4 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.
Question 5 Theology is an activity carried on outside of a religious tradition.
Question 6 Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.
Question 7 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 8 An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 9 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his nonexistence is not possible:
Question 10 It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.
Question 11 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 12 _________ arguments are also known as firstcause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.
Question 13 A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.
Question 14 Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:
Question 15 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 16 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 18 According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.
Question 19 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 2 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 3 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.
Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 5 Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.
Question 6 Dualists believe in one God.
Question 7 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his nonexistence is not possible:
Question 8 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.
Question 9 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.
Question 10 What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?
Question 11 According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 12 Naturalism claims that one should be moral because it is one’s best interest to be moral.
Question 13 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 14 The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.
Question 15 Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?
Question 16 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 19 According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1 Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”
Question 2 According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.
Question 3 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 5 According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.
Question 6 Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?
Question 7 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.
Question 8 Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.
Question 9 Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.
Question 10 Dualists believe in one God.
Question 11 This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.
Question 12 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 13 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:
Question 14 According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.
Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.
Question 16 The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 17 According to Craig, believing that objective meaning, value, and truth exist in a universe that ultimately is meaningless and without value is
Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 19 The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 2 According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.
Question 3 Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.
Question 4 What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 5 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 6 Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.
Question 7 Dualists believe in one God.
Question 8 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 9 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.
Question 10 Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?
Question 11 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 12 The cosmological argument and the teleological argument complement each other and therefore could be viewed as part of a general case for the plausibility of theism.
Question 13 Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 14 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:
Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.
Question 16 The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 17 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 18 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 19 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475
Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
What kinds of responses might be considered?
What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing
Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
Give a summary of the event
Outline the response by police and fire agencies
Detail roles within the structured incident command
Outline crisis response objectives
Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response
Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library
Resources:Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
Outline termsand authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”
The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Research and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.
Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.
Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references
There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?
How can algebra help us to understand a probability question?
How can Algebra help us to understand a probability question? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer using MLA guidelines.
Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words?
Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.
Defend or refute one of the following statements
Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.
Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.
The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.
Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.
Write a 100 – 500 words essay comparing and contrasting White privilege and colorism.
Organize your paper as an essay with introduction, body, and conclusion paragraphs.
Include answers to the following questions:
What is White privilege?
If you are a person of color, what are some examples of being denied privilege due to your color?
Can you think of privileges that change, depending on the social context (as one moves from one place or social setting to another)? Provide some examples.
What is colorism? How did this idea develop, and what are its roots?
What are some examples of colorism within today’s overall American society?
Cite and reference in APA style all sources of information used.
Format your assignment according to appropriate course-level APA guidelines
Factorial math problem help!
How many consecutive zeroes are there at the end of 100! (100 factorial). For example, 12! – 479,001,600 has two consecutive zeroes at the end.
Clock hand problem
What is the first time after 3 PM when the hour and minute hands of a clock are exactly on top of each other. Be as specific as possible to the time.
A windowless room has three identical light fixtures, each with an identical light bulb contained within. Each light is connected to one of the three switches outside of the room. Each bulb is switched off at present. You are outside the room, and the door is closed. You have one, and only one, opportunity to flip any of the external switches. After this, you can go into the room and look at the lights, but you may not touch the switches again. How can you tell which switch goes to which light?
Need help with this proof, complex numbers, very hard
The function f(z) is complex valued in the complex plane. f(z) is bounded and entire. Prove that f(z) must be a constant.
HELP: Card Stopping Optimization
In your hands is a standard deck of 52 playing cards (26 black and 26 red). You are drawing cards one at a time. If you draw a red card you get a dollar. If you draw a black card you get fined a dollar. You can stop drawing cards anytime you want. Cards are not returned to the deck after being drawn. Come up with an optimal stopping rule that you can use to maximize your expected payoff. What is the expected payoff following your rule?
What is the sum of integers from 1 to n?Justify your formula with a proof.
Black and White Marbles in Two Jars
Suppose there are a large number (>10000), N, of black marbles in a jar. There is an equal number, N, of white marbles in a separate jar.
A quantity, Q, of white marbles are taken out of the jar with white marbles and transferred to the jar with black marbles. The jar with black and white marbles is thoroughly mixed so that the distribution of black and white marbles is uniform.
Afterward, the same quantity of marbles, Q, is taken from the mixed jar of black and white marbles and transferred to the original jar of white marbles to restore the total number of marbles to the original number, N.
What is the expected relationship between the final proportion of white marbles in the white marble jar and black marbles in the black marble jar?
History and Racial Relations in the United States HELP ASAP
In the past, we have seen occurrences in places like Ferguson, Staten Island, Baltimore and Charleston that bring into question race relations on the structural level. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim about the extent to which the story of Elizabeth and Hazel is emblematic of contemporary race relations in the United States. Are the incidents recounted in this story representative of the structures of power at work today, or is the Elizabeth and Hazel story an anomaly, a thing of the past?
Is my thesis arguable? Thanks!
Charles Darwin created a lasting impact on how differently we view humanity because he explored his own identity, which lead him to produce new theories of evolution and exchange those ideas with the public, therefore encountering the resistance to his beliefs.
I Need Help Crafting a Narrative – Problem Scenario
This paper will be a creative effort. You may need to talk with others who have experience with the issue you’re writing about or do some reading to ensure that your description of the problem is accurate. Your personal experience with the problem is very important, but you want to make sure it is typical of the problem you are describing. What you want to produce in this section will be similar to the first act of a play or the first part of a short story. You don’t have to resolve the issues you raise in your description. Instead, you will leave the people you describe in the midst of a dilemma they can’t seem to solve. Your major characters will probably be unhappy, stressed, frightened, or anxious.
For example, you may describe the struggles between a young girl with eating disorders and the conflicts it creates in her family. You want your description to capture the essence of what it is like for both the young girl and her parents as they struggle with this problem. You may have personal experience with this situation or you might have observed other individuals and families who have struggled with this issue. If you need to go to other sources, you can find published case studies that will help you tell an accurate story of a family in this situation. 300 to 400 words. Use APA formatting
Problem Scenario
(10 pts) Believability: Does the scenario capture the essence of the problem?
(10 pts) Complexity: Does the scenario go beyond a superficial understanding?
Writing
(10 pts) APA professional appearance (margins, font, headings, etc.)
The concept of the American Dream is embedded in the fabric of this country. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim regarding what the American Dream is today and how it might vary based on race, class, gender, education, sexuality. You must address at least one of these categories in your paper. If there is overlap between two categories (say, race and class or gender and sexuality) you may address how those factors interact.
Note: To answer this question, you must craft a working definition of the American Dream and this definition must be supported by evidence. However, claiming that the American Dream is “different things to different people” is not arguable. Be sure to craft a definition of the American Dream that can be supported and debated
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Describe the role of Jubal Early in the American Civil War.
Give a quick backgrounder on his early life. Then discuss his role in the Civil War. Cite references as well.
What is the Copernican principle?
Discuss this concept clearly and comprehensively. Provide examples when possible. Cite references.
Describe the role of Jubal Early in the American Civil War.
The SOX Act Prepare a Power Point presentation of at least 20 slides that includes the following:
Assess the provision of the Sox Act that requires the establishment of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) and the measures that public accounting firms are taking to ensure that they maintain their independence in all audit assignments, including the mechanisms they are establishing to ensure that the necessary independence and integrity are prevalent in all aspects of their relationship with their clients.Analyze how executives of corporate America have embraced the new regulations and requirements of the Sox Act while maintaining their purpose to produce a profit for investors and staying in compliance of the new rules in the industry. Explain what those new requirements are for the CEO and CFO of publicly traded companies. Describe your assessment of the responsibilities established for accounting personnel—including protection for whistle-blowers—and for the public accounting auditors.Determine how the responsibilities of the board of directors audit committee have changed due to the Sox Act in overseeing the financial reporting process and to hire and be in charge of the independent auditors.Provide recommended sanctions to be imposed on those who do not comply with the SOX Act provisions, and whether or not the sanctions should be stiffened or should include other personnel in the organization.Researched sources should follow these guidelines:At least half of the researched sources should be from authoritative electronic sources related to the accounting field.The findings presented in the paper should be accurate renditions of the Sox Act, including citations and references.Follow APA guidelines when citing references.Include a reference slide.
You will be responsible for writing a Research Paper focusing on a social psychology topic of your choosing. The topic must be one that is discussed in the textbook. The focus of the paper will be to present and review peer-reviewed research regarding your topic as well as provide a Biblical integration discussion for your topic.
For your paper, you must thoroughly review and cite 2 peer-reviewed journal articles that demonstrate research regarding your topic. Your articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental) in which the authors of the article actually formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results themselves. Theoretical/review articles and meta-analyses are not permitted to be reviewed for this paper.
Some examples include (please note you do not need to choose one of these topics):
For a paper on the Bystander Effect, you could find an article in which the authors manipulated the number of people present and measured helping behavior.
For a paper on Relational Aggression, you could find an article in which the authors measured and correlated parenting styles with degree of relational aggression in daughters.
Keep in mind that these 2 articles must come from academic, peer-reviewed journals. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases should not be used. In addition to your 2 peer-reviewed articles, you must also cite the textbook in your paper. Other book sources will not count toward the source requirements. In the Biblical Integration section of your paper, you will be required to cite 2 different Scriptural references.
You will submit your paper as a Microsoft Word document through Safe Assign. A “draft” link is available for you to check the originality of your work, but all papers must be submitted in the “final” link for credit and grading. Your paper must contain original work to this course only (i.e., you cannot reuse a paper or portion of a paper you have written in the past for another course). Papers that do not include a topic covered in the textbook will be returned and you will be asked to submit a new paper. Normal late policies will apply. In addition, the paper should be written mostly in your own words. Excessive use of quotes is not permitted and will result in a score reduction. Be sure you are paraphrasing information from articles well and citing correctly to avoid plagiarism. Paraphrasing that is too close to the original wording is still considered plagiarism. All instances of plagiarism will be reviewed and action taken as necessary (e.g., point reduction, Code of Honor report, a score of 0 for the paper, failure of the course).
Your paper must include a current APA-style title page, abstract, body, and reference section. The body of the paper must be at least 5 pages with a maximum of 7 pages (not including the title page, abstract, and references). Papers shorter or longer than this requirement are subject to point deductions. Please note that there is a specific page length requirement for the Biblical Integration section (1 page). Be sure to use current APA-style citations throughout the paper to avoid plagiarism.
The structure of the paper must follow the outline below and all section components must be included for maximum credit.
Title Page– current APA style
Abstract– current APA style
Introduction
Provide a definition of the social psychology concept you are researching
Provide a brief background of why this concept is important
To relate your concept to “real life,” provide a specific, real-world example of your concept. This example can be either something you’ve witnessed in your own life, an example you “make up” to illustrate your concept, or an example used in one of your sources. If you use an example from a source, be sure to cite appropriately.
Review of Article I
Introduce the article, including the purpose of the article and any relevant hypotheses.
Summarize methods (i.e., type of participants, procedures used to manipulate or measure variables)
Summarize study results
Explain how study and results demonstrate or support the social psychology topic chosen (you must be able to demonstrate that you can relate the specific study results to the general topic chosen)
Review of Article II
Include all of the same elements listed above
Biblical Integration (must be at least one pagein length)
Discuss your topic from a Biblical standpoint (i.e., what does the Bible say about it). You must use at least twodifferent Scriptural references in this section to support your discussion.
Briefly summarize the Biblical standpoint discussed
Reference Page– Current APA style
Include 2 peer-reviewed journal articles describing original research
Include textbook reference
(Note that the Bible does notneed to be included in your reference section)
Research Paper: Topic and References Instructions
For this assignment you will decide on your Research Paper topic and find references to be used in your paper. Before completing this assignment, thoroughly read the Research Paper Instructions in Module 7 so you know the guidelines for the paper and what will be expected of you. Be sure you are picking a Social Psychology concept covered in your textbook, and one for which you can present an example and discuss from a Biblical standpoint. For this assignment, you will create and submit an APA-style reference page, submitted as a Word document. The reference page must include 3 references with the following guidelines:
Two references must be peer-reviewed journal articles. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases may not be used.
Both of these journal articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental). This means that the authors of the article actually conducted a study themselves in which they formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results. No theoretical/review articles or meta-analyses are allowed.
One reference needs to be your course textbook
Please note that the instructor will not be able to look up each of your articles to verify whether they meet criteria (although this is sometimes obvious from the title). You are responsible for ensuring any article you submit fits the guidelines above. If not, you will need to do more research before your paper is due since you will not be able to complete the paper correctly without appropriate articles and will incur significant point deductions at that time. Attached to the end of this document is a list of questions you can ask yourself to ensure you are choosing appropriate articles.
At the bottom of the page underneath your APA-style references, list your topic (including the chapter number for where your topic is found in your textbook) and two different Scriptural references that you will use in your paper. This requirement allows you to check whether or not you can apply Scripture to your topic, which will be required for your final paper. Please list out both the Scriptural citation and the text. If you are referencing long passages of text, please only type out one or two of the most applicable verses for this assignment. For your paper, you can reference more than what you list here if needed. The information can be organized as follows:
Topic (including chapter number where topic is found):
Scriptural Reference 1: (e.g., John 3:16 (NIV) “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.”)
Scriptural Reference 2:
**You will be allowed to alter your references and Scriptural choices if necessary for the final Research Paper, but will need to ensure that any changes to your references continue to meet requirements for full credit on your paper.
Your Research Paper: Topic and References is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.
Questions to Ask Yourself When Choosing Articles
Does my article come from a peer-reviewed journal article?
If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following other sources:
Does the article come from a magazine, book, website, or thesis/dissertation database?
Did the authors of this article conduct an original research study themselves?
If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following questions:
Are the authors onlyreviewing someone else’s work?
Are the authors compiling others’ research into a meta-analysis?
Are the authors onlyproviding a theoretical discussion of the topic or describing a model they are proposing?
Did the authors form hypotheses, seek out a sample, collect data from this sample, analyze their own results, and provide a discussion of these results?
If you can answer YES to questions 1, 2, and 3, then your article is appropriate for your paper!
Please see attached file for assisnment requirments. Must use 2 scholar articles.
Analyze the 4 common elements in most human disturbance according to Kelly (threat, fear, anxiety, and guilt). Compare each of these constructs with what Scripture says regarding these particular elements.
This assignment does not require a Title page or Abstract page, but does require a Reference page and in-text citations
Supplemental Assignment 2 Instructions
You will take an active part (e.g., spend half a day volunteering/helping out) in a community outreach activity (not a university or church activity unless it is an activity that reaches out to the community) of your choosing, which will familiarize you with the needs of the community. Some examples of activities include volunteering at a shelter, a camp, a recreation center, a home for girls or boys, a soup kitchen, a clothing bank, a detoxification center, a tutoring center for younger children, a vocational rehabilitation center, Habitat for Humanity, a minority community center, etc. After the completion of the activity, you will document your experience by writing a paper. The paper will be written in current APA format and will include one title page, one abstract page, two full pages of text, and one reference page. The paper will explain in detail: (1) the experience (what was observed, how it affected you), (2) what was learned from the project (what the community’s needs are, what ethics are in place, how you can help make a difference), and (3) a discussion of two course concepts that relate to your observations. For number three (3), cite two empirical studies from the research literature that address each one of the two course concepts discussed relating to sociocultural diversity that you observed in the outreach activity. Make sure to cite each of these concepts in correct APA format.
Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health
Read the “Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health” article. (link below)
In this quantitative study, the authors attempted to investigate the possible relationship between two spirituality variables (religious coping styles and spiritual well-being) and two psychological variables (anxiety and depression). Also studied were differences between those who self-disclosed a spiritual/religious identity and those who did not. Their data analysis concluded that individuals who reported a high use of religious coping styles also reported high levels of spiritual well-being.
The authors felt a limitation of their study was in defining ‘spirituality.’ State how that can be an obstacle in doing religious counseling.
The authors state, “Spiritual well-being can clearly incorporate God into ones’ life while also incorporating self-reliance.” Is this not a seeming contradiction? Give your thoughts on this.
Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:
Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.
Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:
McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
On the Cosmological Argument:
McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
On the Teleological Argument:
McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
On the Problem of Evil:
McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?
b. McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond t
to McCloskey’s question?
On Atheism as Comforting:
In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.
Though colonialism may have officially ended, the effects of colonialism are still very much present today. This is true in modern-day Africa.
Review the following resources for additional information on the slave trade in Africa:
Origins of African Slaves: Slave Trade Routes
Lasting Effects of Slavery on Africa
African Countries and Independence Dates
Select 1 of the following countries from which the most slaves originated:
Democratic Republic of the Congo
Ghana
Ivory Coast
Use this template to complete your paper:
For your selected country, identify the former colonial ruling country.
Identify your selected country’s date of independence from the colonial ruling country, and discuss the length of time the slave trade operated there.
Discuss how the depopulation and fractured familial relationships inherent in the slave trade have affected your chosen country. Be sure to support your discussion with relevant examples.
o Are these effects still felt today? If so, how? Provide examples.
Based on your review of this information, what conclusions can you draw about the slave trade and its effects on your selected country?
Based on your key findings and conclusions, what recommendations do you have to help improve the conditions in the country now? Make sure your recommendations:
o include specific interventions or strategies to address the issues and constraints identified
o are feasible (politically and operationally)
o are realistic (short- and long-term)
Utilize at least 2 credible sources to support the arguments presented in the paper. Make sure you cite them appropriately within your paper, and list them in APA format on your Reference page.
Your paper should be 4–5 pages in length, not counting the Title page and Reference page. In accordance with APA formatting requirements, your paper should include a Title and Reference page, should be double-spaced, and include a running head and page numbers.
References
Boddy-Evans, A. (2017, September 18). Chronological list of African independence. Retrieved from https://www.thoughtco.com/chronological-list-of-african-independence-4070467
Pruitt, S. (2016, May 3). What part of Africa did most slaves come from? HISTORY. Retrieved from http://www.history.com/news/ask-history/what-part-of-africa-did-most-slaves-come-from
Ross, W. (2007, March 29). Slavery’s long effects on Africa. BBC News. Retrieved from http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/africa/6504141.st
PSY 370 Assignment 2 LASA I—Amphetamine Use and Abuse
Aaliyah continues to struggle with balancing her work hours and her schoolwork. She has been drinking coffee to help her stay awake, but it is no longer working. She has an exam coming up and needs to stay up to study.
Aaliyah decides to take an amphetamine to stay awake to study for the exam. She promises herself that she will only take it this one time for the exam. The drug allows her to stay awake and alert while she is studying for the exam. She also feels that she is learning the material better as a result of the amphetamine. When the grades are in, Aaliyah receives an A on her work.
As the semester continues, Aaliyah turns to amphetamines more and more often to help her stay awake to complete her schoolwork. Soon, Aaliyah finds that one pill no longer keeps her awake as long as she needs.
She starts taking more than one pill at a time. She knows that taking amphetamines so often is not good for her health, and she finds she experiences an increase in headaches when she takes them, but she continues to take them because they are helping her be successful in school and at work.
Based on the case study, prepare a paper that addresses the following:
Examine the change in amphetamine use and abuse in the U.S. from the 1950s to the present.
Explain to which schedule amphetamines belong and why they are on the Schedule of Controlled Substances.
Explain the effects Aaliyah might be experiencing as a result of her regular amphetamine use. Be sure to include:
o Acute effects, chronic effects, and withdrawal
o Effects on physiology (brain and body), behavior, mood, and toxicity
Give at least three indications from the case study suggesting there may be a problem with Aaliyah’s substance use. That is, describe at least three likely behaviors that Aaliyah is likely to exhibit if she is misusing amphetamines.
Determine whether Aaliyah has a substance use disorder. Include a discussion of DSM criteria. Use the template to help you make the assessment.
Write a 4-5-page paper in Word format. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.
Examined the change in amphetamine use and abuse in the U.S. from the 1950s to the present.
24
Explained why amphetamine is on the Schedule of Controlled Substances and to which schedule it belongs.
20
Explained the acute, chronic, and withdrawal effects of amphetamines on physiology, behavior, mood, and toxicity.
40
Described at least 3 behaviors Aaliyah is likely to exhibit if she is misusing amphetamines.
40
Used DSM criteria to determine whether Aaliyah has a substance use disorder.
32
Style (4 points): Tone, audience, and word choice Organization (12 points):Introduction, transitions, and conclusion
Usage and Mechanics (12 points): Grammar, spelling, and sentence structure
APA Elements (16 points): In text citations and references, paraphrasing, and appropriate use of quotations and other elements of style
44
Total:
200
HHS 497 Week 2 Assignment Theory and Research Related to Social Issue
HHS 497 Week 2 Assignment Theory and Research Related to Social Issue
By now, you have had the opportunity to explore some of the fundamental elements of your social issue of interest. In this written assignment, you will now focus your attention on identifying and analyzing the scope of scholarly literature that addresses the social issue. Specifically, you will access the Ashford University Library, in addition to other scholarly content from previous coursework that might be pertinent (e.g., textbooks, research articles, etc.), to find sources that examine theoretical perspectives and relevant research that pertain to your selected topic.
This assignment will require that you develop a research-based report demonstrating theory and research methodology related to your social issue.
In your paper
• Describe two to three theories that relate to your topic area in some manner. To accommodate the broad
spectrum of social issues that might be explored, aim to find theories that attempt to explain some the following areas:
o Thereason(s)forwhythesocialissueexistsorpersists
o Factorsthatcontributetoit
o Social, environmental, political, or economic considerations that underlie it o Emergingalternativeviewpointsthatclarifytheissue
Critically evaluate the theories described, taking into account their benefits and limitations, as well as how health and human service organizations might use them to better understand the scope of the issue.
Describe two to three examples of research studies that have explored the issue. These studies must come from their original source; do not rely on literature reviews that summarize research conducted by others. Studies can examine any area related to the issue with the exception of interventions, as this will be addressed in the Week Three assignment. Examples include:
o Exploring the social issue’s impact on a specific group
o Identifying relationships between variables (Trochim, 2006) related to the issue
o Examining social attitudes and viewpoints through survey research (Trochim, 2006)
o Identifyingemergingtrends
o Exploring lived experiences or personal accounts using qualitative data (Trochim, 2006)
Analyze pertinent aspects related to the research studies, such as core aims/objectives, research methods used, findings, and implications for future research and/or practice.
The Theory and Research Related to Social Issue Paper
Must be three to four double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and
formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate title page with the following:
o Titleofpaper
o Student’sname
o Course name and number o Instructor’sname
o Datesubmitted
Must use at least five scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
o TheScholarly,PeerReviewed,andOtherCredibleSourcestableoffersadditionalguidanceon
appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.
Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the
HHS 497 Week 1 Assignment Background of Social Issues
HHS 497 Week 1 Assignment Background of Social Issues
Background of Social Issues. Due by Day 7. Throughout the course of your degree program, you have had the opportunity to examine various topical issues that are addressed by professionals in the health and human services field. To demonstrate your mastery of the program learning outcomes, you will synthesize your knowledge of various content areas related to a social issue of your choosing, and use this to develop an original intervention (i.e., strategy, technique, or application) to address this particular topic in your Final Paper. To facilitate in the development of this final assignment, you will prepare and submit the first of four written assignments, which will involve a thorough overview of your proposed social issue.
More specifically, your task will involve addressing the following content areas:
Identify a social issue that health and/or human service organizations address in some capacity and
discuss its current impact on group(s) affected by it. When selecting an area of focus, take into account broad topics that have been exhaustively scrutinized at the scholarly level, such as homelessness, mental health, aging, substance abuse, child welfare, etc. A good place to begin your search on an area of interest is the HHS A to Z Index.
Describe the historical underpinnings of this issue. Factors to consider include: where and how it originated, pertinent events and their dates, and its current status.
Discuss specific factors contributing to the social issue. Consider environmental, social, political, and economic reasons that have attempted to explain why this issue persists.
Evaluate the impact of this social issue on the delivery of health and human service efforts by reviewing the scholarly literature and relevant professional/governmental resources for evidence of formal responses in the form of policy implementation, legislation, or Acts related to this social issue. What impact has this had on how health and/or human service organizations provide support in terms of direct practice with clients and within communities?
At minimum, your submission must include three scholarly sources (excluding the required course readings), two of which must come from the Ashford University Library (e.g., articles, professional critiques, research reports, etc.). The third source can come from either the library or from a professional website ending in .gov.
The Background of Social Issues Paper
Must be three to four double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and
formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate title page with the following:
o Titleofpaper
o Student’sname
o Course name and number o Instructor’sname
o Datesubmitted
Must use at least three scholary sources (excluding the required course readings), two of which must come from within the Ashford University Library (e.g., articles, professional critiques, research reports, etc.). The third source can come from either the library or from a professional website ending in .gov).
o The Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources table offers additional guidance on appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.
Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the
ETH 321 Assignment Week 3 Team Assignment Sexual Harassment Education for Managers
The purpose of this assignment is to define sexual harassment in the workplace and its negative effect on employees and the business, to analyze the requirements for a sexual harassment claim, to develop methods that a business can adopt to reduce or eliminate sexual harassment claims and litigation, and to assess liability based on the form of business entity.
Read the following scenario. High-profile sexual harassment scandals, such as allegations against Bill Cosby, Harvey Weinstein of the Weinstein Company, and Bill O’Reilly and Roger Aisles of Fox News, are changing the landscape of workplace sexual harassment claims and litigation.
Conduct a roundtable discussion (in person, web conference, or via e-mail, text, etc.) with your Learning Team members regarding sexual harassment as a growing ethical and legal concern for businesses today. Each Learning Team member must be prepared to discuss each topic. Assign a group moderator to keep the discussions on track. Your discussion should last at least 45 minutes to one hour and include the following:
Define sexual harassment and discuss applicable law (such as the Civil Rights Act of 1964). How does the state law in your state address sexual harassment?
Discuss a recent sexual harassment claim in the news and whether media coverage is beneficial or detrimental to reporting and reducing sexual harassment claims in the workplace. Should sexual harassment claims be addressed publicly or handled privately?
Explain the ethical and legal considerations of a business protecting its employees (the accuser, the accused, and other employees in the company) while a workplace sexual harassment investigation is underway. Does your answer change if the allegation is a widely known scandal-making front page news?
Compare the sexual harassment liability of a business entity that is a sole proprietorship with an entity that is a corporation.
Recommend risk management procedures a business can implement to avoid or reduce sexual harassment claims from occurring in the workplace.
You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position. Both have similar educational
You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position. Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications. However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.
The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package. The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home. The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home. Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.
Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:
Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.
As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?
Use APA format and references
Str 581 week 1 career connection values and strategy paper
Choose an organization according to the following:
Current employer
Most recent or former employer
Place of business that you have patronized or have been familiar with over a long period of time.
o Avoid choosing an organization that is so large that historical data would be difficult to apply. Firms in the Russell 2000® index may fit well, whereas firms in the Dow 30 Industrial index probably do not.
The organization can be a start-up that you or a significant other may create in the future. For a start-up, focus on an entrepreneurial idea that is of substantive interest, so this project leaves you with a product you may leverage in the future.
Write a 1,050-word paper in which you address the following:
Identify the major components of the strategic management process.
Discuss how these components work together to create value for the organization.
Evaluate the company’s mission statement, vision statement, motivation strategy, innovation strategy, and people strategy. If the organization does not have one or more of these, how does that affect the organization and its people?
Explain the role of ethics and corporate social responsibility in strategic planning. How does this direct their strategy? How does the organization’s vison and mission align with your own values and vision? If you are currently working for the organization, how does your role influence this and vice versa?
Problem 1 Estimate the daily carbon utilization to remove chlorobenzene from 1 million gal/day of
Problem 1 Estimate the daily carbon utilization to remove chlorobenzene from 1 million gal/day of groundwater saturated with chlorobenzene. Assume a chlorobenzene concentration of 5 mg/L is acceptable for discharge to a POTW.
Problem 2 Provide a preliminary design of a carbon adsorption system (i.e. the height of the adsorption zone, the number and size of column units, and the daily carbon usage rate) for the removal of 2,4,6- trichlorophenol from 250,000 gal/day of water. The following data are provided: Bohart-Adams model: a = 2.3 days/ft; b = -10 days (for the 90% removal line) in laboratory tests where trichlorophenol concentration was reduced from 395 mg/L to 10 mg/L at a loading of 4 gal/(ft2 ∙min) using laboratory columns with the following specifications: 2.3 m column length, 0.051 m column diameter, and 0.5 L/min flow rate. The adsorption zone was 19 ft. Assume that the unit weight of carbon is 481 kg/m3 .
Problem 3 A plating waste with a flow of 40,000 gal/day contains 274 mg/L of NaCN. Determine the amounts of chlorine as Cl2 and NaOH required to oxidize the cyanide to CO2 and N2.
Problem 4 A waste contains 150 mg/L of copper at a flow rate of 75 L/min. Determine the amount of sodium borohydride required to treat this waste.
Resources: Section 508 Website, including Subpart B
Resources: Section 508 Website, including Subpart B
Prepare a 7- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation that explains Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.
List several of the technical requirements placed on software applications (§ 1194.21) and web-based applications (§ 1194.22), then explain the purpose each serves.
Incorporate additional research or academic information to support your presentation.
Format your PowerPoint® speaker notes according to APA guidelines.
GSCM-440 Iowa Elevators 3-1 Kirtis Gibbs DeVry University
What were the executives looking for from the procurement group to provide?
What is the corporate structure today and what will it look like in the future?
What is the overall plan? What does purchasing have to do with the categories? If they do it, then what is the outcome? Would it encounter support or resistance?
Create a case to clarify the new structure and the benefits that will be created from it.
British petroleum – BP-Conduct research using Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources
Select one of the companies you would like to research below:
British Petroleum (BP)
Facebook
Hyundai
Dunkin’ Donuts
Netflix
Conduct research using Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources to address the following required elements:
State what you believe is the distinctive competence and core competence of your selected company.
Give an example of how the values and mission statement help to shape planning. Additionally, discuss some internal and external factors that may influence the business in the future.
Complete the SWOT Analysis template for your selected organization; applying each of the categories in evaluating the company.
Support your claims with examples from required materials and/or other scholarly or credible resources, and properly cite any references.
complete and include the swot table in the paper
Refs and cite with the book below, journal articles and any other sources
BUS ADM 201 Introduction to Financial Accounting
1 Name:_________________ BUS ADM 201 Introduction to Financial Accounting TA:___________________ Spring 2018 Disc #:_________________ EXTRA CREDIT III Due at 11:59 on Saturday, May 12th GRADING: Worth up to 15 points. Carefully READ the requirements on page 2 first. Partially completed problems will earn no credit—that means all requirements must be FULLY completed. All work must be completed by hand. If you complete all items as requested, you will earn at least 7.5 points. The remaining points are dependent upon the accuracy of your answers. Round amounts to the nearest dollar, if applicable. Jamukha Corporation prepares annual financial statements. The balance sheet at December 31, 2016, is presented below. Jamukha Corporation Balance Sheet December 31, 2016 Assets Liabilities and Stockholders’ Equity Cash 22,500 Accounts payable 52,900 Accounts receivable 28,000 Common stock ($1 par) 10,000 Allowance for doubtful accounts (350) Paid-in capital in excess of par – Common stock 90,000 Inventory 55,000 Retained earnings 76,750 Prepaid insurance 4,500 Equipment 230,000 A/D – Equipment (110,000) 229,650 229,650 During 2017 the following transactions occurred: 1. Purchased $176,000 inventory on account. Jamukha Corp. uses a perpetual inventory system. 2. Sales of $335,000, plus 5.6% sales tax, were made to customers on account. Cost of goods sold was $194,500. 3. Received $26,000 cash down payment for orders that will be shipped next year. 4. Issued 12 year, $80,000 face value, 4% bonds on July 1 at 102. The bonds were sold to yield an effective annual rate of 3.79101%, and they pay interest every January 1 and July 1. 5. Collected $245,000 on account. 6. Paid general expenses of $41,250. 7. Paid $220,750 on account. 8. Paid the sales tax collected from customers to the State of Wisconsin. 9. On January 1, Jamukha Corp. sold for $9,000 cash equipment which originally cost $65,000. Accumulated depreciation for this equipment as of December 31, 2016, was $50,000. This transaction is exempt from sales tax. 2 10. Issued 1,600 shares of $100 par, 7% preferred stock for $194,000 cash. 11. Purchased equipment on July 1, 2017, for $180,000 cash. 12. Purchased 500 shares of Jamukha Corp. common stock from a disgruntled shareholder for $42 per share. 13. Recorded salaries and payroll taxes. Employee’s gross salaries were $60,000. FICA tax was withheld at a rate of 7.65%. Federal income taxes (FIT) of $6,000 were withheld, and state income taxes (SIT) of $3,000 were withheld. The federal unemployment tax (FUTA) rate was 1%, and the state unemployment tax (SUTA) rate was 3.25%. No cash has been paid yet, so record all the amounts due in the appropriate payable accounts. 14. The paychecks and payroll taxes from entry #13 were paid. Adjusting Journal Entries: 15. Straight-line depreciation with a 5 year useful life and no salvage value is used for equipment purchased in previous years. The equipment purchased on July 1, 2017 (#11) is depreciated using double-declining balance with a useful life of 15 years and a $30,000 salvage value. (Hint: The equipment was purchased midway through the year.) 16. Accrue bond interest payable and amortize bond discount/premium. Jamukha Corp. uses effective-interest amortization. (Hint: The bond was issued midway through the year.) 17. The prepaid insurance relates to a policy purchased on December 31, 2016. This insurance expires at a rate of $300 per month. Record as a general expense. 18. Jamukha estimates that 5% of accounts receivable are uncollectible. 19. Jamukha Corp. is an S-corporation and is not subject to income tax. REQUIRED: Print out the solution pages for the general journal, ledger, and worksheet that follow and enter the following transactions. I suggest that you use a pencil. a. Enter the transactions numbered 1-14 in the general journal provided on the following pages. b. Post the journal entries to the ledger accounts for items 1-14. Look at the cash account for an example of how to use the running balance ledger. I have completed the first two lines of it for you. It is a good idea to keep track of whether your balance column is a debit or a credit, particularly for contra accounts. c. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance at December 31, 2017 and enter on the worksheet. d. Worksheet requirement: Using your unadjusted trial balance (c) above and the data for adjusting entries (#15-19), prepare a 12-column worksheet similar to worksheet for Sierra Corporation in Chapter 4 and the prior extra credit assignments. You will not receive any credit if the worksheet is incomplete. To save time, you are not required to formally journalize or post your adjusting entries (you can just enter them on the worksheet). You are not required to record closing entries. e. Prepare a formal statement of cash flows using the T-account approach. Templates for the statement and the T-account worksheet are attached. (You are not required to formally present the other statements— just complete them on the worksheet.) 3 EXTRA CREDIT III SOLUTION Name _____________________ Journal: Requirement (a) General Journal Debit Credit a.1. a.2. a.3. a.4. a.5. a.6. a.7. a.8. a.9. a.10. a.11. a.12. a.13. a.14. 4 General Ledger: Requirement (b) CASH DR CR BALANCE Beginning 22,500 22,500 DR Item 3 26,000 48,500 DR ACCOUNTS RECEIVABLE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 28,000 28,000 DR ALLOWANCE FOR DOUBTFUL ACCOUNTS DR CR BALANCE Beginning 350 350 CR INVENTORY DR CR BALANCE Beginning 55,000 55,000 DR PREPAID INSURANCE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 4,500 4,500 DR EQUIPMENT DR CR BALANCE Beginning 230,000 230,000 DR ACCUM DEPRECIATION – EQUIPMENT DR CR BALANCE Beginning 110,000 110,000 CR 5 General Ledger: Requirement (b) continued ACCOUNTS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 52,900 52,900 CR SALARIES PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SALES TAX PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FICA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FIT PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SIT PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FUTA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SUTA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE UNEARNED REVENUE DR CR BALANCE BONDS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE PREMIUM ON BONDS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE 6 General Ledger: Requirement (b) continued COMMON STOCK ($1 PAR) DR CR BALANCE Beginning 10,000 10,000 CR PREFERRED STOCK ($100 PAR) DR CR BALANCE PAID-IN CAPITAL IN EXCESS OF PAR – COMMON STOCK DR CR BALANCE Beginning 90,000 90,000 CR PAID-IN CAPITAL IN EXCESS OF PAR – PREFERRED STOCK DR CR BALANCE TREASURY STOCK DR CR BALANCE RETAINED EARNINGS DR CR BALANCE Beginning 76,750 76,750 CR SALES REVENUE DR CR BALANCE COST OF GOODS SOLD DR CR BALANCE GENERAL EXPENSES DR CR BALANCE SALARIES EXPENSE DR CR BALANCE PAYROLL TAX EXPENSE DR CR BALANCE LOSS ON DISPOSAL DR CR BALANCE 7 Account Title DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR Totals Net loss Totals Ending retained earnings Totals Sheet Jamukha Corporation Worksheet: Requirement (c), (d) For the Year Ended December 31, 2017 Unadjusted Adjusted Income Retained Balance Trial Balance Adjustments Trial Balance Statement Earnings Statement 8 Jamukha Corporation Statement of Cash Flows: Requirement (e) For the Year Ended December 31, 2017 CASH FROM OPERATING ACTIVITIES: Increases Decreases Net Cash From Operating Activities CASH FROM INVESTNG ACTIVITIES: Net Cash From Investing Activities CASH FROM FINANCING ACTIVITIES: Net Cash From Financing Activities NET INCREASE IN CASH Cash at beginning of year Cash at end of year 9 110,000 10,000 28,000 52,900 0 350 0 90,000 55,000 0 0 4,500 0 76,750 230,000 0 0 Accounts receivable Accounts payable Pref. stock ($100 par) Statement of Cash Flows T-Account Worksheet Requirement (e) Use the formal statement to show activity within the cash account. On this statement, debits to cash correspond to increases and credits correspond to decreases. A/D – Equipment Common stock ($1 par) Allow. for doubtful accts Interest payable PICEP – CS Inventory Unearned revenue PICEP – PS Prepaid insurance Bonds payable Retained earnings Equipment Premium on B/P Treasury stock
FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project-DELTA AIRLINES
FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project
Grading Guidelines
The paper is graded on a 100-point scale. The following describes the breakdown of points available:
25 points for ORGANIZATION
This is a long and complicated paper, so it is essential that you are organized in your presentation of the information. Please be sure to present each item in the order suggested by the outline and have clear headings and sub-headings to make it easy to follow. Also, it is important to organize the paper in a way that prevents the reader from having to flip back and forth from one section to another to follow the discussion (e.g., ensure that each ratio/calculation is discussed immediately after it is presented, rather than having a separate table elsewhere in the report.
25 points for ANALYSIS
To receive the full amount of points for this category, be sure to provide thorough discussion of your analysis process and an explanation of what the ratio/calculation means. It is important to demonstrate that you have a good understanding of why each calculation was done, and what information can be learned from it. Also, in this section I remove points for any situation where I feel that the analysis presented is not the students’ original work (i.e., taken from another source without attribution.) While you can certainly refer to other analysts’ work regarding your company, please be sure to conduct your own analyses and draw your own conclusions throughout the paper. If citations are not provided for others’ analyses in several instances throughout the paper, the appropriate academic sanctions will be imposed.
25 points for THOROUGHNESS
In order to receive the full amount of points available for this portion of the paper, you must include every item listed on the general outline provided at the beginning of the course. Points will be removed if any item is missing from the analysis.
25 points for CONTENT
In this category, I am assessing the extent to which the entire report provides a complete analysis of the company, utilizing the steps we practiced throughout the course. Do you tie it all together with connecting themes and findings? Or, is it just a list of the various calculations with a sentence or two in between explaining each. A successful paper will present a congruous and thorough analysis of the company with insightful and thoughtful commentary throughout.
FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project
FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project
Grading Guidelines
The paper is graded on a 100-point scale. The following describes the breakdown of points available:
25 points for ORGANIZATION
This is a long and complicated paper, so it is essential that you are organized in your presentation of the information. Please be sure to present each item in the order suggested by the outline and have clear headings and sub-headings to make it easy to follow. Also, it is important to organize the paper in a way that prevents the reader from having to flip back and forth from one section to another to follow the discussion (e.g., ensure that each ratio/calculation is discussed immediately after it is presented, rather than having a separate table elsewhere in the report.
25 points for ANALYSIS
To receive the full amount of points for this category, be sure to provide thorough discussion of your analysis process and an explanation of what the ratio/calculation means. It is important to demonstrate that you have a good understanding of why each calculation was done, and what information can be learned from it. Also, in this section I remove points for any situation where I feel that the analysis presented is not the students’ original work (i.e., taken from another source without attribution.) While you can certainly refer to other analysts’ work regarding your company, please be sure to conduct your own analyses and draw your own conclusions throughout the paper. If citations are not provided for others’ analyses in several instances throughout the paper, the appropriate academic sanctions will be imposed.
25 points for THOROUGHNESS
In order to receive the full amount of points available for this portion of the paper, you must include every item listed on the general outline provided at the beginning of the course. Points will be removed if any item is missing from the analysis.
25 points for CONTENT
In this category, I am assessing the extent to which the entire report provides a complete analysis of the company, utilizing the steps we practiced throughout the course. Do you tie it all together with connecting themes and findings? Or, is it just a list of the various calculations with a sentence or two in between explaining each. A successful paper will present a congruous and thorough analysis of the company with insightful and thoughtful commentary throughout.
FINA 408 Individual Project
SAMPLE – OUTLINE FOR SPRING 2018 WILL DIFFER
Introduction
Purpose of project
Short description of company
Governance and Communication Analysis
Introduce the concepts addressed in the questions below, then answer the questions and discuss the importance of the following:
Who is the company’s current CEO? Is he or she also the Chair of the Board? Discuss the company’s considerations in making this decision. Do you agree that this is the best leadership structure for this board? Why or why not?2. Who serves on the board’s Audit Committee? How many members are Financial Experts? What experience qualifies them for that designation? Do you agree with this designation? Why or why not?
3. Is there more than one class of common stock outstanding? How many votes does each share of each class of stock get? Does any one person or entity control the voting rights at the company? If so, who?
4. Who or what entity holds the highest percentage of the company’s stock? Are most of the beneficial owners reported individuals or institutions? What are the implications of the company’s ownership structure?
5. What was the total amount of compensation paid to the CEO last year? What portion of his or her total pay was annual bonus and non-equity incentives? What were the main performance measures used to determine the CEO’s annual bonus and/or non-equity incentives?
6. Listen to a recording of an analyst call (AKA earnings call or quarterly conference call) for your company. Listen to about 15-20 minutes of the call and write a summary of your observations, including any questions that you might have wanted to ask the CEO/CFO, etc.
III. Strategy Analysis
Industry Analysis: Porter’s Five Forces
Rivalry among existing firms
Threat of new entrants
iii. Threat of substitutes
Buyer power
Supplier power
Company Strategy Analysis
Is your company following a Low Cost Leader or a Product/Service Differentiation Strategy?
Where would evidence of this strategy show up in their financials?
Financial Analysis
Recasted Income Statement (3 years)
Recasted Balance Sheet (3 years)
Common Size Income Statement (3 years)
DuPont Analysis (1 year)
Profitability Analysis Ratios (3 years)
Profit Margin
Return on Assets (ROA)
iii. Return on Equity (ROE)
Gross profit margin
EBIT Margin
Accounts Receivable Turnover and Days’ Receivable
vii. Inventory Turnover and Days’ Inventory
viii. Accounts Payable Turnover and Days’ Payable
PP&E Turnover
Long-term Asset Turnover
Risk Analysis
Non-Financial Risk Analysis
Review the Risk Factors section of the company’s most recent 10-K and discuss the three factors mentioned which, in your opinion, may have the most significant impact on the company
Calculate and discuss the company’s dividend payout ratio (if applicable) and the Sustainable Growth Rate
Weighted Average Cost of Capital
Use the CAPM to compute the required rate of return on equity capital for the company
Determine the cost of debt (if applicable) and the cost of preferred stock (if applicable)
Compute the weighted average cost of capital for the company
Explain why this cost is important for companies to consider, and discuss the WACC for your company
Forecasted Income Statement (5 years)
Prepare a forecasted income statement for 5 years
Explain in detail your projections for Revenues, including any segment analysis conducted
How mangers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce
Write a one page paper on how Managers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce. How can each generation learn from one another? Then tell me what can Generation X do to make the workplace a better place?
Analysis, Modeling, and Design
Business Case Research Paper
A Business Case Definition: Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.
For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan. Include definitions and applications. Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.
I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length. Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.
This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.
XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000. An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building. A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000. Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used. Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.
Economic Gain – 10 million
Depreciation rates are as follows:
Real Property – 39 year straight line
7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word memo to a prospective employer outlining your credentials, including: taking this class, all of the projects you have done for this class individually and with your team, and their impact on the businesses you have engaged with so a senior manager reading it would want to hire you as either an operations consultant or permanent employee.
Summarize the business case for each project.
Outline what you specifically accomplished, assuming these projects were implemented, and their estimated impacts on the business.
Utilize the learnings from your skills in global sourcing, procurement, and outsourcing which can also be of benefit to your target firm.
Format your assignment as if you would be giving a presentation to senior management.
Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)
Activity 2.
What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)
What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words
Activity 3.
How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.
How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.
Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each
Activity 5.
Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words
Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words
Activity 6.
What is positioning? 1 sentence
What is market mix? 20-40words
Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words
Activity 7.
What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.
How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.
Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.
Activity 14.
How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.
When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words
Activity 15
How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.
How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.
Activity 16.
Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words
How can they be documented? 1 sentence
Acitivty 17.
What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10
Summative assessment 1
Question 1.
Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.
Question 2
List five examples of basic marketing activities.
Question 3.
Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words
Question 4.
Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words
The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.
The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns
The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.
Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :
Conduct market research
Develop product knowledge
Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
Clearly describe the goals that you have set
How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
What resources will you required (including team members)
Set realistic timeline for your campaign
Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text
Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management
Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)
Activity 2.
What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)
What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words
Activity 3.
How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.
How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.
Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each
Activity 5.
Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words
Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words
Activity 6.
What is positioning? 1 sentence
What is market mix? 20-40words
Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words
Activity 7.
What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.
How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.
Activity 8.
How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples
What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples
Activity 9.
What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence
What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples
Activity 10
From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples
What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence
Activity 11.
What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.
You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words
Activity 12
What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.
Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which work best? Why? 50-75 words
Activity 13
Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words
Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.
Activity 14.
How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.
When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words
Activity 15
How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.
How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.
Activity 16.
Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words
How can they be documented? 1 sentence
Acitivty 17.
What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10
Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.
Question 2
List five examples of basic marketing activities.
Question 3.
Describe the difference between organizational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words
Question 4.
Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organization’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words
Summative Assessment 2.
Project
The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.
The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognized company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns
The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.
Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to:
Conduct market research
Develop product knowledge
Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
Clearly describe the goals that you have set
How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
What resources will you required (including team members)
Set realistic timeline for your campaign
Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
A Business Case Definition: Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.
For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan. Include definitions and applications. Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.
I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length. Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.
This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.
XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000. An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building. A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000. Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used. Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.
Economic Gain – 10 million
Depreciation rates are as follows:
Real Property – 39 year straight line
7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:
Maryland tobacco farmers will be subsidized if they switch from growing tobacco to growing crops such as flowers and organic vegetables. How does offering farmers a payment to exit tobacco growing influence the opportunity cost of growing tobacco? What is the opportunity cost of using the equipment owned by a tobacco farmer?
Offering farmers a payment to exit tobacco growing _______ the opportunity cost of growing tobacco.
The opportunity cost of using the equipment owned by a tobacco farmer is _______.
increases; the next best alternative forgone, which could be the production of flowers and organic vegetables
increases; the implicit cost of using the tobacco equipment
decreases; the explicit cost of using the tobacco equipment
decreases; the sum of the implicit and explicit costs of using the tobacco equipment
does not change; the next best alternative forgone, which could be the production of flowers and organic vegetables
Question 2
Perfect competition is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
firms produce an identical product.
no restrictions on entry into or exit from the industry.
buyers and sellers are well informed about prices.
a large number of buyers and sellers.
considerable advertising by individual firms.
Question 3
Which of the following illustrates economies of scale, diseconomies of scale, and constant returns to scale?
Liza’s average total cost changes from $4.50 to $2.20 when she increases salad production from 7 to 9 an hour.
Sam’s average total cost changes from $1.30 to $2.80 when he increases smoothie production from 5 to 8 gallons an hour.
Tina’s average total cost remains at $3 when she increases pizza production from 12 to 13 an hour.
Sam faces economies of scale; Liza faces diseconomies of scale; Tina faces constant returns to scale.
Sam faces economies of scale; Tina faces diseconomies of scale; Liza faces constant returns to scale.
Tina faces economies of scale; Sam faces diseconomies of scale; Liza faces constant returns to scale.
Liza faces economies of scale; Sam faces diseconomies of scale; Tina faces constant returns to scale.
Question 4
Jennifer owns a pig farm near Salina, Kansas. Last year she earned $39,000 in total revenue while incurring $38,000 in explicit costs. She could have earned $27,000 as a teacher in Salina. These are all her revenue and costs. Therefore Jennifer earned an
economic profit of $1,000.
accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $65,000.
None of the above answers is correct.
accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $26,000.
accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $38,000.
Question 5
The main source of economies of scale is
reductions in the price of factors of production.
the ability to hire less labor.
increasing average costs.
decreasing marginal product.
greater specialization of both labor and capital.
Question 6
Jennifer’s Bakery Shop produces baked goods in a perfectly competitive market. If Jennifer decides to produce her 100th batch of cookies, the marginal cost is $120. She can sell this batch of cookies at a market price of $110. To maximize her profit, Jennifer should
produce this batch of cookies because their MR exceeds their MC.
produce this batch of cookies because they will help lower her average fixed cost.
not produce this additional batch.
charge $120 for this batch.
shut down.
Question 7
Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average total cost equals
$10.00.
$1,200.
$300.
$2,400.
$12.00.
Question 8
As a typical firm increases its output, its marginal cost
is constant.
increases at first and then decreases.
is negative at first and then positive.
decreases.
decreases at first and then increases.
Question 9
To produce more output in the short run, a firm must employ more of
its fixed resources.
Firms cannot produce more output in the short run.
its variable resources.
all its resources.
the least costly resources regardless of whether they are fixed or variable.
The market demand curve in a perfectly competitive market is ________ and the demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm’s output is ________.
horizontal; horizontal
downward sloping; horizontal
downward sloping; downward sloping
downward sloping; upward sloping
horizontal; downward sloping
Question 11
Quantity (bushels of rutabagas)
Total revenue (dollars)
Total cost (dollars)
0
0
12
1
10
22
2
20
28
3
30
30
4
40
31
5
50
34
6
60
45
7
70
59
8
80
80
The above table has the total revenue and total cost schedule for Omar, a perfectly competitive grower of rutabagas. Omar’s total profit is maximized when he produces ________ bushels of rutabagas.
7
5
6
3
8
Question 12
If concerns about mad-cow disease impose economic losses on the perfectly competitive cattle ranchers, exit by the ranchers combined with no further changes in the demand for beef will force the price of beef to
fluctuate, with the trend being lower prices.
probably change, but more information about the market supply of beef is needed to answer the question.
decrease.
not change.
increase.
Question 13
Quantity of labor (workers)
Total product
(lawns mowed per week)
0
0
1
30
2
55
3
75
4
80
5
82
Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. Decreasing marginal returns first occur with the
third worker.
second worker.
first worker.
fourth worker.
fifth worker.
Question 14
The above figure illustrates a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is $10 a unit, to maximize its profit (or minimize its loss) the firm should
produce 30 units.
produce more than 30 units and less than 40 units.
shut down.
produce 40 units.
produce between 10 and less than 30 units.
Question 15
Quantity of labor (workers)
Total product
(dogs groomed per week)
0
0
1
40
2
100
3
150
4
190
5
220
6
240
Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average fixed cost equals
$2,400.
$6.00.
$10.00.
$7.50.
$600.
Question 16
When an economist uses the term “cost” referring to a firm, the economist refers to the
price of the good to the consumer.
explicit cost of producing a good or service but not the implicit cost of producing a good or service.
implicit cost of producing a good or service but not the explicit cost of producing a good or service.
cost that can be actually verified and measured.
opportunity cost of producing a good or service, which includes both implicit and explicit cost.
Question 17
Quantity of labor (workers)
Total product
(dogs groomed per week)
0
0
1
40
2
100
3
150
4
190
5
220
6
240
Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 6 workers, her average fixed cost equals
$7.50.
$2.50.
$6.00.
$600.
$10.00.
Question 18
U.S. Steel Lays Off 756
With a drop in the demand for steel pipe and tube, U.S. Steel Corporation will idle plants in Ohio and Texas and lay off 756 workers.
Source: The Wall Street Journal , January 6, 2015
As U.S. Steel responded to the fall in demand, how did its marginal cost change?
What can you say about minimum AVC in the plants that closed?
As U.S. Steel responded to the fall in demand, its marginal cost ______.
The minimum average variable cost in the plants that closed must have been ______.
decreased; greater than the market price
decreased; less than the market price
decreased; equal to average fixed cost
increased; less than the market price
increased; greater than the market price
Question 19
The law of decreasing returns states that as a firm uses more of a
fixed input and a variable input, the marginal product of the fixed input and the marginal product of the variable input both decrease.
fixed input, with a given quantity of variable inputs, the marginal product of the fixed input eventually decreases.
variable input, with a given quantity of fixed inputs, the marginal product of the variable input eventually decreases.
variable input, output will begin to fall immediately.
variable input, total output will increase indefinitely.
Question 20
GM cuts jobs at its Australian manufacturing unit
GM will cut 500 jobs, or about 12% of its workforce, at its Australian plant because of a sharp fall in demand for its locally-made “Cruze” small car.
Source: The Wall Street Journal , April 8, 2013
As GM cuts its workforce, how will the marginal product and average product of a worker change in the short run?
Suppose that before the cuts the marginal product of GM workers is below their average product.
As the number of workers decreases, the marginal product of a GM worker ______ and the average product of a GM worker ______ in the short run.
does not? change; does not change
decreases; increases
increases; decreases
increases; increases
decreases; decreases
Question 21
Output (pizzas per hour)
Total cost
(dollars)
0
20
1
35
2
49
3
61
4
71
5
79
6
85
Paulette owns a pizza parlor. Her total cost schedule is in the above table. Her total variable cost of producing four pizzas per hour is
Some amount, but more information is needed to determine this total variable cost.
$49.
$20.
$71.
$51.
Question 22
Airlines seek new ways to save on fuel as costs soar
Fuel is an airline’s biggest single expense. In 2008, the cost of jet fuel rocketed. Airlines tried to switch to newer generation aircraft, which have more fuel-efficient engines.
Source: The New York Times , June 11, 2008
Explain how a technological advance that makes airplane engines more fuel efficient changes an airline’s average variable cost, marginal cost, and average total cost.
A technological advance that makes an airplane engine more fuel efficient ______ an airline’s average variable cost and ______ an airline’s marginal cost.
increases; increases
decreases; does not change
does not change; decreases
decreases; decreases
Question 23
Labour (Workers)
Output (bikes)
Total fixed costs (dollars)
Total variable costs (dollars)
Total costs (dollars)
0
0
200
0
200
1
20
200
100
300
2
50
200
200
400
3
60
200
300
500
4
64
200
400
600
The table above gives costs at Jan’s Bike Shop. Unfortunately, Jan’s record keeping has been spotty. Each worker is paid $100 a day. Labor costs are the only variable costs of production. What is the total fixed cost of producing 64 bikes?
$200
$500
$300
$400
$600
Question 24
California’s commercial drone industry is taking off
Customers are finding ever more creative ways to use drones, and 3E Robotics Inc., America’s largest producer of consumer drones, expects sales to soar.
Source: Los Angeles Times, June 13, 2015
Explain what is happening in the market for commercial drones.
How would you expect the price of a drone to change in the short run and the long run?
How would you expect the economic profit of a drone producer such as 3D Robotics to change in the short run and in the long run?
In the short run, the equilibrium price of a drone _______ and the economic profit of drone producers _______.
falls; decreases
rises; increases
rises; remains unchanged
falls; remains unchanged
Question 25
Coffee king Starbucks raises its prices
Starbucks will raise its price because the wholesale price of milk has risen by nearly 70% in the past year. There’s a lot of milk in those Starbucks lattes, noted John Glass, CIBC World Markets restaurant analyst.
Source: USA Today, July 24, 2007
Is the cost of milk a fixed cost or a variable cost?
Describe how the increase in the price of milk changes Starbucks’ short-run cost curves.
The cost of milk is a ______ cost. An increase in the cost of milk shifts the ______ curves upward.
variable; total cost, total variable cost, and total fixed cost
fixed; average total cost, average fixed cost, total cost, and total fixed cost
fixed; total cost and average total cost
variable; average total cost, average variable cost, total cost, total variable cost, and marginal cost
Question 26
The long run is a time period that is
five years or longer.
long enough to change the amount of labor employed but not to change the size of the plant.
long enough to change the amount of labor employed.
long enough to change the size of the firm’s plant and all other inputs.
None of the above answers describes the long run.
Question 27
A perfectly competitive firm is producing 50 units of output, which it sells at the market price of $23 per unit. The firm’s average total cost is $20. What is the firm’s total revenue?
$1,150
$1,000
$150
$23
$20
Question 28
Metropolitan Museum completes round of layoffs
The museum cut 74 jobs and 95 other workers retired. The museum also laid off 127 other employees in its retail shops. The cut in labor costs is $10 million, but the museum expects no change in the number of visitors.
Source: The New York Times, June 22, 2009
Explain how the job cuts and shop closings will change the museum’s short-run average cost curves and marginal cost curve.
A cut in labor but no change in output increases the marginal product of labor.
What is the effect on the marginal cost curve?
A rightward movement along the marginal cost curve occurs.
The marginal cost curve shifts upward.
A leftward movement along the marginal cost curve occurs.
The marginal cost curve shifts downward.
Question 29
Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. The marginal product of the fourth worker is ________ lawns mowed per week.
25
5
20
80
320
Question 30
Output (gallons of ice cream per hour)
Total cost (dollars)
0
1
1
2
2
3
3
5
4
8
5
11
The Jerry-Berry Ice Cream Shoppe’s total cost schedule is in the above table. Based on the table, the marginal cost of producing the fourth gallon of ice cream is
$5.
$3.
$8.
$2.
$32.
ECON312 Week 2 Homework 2018
Question 1
The price of cotton clothing falls. As a result,
the demand for cotton clothing decreases.
both the demand for cotton clothing increases and the quantity demand of cotton clothing increases.
the quantity demanded of cotton clothing increases.
the quantity demanded of cotton clothing decreases.
the demand for cotton clothing increases.
Question 2
If a higher price for wheat decreases the quantity of corn being produced, which of the following describes what has occurred?
The quantity of wheat supplied increased and the supply of corn decreased.
The supply of wheat increased and the supply of corn decreased.
The quantity of wheat supplied increased and quantity of corn supplied decreased.
The supply of wheat decreased and the supply of corn decreased.
The supply of wheat increased and the quantity of corn supplied decreased
Question 3
If both producers and consumers believe that a product’s price will rise in the future, then at the present, demand ________ and supply ________.
increases; increases
increases; decreases
decreases; decreases
does not change; does not change
decreases; increases
Question 4
You are just about to finish college and are about to start a high paying job. Because of this new job, what is the most likely outcome in the market for cars?
Your demand for cars will decrease.
The market supply of cars will increase.
Your demand for cars will increase.
The demand and the supply for cars will decrease.
The market supply of cars will decrease.
Question 5
Many Americans are selling their used cars and buying new fuel-efficient hybrids. Other things remaining the same, in the market for used cars, ______ and in the market for hybrids ______.
Supply increases and the price falls; demand increases and the price rises
Demand decreases and the price rises; supply increases and the price falls
Both demand and supply decrease and the price might rise, fall, or not change; demand increases and the price rises
Demand decreases, supply increases, and the price falls; supply in-creases and the price fall
Question 6
If the price of a one good increases and the quantity demanded of a different good decreases, then these two goods are
substitutes.
normal goods.
inelastic goods.
complements.
inferior goods.
Question 7
Which figure above shows the effect if research is published claiming that eating pizza is healthy?
Figure B
Figure C
Figure A
Figure D
Both Figure A and Figure D
Question 8
If consumers buy a large number of plug-in electric cars, the equilibrium price of electricity will ________ and the equilibrium quantity of electricity will ________.
rise; increase
fall; increase
not change; increase
rise; decrease
fall; decrease
Question 9
Which of the following describes the law of demand? When other things remain the same, as
the quantity demanded of bread increases, the price of bread falls.
more people decide to eat pizza, the demand for pizza increases.
your income increases, you’ll buy more hamburgers.
the price of peanut butter increases, the quantity demanded of jelly decreases.
the price of gas falls, the quantity demanded of gas increases.
Question 10
In a recession, consumers have less income to spend. As a result, if dining out is a normal good, then which of the following would happen to the demand curve for dining out?
The demand curve would shift rightward.
The demand curve would not shift but the price of dining out would fall.
The demand curve would shift leftward.
The demand curve would not shift but the price of dining out would rise.
The effect on the demand curve is unknown.
Question 11
Computer chips are a normal good. Suppose the economy slips into a recession so that income falls. As a result, the demand for computer chips ________ so that the price of a computer chip ________.
decreases; rises
decreases; does not change
increases; falls
decreases; falls
increases; rises
Question 12
If income increases and the demand for bus rides decreases,
consumers are behaving irrationally.
bus rides are an inferior good.
bus rides must be a complement good with some other good.
bus rides are a substitute good.
bus rides are a normal good.
Question 13
Which figure above shows the effect of a technological advance in the production of pizza?
Figure A
Figure B
Figure C
Figure D
Both Figure A and Figure D
Question 14
Suppose over the next several years the productivity of firms producing electric cars improves dramatically. The advance in productivity leads to
an increase in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts leftward.
a decrease in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts rightward.
an increase in the supply electric cars so that the supply curve shifts rightward.
no change in the supply of electric cars, only a change in the quantity supplied of electric cars.
a decrease in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts leftward.
Question 15
If good weather conditions result in a larger than normal crop of peaches, then the
equilibrium price of peaches falls, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches decreases.
equilibrium price of peaches falls, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches increases.
equilibrium price of peaches rises, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches increases.
demand curve for peaches shifts leftward.
increase in the supply of peaches induces a greater demand for peaches, so that the equilibrium price rises and the equilibrium quantity increases.
Question 16
People eat at restaurants less often when their incomes fall because of a recession. Eating at restaurants must be
a complement to other goods.
an inelastic good.
an inferior good.
a normal good.
a substitute for other goods.
Question 17
Which of the following increases the supply of a product?
some producers going bankrupt and leaving the industry
an increase in the expected future price of the product
a higher price for the product
lower prices for the resources used to produce the product
a decrease in productivity
Question 18
If a 30 percent price increase generates a 20 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then demand is
perfectly inelastic.
inelastic.
perfectly elastic.
unit elastic.
elastic.
Question 19
Suppose the San Francisco 49ers lower ticket prices by 15 percent and as a result the quantity of tickets demanded increases by 10 percent. This set of results shows that San Francisco 49ers tickets have
an elastic demand.
a unit elastic demand.
an inelastic supply.
an elastic supply.
an inelastic demand.
Question 20
In the above figure, the movement from point a to point b reflects
a decrease in the cost of the tomato sauce used to produce pizza.
a decrease in income if pizza is a normal good.
an increase in the number of producers of pizza.
an increase in the supply of pizza.
an increase in the price of pizza.
Question 21
If the automobile workers’ union successfully negotiates a wage increase for its members, how does the wage hike affect the supply of automobiles?
The quantity supplied decreases.
The supply and quantity supplied decreases.
The quantity supplied increases.
The supply decreases.
The supply increases.
Question 22
In the above figure, the shift in the demand curve from D to D1 can be the result of
a decrease in income if pizza is a normal good.
an increase in the price of a sub sandwich, a substitute for pizza.
an increase in the price of soda, a complement to pizza.
an increase in the price of pizza.
a change in quantity demanded.
Question 23
Patrick lives near two gas stations, Exxon and Shell. If Exxon decreases the price of gas, we predict that the quantity of gasoline demanded at Shell will
increase because Exxon and Shell gas are substitutes.
decrease because Exxon and Shell gas are substitutes.
not change Exxon and Shell are different brands of gasoline.
increase because Exxon and Shell gas are complements.
decrease because Exxon and Shell gas are complements.
Question 24
Pizza is a normal good. Which figure above shows the effect of a decrease in consumers’ incomes?
Figure A
Figure B
Figure C
Figure D
Both Figure B and Figure C
Question 25
Suppose improvements in technology cause the supply of natural gas to increase and at the same time the demand for natural gas increases. What are we sure of?
Equilibrium price decreases.
Both equilibrium price and quantity increase.
Equilibrium price increases.
Equilibrium quantity decreases.
Equilibrium quantity increases.
Question 26
Consider the market for smart phones. Which of the following shifts the demand curve rightward?
an increase in the price of smart phones
a decrease in the price of smart phones
a decrease in the number of smart phone buyers
an increase in the supply of smart phones
an increase in the price of land-line phone service, a substitute for smart phones
Question 27
Price
(dollars per gallon)
Quantity demanded
(gallon per gasoline)
Quantity supplied
(gallon per gasoline)
3.73
337,562
443,074
3.63
396,398
428,008
3.65
412,031
412,031
3.62
417,899
392,665
The table above shows the situation in the gasoline market in Tulsa, Oklahoma. If the price of a gallon of gasoline is $2.20, then
There is neither a surplus nor a shortage, but the market is NOT in equilibrium.
the gasoline market in Tulsa is in equilibrium.
Without more information we cannot determine if there is a surplus, a shortage, or an equilibrium in the gasoline market in Tulsa.
there is a shortage of gasoline in Tulsa.
there is a surplus of gasoline in Tulsa.
Question 28
If a 10 percent price increase generates a 10 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then demand is
elastic.
perfectly elastic.
perfectly inelastic.
inelastic.
unit elastic.
Question 29
The law of supply reflects the fact that
suppliers have an incentive to use their resources in the way that brings the biggest return.
the demand curve is downward sloping.
higher prices are more attractive to consumers because they signal a higher quality product.
people buy more of a good when its price falls.
businesses can sell more goods at lower prices.
Question 30
In the above figure, an increase in cost of the cheese used to produce pizza
has no effect.
results in a movement from point a to point b.
shifts the supply curve from S to S2.
shifts the supply curve from S to S1.
results in a movement from point b to point a.
ECON312 Week 4 Quiz latest 2018
Question 1
Diseconomies of scale is a result of
mismanagement.
difficulties of coordinating and controlling a large enterprise.
larger fixed costs as the firm’s production increases.
technological progress.
specialization of labor, capital, and management.
Question 2
In a perfectly competitive market, the firm is a price taker because ______.
the price in the market is the price that maximizes each? firm’s producer surplus
the firms in perfect competition are interdependent and if one firm charges a lower? price, other firms will also lower their prices and all firms will incur an economic loss
it produces only a tiny proportion of the total output of a particular good and buyers are well informed about the prices of other firms
the price is dictated by the largest firm in the? market, and if a given firm lowers its price other firms will conspire against it
each firms makes a slightly different product
Question 3
Which of the following chain of events occurs when a tariff is imposed on a good?
Domestic prices fall, decreasing the domestic quantity supplied and increasing the quantity demanded.
Domestic prices fall, shifting the demand curve rightward, and consumers buy more of the good.
Domestic prices rise, shifting the demand curve leftward and the domestic supply curve rightward.
Domestic prices rise, decreasing the quantity demanded and increasing the domestic quantity supplied.
Domestic prices rise, shifting the domestic supply curve rightward.
Question 4
Energizer and Duracell dominate the battery market. It is possible that they could ________ because they operate in ________.
earn $0 profit in the long run; a monopolistically competitive market
form a cartel and collude; an oligopoly
have excess capacity; a natural monopoly
collude; a perfect competitive market
form a cartel; a monopolistically competitive market
Question 5
Which of the following is a list of fixed inputs for a hospital?
the lobby, the doctors, and the electricity it uses
antibiotics, pain medication, and other prescription drugs
the emergency room, intensive care unit, and other facilities
the nurses, receptionists, and other employees
bandages, casts, and other materials
Question 6
Cost curves shift if
technology changes.
the prices of factors of production change.
iii. productivity changes.
i and ii
i and iii
i, ii, and iii
i only
ii only
Question 7
Mylan Pharmaceuticals holds a patent on the EpiPen – designed to inject epinephrine into shock victims. In 2016, Mylan received criticism for charging $600 for this life-saving drug. The market for EpiPens is considered ________ which means that the price of an Epipen ________ its marginal cost.
a monopoly; equals
monopolistic competition; is greater than
an oligopoly; equals
a monopoly; is greater than
perfect competition; equals
Question 8
Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average variable cost equals
$6.00.
$300.
$2,400.
$10.00.
$600.
Question 9
Suppose the grocery store market in Kansas City is perfectly competitive. Then one store buys all the others and becomes a single-price monopoly. The figure above shows the relevant demand and cost curves. When the market is perfectly competitive, the quantity of steak is ________ pounds, and when the market is a monopoly, the quantity of steak is ________ pounds.
2,000; 4,000
4,000; 4,000
5,000; 3,000
4,000; less than 2,000 pounds.
3,000; 2,000
Question 10
The above figure illustrates a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is $40 a unit, to maximize its profit (or minimize its loss) the firm should
produce more than 10 and less than 30 units.
produce more than 30 units and less than 40 units.
produce 40 units.
shut down.
produce 30 units.
Question 11
Airlines seek new ways to save on fuel as costs soar
Fuel is an airline’s biggest single expense. In 2008, the cost of jet fuel rocketed. Airlines tried to switch to newer generation aircraft, which have more fuel-efficient engines.
Source: The New York Times , June 11, 2008
Is the price of fuel a fixed cost or a variable cost?
Is the price of a new fuel-efficient engine a fixed cost or a variable cost?
Explain how a technological advance that makes an airplane engine more fuel efficient changes an airline’s average total cost.
The cost of the new fuel-efficient engines are a _______ cost.
The cost of fuel is a _______ cost.
fixed; total
marginal; variable
fixed; variable
variable; fixed
Question 12
GM cuts jobs at its Australian manufacturing unit
GM will cut 500 jobs, or about 12% of its workforce, at its Australian plant because of a sharp fall in demand for its locally-made “Cruze” small car.
Source: The Wall Street Journal , April 8, 2013
As GM cuts its workforce, how will the marginal product and average product of a worker change in the short run?
Suppose that before the cuts the marginal product of GM workers is below their average product.
As the number of workers decreases, the marginal product of a GM worker ______ and the average product of a GM worker ______ in the short run.
does not change; does not change
decreases; decreases
decreases; increases
increases; decreases
increases; increases
Question 13
To maximize profit, a firm in monopolistic competition will produce the quantity where marginal revenue
is greater than marginal cost.
is less than marginal cost.
equals marginal cost.
equals zero.
equals average total cost.
Question 14
Austin owns the Fruit Bowl food truck. Which of the following would be short run decisions for Austin?
how much fruit to buy
how many workers to hire
iii. installing a new stove in his truck
i and ii
i only
i, ii and iii
ii only
ii and iii
Question 15
Paulette owns a pizza parlor. Her total cost schedule is in the above table. Her total fixed cost is equal to
$35.
$85.
Some amount, but more information is needed to determine her fixed cost.
$79.
$20.
Question 16
Consider the market for running shoes shown above. A tariff of ________ is imposed and causes the amount of shoes imported to ________ pairs.
$40; decrease from 4 million to 2 million
$20; decrease from 4 million to 3 million
$40; decrease from 5 million to 2 million
$20; decrease from 4 million to 2 million
$60; decrease from 4 million to 2 million
Question 17
Henry, a perfectly competitive lime grower in Southern California, notices that the market price of limes is greater than his marginal cost. What should Henry do?
advertise his limes to be able to sell more output
look for the output level where marginal revenue minus marginal cost is maximized
expand his output to increase profits
shut down and earn no profit but also incur no loss
shut down and incur a loss equal to his total fixed cost
Question 18
A collusive agreement to form a cartel is difficult to maintain because
supply will decrease because of the high cartel price.
each member firm can increase its own profits by cutting its price and selling more.
forming a cartel is legal but frowned upon throughout the world.
demanders will rebel once they realize a cartel has been formed.
each firm can increase its profit if it decreases its production even more than the decrease set by the cartel.
The table above gives costs at Jan’s Bike Shop. Unfortunately, Jan’s record keeping has been spotty. Each worker is paid $100 a day. Labor costs are the only variable costs of production. What is the total cost of producing 50 bikes?
$200
$100
$500
$400
$300
Question 20
Keith is a perfectly competitive carnation grower. The market price is $2 per dozen carnations. Keith’s average total cost to grow carnations is $2.50 per dozen. In the long run, Keith will
exit the industry if the price and his costs do not change.
continue to make an economic profit.
incur an economic loss.
raise his price to more than $2.50 per dozen carnations.
raise his price to $2.50 per dozen carnations.
Question 21
Use the figure above to answer this question. Mary is the only veterinarian in a small town. To maximize her profit, Mary will choose to treat ________ animals per hour and charge ________ per customer in order to ________.
4; $50; operate on the inelastic portion of her demand curve
6; $20; maximize profit
6; $30; minimize average total cost
6; $20; minimize cost in order to attract more customers
4; $50; maximize profit
Question 22
The U.S. Postal Service has a monopoly over first-class mail service because
stamps are copyrighted.
stamps are patented.
the government has granted this agency a public franchise.
stamps are trademarked.
it owns a vital resource, namely all mailboxes.
Question 23
A firm’s fundamental goal is
to decrease its employment of workers in order to cut its costs.
to maximize profit.
to make a quality product.
different for each firm.
to gain market share.
Question 24
Price (dollars per unit
Quantity demanded (units per day)
Quantity supplied (units per day)
2
20
14
6
19
16
6
18
18
8
17
20
10
16
22
12
15
24
The table above has the domestic demand and domestic supply schedules for a good. If the world price of the good is $10 and international trade occurs, then according to the table
the country imports 6 units a day.
domestic production is higher before trade than after trade.
the country imports 16 units a day.
the country exports 22 units a day.
the country exports 6 units a day.
Question 25
How do advertising and other selling costs affect a firm?
The do not change demand and shift the average total cost curve downward.
They shift the average total cost curve upward.
They shift the marginal cost curve upward.
The only effect is that the demand for the product increases.
The only effect is that the excess capacity is reduced.
Question 26
A Nash equilibrium in the duopoly game
means that one player has greater market power.
can occur only if firms cooperate with each other.
occurs when each player takes the best possible action regardless of the strategy chosen by other firms.
will always lead to equilibrium in which the firms’ total profit is the largest.
means that a firm must be able to determine its actions and the actions of its competitor.
Question 27
The table above shows the revenue figures for the top four firms along with a total for the remaining firms in the fast-food industry. What is the four-firm concentration ratio for the industry?
80 percent
200 percent
20 percent
100 percent
25 percent
Question 28
In the 1950s, crude oil and natural gas imports were restricted to keep the domestic industries viable in case of a war. The rationale for this protection is the ________ argument for protection.
anti-dumping
national security
infant-industry
save domestic jobs
penalizing lax environmental standards
Question 29
The figure above shows the U.S. demand and U.S. supply curves for cherries. At a world price of $2 per pound once international trade occurs, the total imports of cherries to the United States from other nations equals
600,000 pounds.
200,000 pounds.
400,000 pounds.
800,000 pounds.
0 pounds.
Question 30
Quantity
(bottles per week)
Marginal cost
Average variable cost
Dollars per bottle
0
0
0
100
3.00
4.40
200
3.20
3.90
300
3.50
3.50
400
3.82
3.55
500
4.20
3.60
600
5.00
3.75
The table shows the cost structure of a firm selling bottles of water in a perfectly competitive market.
What is the quantity at the firm’s shutdown point?
The firm’s shutdown point occurs at a quantity of
nothing
bottles of water per week and the market price is $
nothing a bottle.
Question 31
Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 6 workers, her total cost equals
$1,800.
$300.
$2,400.
$7.50.
$10.00.
Question 32
The above figure represents the market for cable television in Oakland, Florida. Time Warner Communications (TWC) is the sole provider of cable television to the residents of this Central Florida community. If TWC operated under a marginal cost pricing rule, what is the price of cable television in Oakland?
less than the quantity that minimizes average total cost.
None of the above answers is correct.
less than the quantity that minimizes marginal cost.
more than the quantity that minimizes marginal cost.
Question 34
The figure above shows the U.S. demand and U.S. supply curves for cherries. In the absence of international trade, cherry farmers would receive ________ per pound of cherries.
$2.00
$2.50
$0.50
$1.00
$1.50
Question 35
Suppose Pat’s Paints is a perfectly competitive firm. If Pat’s Paints’ marginal revenue equals $5 per can, and Pat decides to sell 100 cans of paint, Pat’s total revenue equals
$500.
$20.
Information on the price of a can of paint is needed to answer the question.
$5.
$100.
Question 36
Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. When 4 workers are employed, the average product is ________ lawns mowed per week.
80
20
5
25
320
Question 37
Country A imports 1,000 cars per month. After imposing a $50 per car tariff, imports fall to 800 cars per month. How much does Country A’s government collect in tariff revenue?
$90,000
$10,000
$60,000
$40,000
$50,000
Question 38
The above figure shows the U.S. market for flip-flops. With international trade, U.S. consumers buy ________ flip-flops and U.S. producers produce ________ flip-flops.
700,000; 500,000
300,000; 700,000
700,000; 300,000
500,000; 500,000
500,000; 300,000
Question 39
Perfect competition is a market in which there are? _____ firms, each selling? _____ product; many? buyers; _____ to the entry of new firms into the industry; no advantage to established firms; and buyers and sellers _____ about prices.
few; differentiated; barriers; are well informed
many; identical; no barriers; are well informed
many; identical; barriers; have no information
few; differentiated; no barriers; have no information
Question 40
Which of the following is an implicit cost in Jim’s business venture?
the salary Jim could have earned at another job
the interest Jim must pay on the loan he incurred to help open his business
iii. the interest Jim lost when he used his savings to help open his business
People eat at restaurants less often when their incomes fall because of a recession. Eating at restaurants must be
a substitute for other goods.
a complement to other goods.
an inelastic good.
an inferior good.
a normal good.
Question 2
In stores, it is common to find seasonal products marked down when the season ends. What explains this behavior?
The store is trying to sell the goods and realizes that they are substitutes for other goods whose prices have risen.
The store is trying to increase its customers’ incomes by increasing their purchasing power.
The store is trying to increase its customers’ demand for the product.
The store manager must be trying to drive away customers by selling low quality products.
The law of demand is being used to increase the quantity demanded.
Question 3
As a person increases his or her caloric intake, the person’s weight increases, ceteris paribus. The relationship between the person’s caloric intake and the person’s weight is an example of
a trended relationship.
unrelated variables.
a negative relationship.
a single point on a graph.
a positive relationship.
Question 4
When the percentage change in the quantity supplied is twice the percentage change in price, then supply is
perfectly inelastic.
inelastic.
unit elastic.
elastic.
perfectly elastic.
Question 5
Suppose you eat two hamburgers for lunch. The marginal benefit of the first burger is ________ of the second burger.
smaller than the marginal benefit
equal to the marginal benefit
equal to the marginal cost and the marginal benefit
not related to the marginal benefit
larger than the marginal benefit
Question 6
The price elasticity of demand measures the extent to which the quantity demanded changes when
the price of the good changes.
consumer preferences change.
the price of a related good changes.
the expected future price of a good changes.
both the demand and supply of the good change.
Question 7
Matt pays a $50 a month membership fee at Bruno’s Gym. He can exercise at the gym as many times as he wishes. If the membership fee is measured along the vertical axis and the number of times he exercises is measured along the horizontal axis, the graph between his membership fee and the number of times he exercises will
be negatively sloped.
be positively sloped.
be a horizontal line.
start out positively sloped and then, as Matt loses interest, become negatively sloped.
be a vertical line.
Question 8
An increase in the quantity demanded is shown as
a movement toward the demand curve.
a leftward shift of the demand curve.
both a movement along the demand curve and a shift of the demand curve.
a rightward shift of the demand curve.
a movement along the demand curve.
Question 9
Researchers have found a hybrid of corn that is cheaper to grow. This technological breakthrough
increases the demand for hybrid corn.
decreases the supply of hybrid corn.
Both answers A and C are correct.
Both answers A and B are correct.
increases the supply of hybrid corn.
Question 10
Suppose the relationship between a person’s age and his or her height is plotted with the age measured along the x-axis and the height measured along the y-axis. Then, the curve showing this relationship is
negatively sloped and becoming less steep.
positively sloped and becoming more steep.
positively sloped and becoming less steep.
a straight line with a positive slope.
a straight line with a negative slope.
Question 11
Assume a market is in equilibrium. There is an increase in supply, but no change in demand As a result the equilibrium price ________, and the equilibrium quantity ________.
rises; increases
rises; does not change
rises; decreases
falls; decreases
falls; increases
Question 12
What is an inferior good?
a product that is complementary
a product of low quality that we do not want to purchase
a product for which demand increases when income decreases, and demand decreases when income increases
a product that is a substitute for another, better good
a product for which demand increases when income increases, and demand decreases when income decreases
Question 13
A time series graph
shows how a certain variable changes over time.
depicts a series of good economic times a nation had.
is not useful if the goal is to determine a variable’s trend.
shows points that are scattered.
uses bars rather than lines.
Question 14
In the diagram above, which figure(s) show(s) an inverse relationship between the variables?
only C
only B
both A and C
both B and C
only D
Question 15
When a landscaping company decides to use drafting software and computers instead of hiring designers to draw design plans by hand, it is answering the ________ question.
why
for whom
opportunity cost
what
how
Question 16
The cross elasticity of demand is a measure of how
total revenue changes when the price of a product changes.
demand for a product changes when the price of a substitute or complement changes.
responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a product.
demand for a product changes when income changes.
responsive suppliers are to changes in the price of a product.
Question 17
In the above figure, the shift in the demand curve from D to D2 can be the result of
an increase in the price of soda, a complement to pizza.
an increase in income if pizza is a normal good.
a decrease in the supply of pizza that raises the price of pizza.
a change in quantity demanded.
an increase in the price of a sub sandwich, a substitute for pizza.
Question 18
When you make the decision to spend your time attending class, which economic question are you answering?
Is this in the social interest?
For whom?
How?
What?
Why?
Question 19
Going skiing will cost Adam $80 a day. He also loses $40 per day in wages because he has to take time off from work. Adam still decides to go skiing.
His decision is rational if Adam’s marginal benefit of spending a day skiing is greater than his marginal cost.
Adam is definitely making a decision that is in the social interest.
Adam’s lost $40 per day in wages is not an opportunity cost and so did not affect his decision.
He loses a total of $120 per day, so his decision is irrational.
The $80 price of skiing is not an opportunity cost and so did not affect Adam’s decision.
Question 20
Suppose the equilibrium price of oranges is $2.00 per pound. If the actual price is above the equilibrium price, a
surplus exists and the price rises to restore equilibrium.
shortage exists and the price falls to restore equilibrium.
shortage exists and the price rises to restore equilibrium.
surplus exists but nothing happens until either the demand or the supply changes.
surplus exists and the price falls to restore equilibrium.
Question 21
The production possibilities frontier illustrates the
maximum combinations of goods and services that can be produced.
goods and services that people want.
limits to people’s wants.
resources the economy possess, but not its level of technology.
amount of each good that people want to buy.
Question 22
The above figure shows the production possibility frontier for an economy. The point or points that are attainable are
points A, B, and C.
points A and D.
points B and C.
point E.
points A, B, C, and D.
Question 23
Wichita is building a convention center and financing it with revenues raised from a city hotel tax. Local politicians assert that the convention center is essentially free for Wichita residents because out-of-town visitors are paying for it. Someone who is practicing the economic way of thinking would disagree because
there are other projects that could be undertaken with the tax funds.
the convention center may not pass a marginal cost-benefit test.
the hotel tax may reduce commercial property values in the area.
they believe that Wichita does not need a new convention center.
the hotel tax may lead to a decline in visits to Wichita.
Question 24
Which figure above shows the effect if research is published claiming that eating pizza is healthy?
Figure D
Both Figure A and Figure D
Figure B
Figure A
Figure C
Question 25
The United States can use all its resources to produce 250 DVDs or 500 shoes. China can use all of its resources to produce 30 DVDs or 300 shoes. The opportunity cost of producing a DVD in the United States is
2 shoes.
500 shoes.
1 DVD.
20 shoes.
1/2 of a shoe.
Question 26
Proponents of cuts in income tax rates argue that when income tax rates are cut, workers have an incentive to increase their work hours. This argument is based on the assumption that
workers make decisions based on the social interest.
the marginal cost of each additional work hour is not important to most workers.
workers are irrational.
the opportunity cost of working is negative.
workers make decisions based on the marginal benefit of each hour worked compared to the marginal cost of work.
Question 27
The slope of the line shown in the above figure is
5/2.
2/5.
5.
2/3.
2.
Question 28
Which figure above shows the effect of an increase in the cost of the tomato sauce used to produce pizza?
Figure D
Both Figure B and Figure C
Figure C
Figure B
Figure A
Question 29
A student at New York University used to take the Redhound bus when she visited her grandmother in Boston. After graduating, although the bus fare and the plane fare were the same as they were when she was a student, with a well-paid job on Wall Street she now takes the plane to Boston to visit her grandmother. For this student, travel by Redhound bus is
a substitute good.
a good with negative preferences.
a normal good.
a complement good.
an inferior good.
Question 30
A graph shows that the number of U.S. tourists visiting a Caribbean island increases as the temperature in the northeastern United States falls. The graph shows
a direct relationship.
an invalid relationship.
a negative relationship.
a positive relationship.
no relationship.
Question 31
The income elasticity of demand is a measure of
how responsive suppliers are to changes in the price of a product.
how demand for a product changes when the price of a substitute or complement product changes.
the extent to which the supply of a good changes when the demand changes as a result of a change in income.
how responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a product.
the extent to which the demand for a good changes when income changes.
Question 32
Moving from one point to another on a production possibilities frontier implies
increasing the production of one good and decreasing the production of another.
decreasing the production of both goods.
changing the amount of factors of production that are employed.
increasing the production of both goods.
holding the production levels of both goods constant.
Question 33
Suppose the Chicago Bears football team raises ticket prices by 13 percent and as a result the quantity of tickets demanded decreases by 21 percent. This response means that the demand for Bears tickets is
unit elastic.
elastic.
inelastic.
perfectly elastic.
perfectly inelastic.
Question 34
The American Dairy Association starts a highly successful advertising campaign that makes most people want to drink more milk. As a result,
the demand for milk increases.
the demand for milk is not affected.
the demand for milk decreases because the price of milk rises.
the quantity demanded of milk increases.
the price of milk falls to encourage people to drink more milk.
Question 35
Price
(dollars per gasoline)
Quantity demanded (gallons of gasoline)
Quantity supplied (gallons of gasoline)
3.73
337,982
441, 074
3.68
396, 398
428, 008
3.65
412, 031
412, 031
3.62
417, 899
391, 665
The table above shows the situation in the gasoline market in Tulsa, Oklahoma. If the price of a gallon of gasoline is $2.30 then
Without more information we cannot determine if there is a surplus, a shortage, or an equilibrium in the gasoline market in Tulsa.
there is a shortage of gasoline in Tulsa.
the gasoline market in Tulsa is in equilibrium.
there is a surplus of gasoline in Tulsa.
There is neither a surplus nor a shortage, but the market is NOT in equilibrium.
Question 36
The law of supply states that, other things remaining the same,
if the price of a good increases, firms buy less of it.
if the price of a good increases, the supply increases.
demand increases when supply increases.
as people’s income increase, the supply of goods increases.
if the price of a good increases, the quantity supplied increases.
Question 37
Milk can be used to produce cheese or butter. If the price of a pound of butter rises, what happens to the supply of cheese?
The supply of cheese decreases.
The supply of cheese increases.
The supply of cheese stays the same, and there is no change in the quantity supplied of cheese.
The supply of cheese could increase, decrease, or stay the same depending on what happens to the supply of butter.
The supply of cheese stays the same, and there is a decrease in the quantity supplied of cheese.
Question 38
A trend is
the minimum value of a variable.
a general tendency for a variable to rise or fall.
the difference between the maximum value of a variable and the minimum value of the variable.
a measure of closeness on a scatter diagram.
the maximum value of a variable.
Question 39
The figure above shows a
trend diagram.
cross-section graph.
time-series graph.
slope.
scatter diagram.
Question 40
The question “Should economics majors or sociology majors earn more after they graduate?” is an example of a ________ question.
for whom
why
where
how
what
Economics Question
In an effort to make the distribution of income more nearly equal, the government of a country passes a tax law that changes the Lorenz curve from
y = 0.97x2.1 for one year to y = 0.36x2 + 0.64x for the next year. Find the Gini coefficient of income for both years. (Round your answers to three decimal places.)
Martha lends $200 to a friend who promises to return it after a year. Instead of lending it to her friend, Martha could have put the money in a bank where she could have earned an interest rate of 2 percent per annum. Martha’s opportunity cost of lending the money is _____.
A.$2
B.$204
C.$200
$4
2
The exhibit given below shows the short-run aggregate demand and supply curves in an economy, AD1 and AS1, and the long-run aggregate supply curve, LRAS. The economy was initially in equilibrium when there was a decrease in aggregate demand, causing a shift of the aggregate demand curve from
AD1 to AD2. Which of the following is true in this case?
The economy will move from point B to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.
The economy will move from point C to point B in the short run and then eventually to point A.
The economy will move from point D to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.
The economy will move from point D to point C in the long run.
3
Suppose an economy is in long-run equilibrium. An increase in consumption expenditure will:
shift the short-run aggregate supply curve rightward and increase both the price level and real output in the long run.
decrease both the price level and real gross domestic product in the long run.
increase the price level in the long run but have no effect on real gross domestic product.
shift the aggregate demand curve rightward and increase the real output in the long run.
4
In the long run, a higher saving rate:
always leads to a higher level of productivity because of increasing returns to scale.
does not lead to a higher level of income because of deterioration in labor productivity.
always leads to a higher growth rate of output because of improvement in the stock of human capital.
does not always lead to a higher growth rate of output because of diminishing returns to capital.
5.
Suppose the net foreign investment in Italy is positive. This implies that:
Italians are buying more foreign assets than foreigners are buying Italian assets.
foreigners are buying relatively more Italian assets.
Italy is experiencing a net capital inflow.
foreign direct investment in Italy is higher than foreign portfolio investment in the country.
6)
The circular-flow diagram shows that:
firms receive wages and profits from households in the products market.
households sell the factors of production to firms in the inputs market.
households supply resources to firms in the products market.
firms supply labor and other resources to the government in the factor market.
7)
The table given below shows the total amount of spending in the country of Mesodonia. Mesodonia’s
Mesodonia’s gross domestic product is:
Components of GDP Value in millions
consumption $110
Investment $1400
Gov. expenditure $3200
Exports $400
Imports $550
Which one?
$5,660 million.
$4,710 million.
$4,160 million.
$4,560 million.
8
The country of Merilya exported goods and services worth $1.2 million and imported goods and services worth $2.7 million. The net exports of the country was _____.
3.9 million, and it had a trade surplus
−$1.5 million, and it had a trade deficit
$2 million, and it had a trade surplus
−$3.9 million, and it had a trade deficit
9
Suppose the Fed purchases government bonds through open-market operations. All other things remaining equal, this is likely to:
decrease the price level and increase the real wealth of consumers.
decrease the price level and make domestic goods less expensive relative to foreign goods.
increase the price level and eventually decrease the interest rate and investment spending.
increase the price level and eventually decrease the demand for money as well as goods and services.
10
A rise in the price of bacon from $14 per pound to $16 per pound will reduce the purchasing power of the dollar by:
0.55 pounds of bacons.
0.06 pounds of bacon.
5 pounds of bacon.
2 pounds of bacon.
11.
A difference between commodity money and fiat money is that:
fiat money cannot be used as a unit of account.
commodity money is used in a barter economy.
fiat money does not have any intrinsic value.
commodity money cannot be used as a unit of account.
12
Suppose the net capital outflow from Zenovia is negative. This implies that:
the real interest rate in Zenovia is high.
the real interest rate in foreign countries is higher than in Zenovia.
foreigners are not interested in buying assets in Zenovia.
the citizens of Zenovia are investing more in foreign assets than foreigners are investing in assets in Zenovia.
Shiroh persuades the management of her company to offer more perks to employees
Sue rents a laser printer to teach her employees how to fix it
Samantha receives training in quality management after joining a new firm
Susie puts in more than 8 hours of work at her workplace every day
14
After retirement, Molly deposits $500,000 in a local bank in Merrina. At an interest rate of 4 percent, she will receive approximately _____ after 3 years.
$662,345
$608,326
$562,432
$750,000
15
Ruth wants to calculate the present value of a sum of money that she will receive after the demise of her grandparents. To calculate the present value, she should use the:
expenditure method.
discounting method.
value-added method.
compounding method.
16
The buyers and sellers in the country of Perylia use corn as a medium of exchange. This means that:
Perylia uses commodity money.
corn cannot be used as a store of value or as a unit of account in Perylia.
Perylia uses fiat money.
corn can be used as a store of value but not as a unit of account in Perylia.
17
Scarcity occurs because of:
the excess of quantity supplied over quantity demanded.
overutilization of labor.
limited human needs and wants.
the limited supply of resources.
18
The Phillips curve shows:
the negative relationship between inflation and unemployment.
the positive relationship between the interest rate and the supply of money.
the positive relationship between the price level and aggregate supply.
the negative relationship between the interest rate and the demand for money.
19
Ephlon Inc., an Italian bike manufacturer, opens a factory in the United States. This is an example of:
the accumulation of human capital.
the catch-up effect.
a foreign direct investment.
a foreign portfolio investment.
20
Jack is an out-of-work sculptor. He has been looking for a job for the last two years. Unable to find any, he has given up his job search. Which of the following is true in this case?
This is an example of frictional unemployment.
This is an example of structural unemployment.
He is a part of the unemployed labor force.
He is a discouraged worker and will not be included in the calculation of the unemployment rate.
21
Suppose the central bank of a country undertakes an expansionary monetary policy. Which of the following is most likely to be the effect of such a policy, all other things remaining unchanged?
An increase in the price level that reduces the real value of households’ money holdings and stimulates consumer spending
An increase in the price level that stimulates spending on net exports and increases the demand for money
A decrease in the price level that reduces the amount of money that people want to hold and decreases the interest rate.
A decrease in the price level that reduces the interest rate and lowers the real value of the domestic currency foreign-exchange market.
22
Following the unexpected good performance of Leathex, all its employees were given a one-time bonus. This consequently led to a rightward shift of the demand curve for shoes manufactured by the company and a leftward shift of the demand curve for socks. This shows that shoes are:
makes domestic bonds less attractive to foreigners.
lowers saving in the country and decreases the quantity of loanable funds supplied.•
discourages investment and decreases the quantity of loanable funds demanded.
24
If the price level in an economy is 120 and the equilibrium price level is 100, _____.•
people will want to hold more money than is supplied by the central bank•
the demand for money curve will shift to the left
the purchasing power of money will increase
the supply of money is likely to exceed the demand for money
25
A recent survey showed the health benefits of cranberry juice for treating heart and other respiratory disorders. The exhibit below shows that the initial demand curve for cranberry juice is D1. Which of the following is likely to be a consequence of the publication of the survey?
The demand curve will shift from D1 to D3.
There will be a movement from point A to point C on D1.
The demand curve will shift from D1 to D2.
There will be a movement from point A to point B on D1.
26
Keynesian economists believe that when an economy is in a recession, the government should:
decrease tax rates rather than increase government spending because households always view such tax cuts as permanent and increase their current consumption.
increase its purchases rather than decrease taxes because households save a part of the increase in their income as a result of tax cuts.
increase the money supply in the economy so that interest rates decline, reducing the cost of borrowing to finance new investment projects.
increase the money supply in the economy so that an excess supply of money can induce households to increase their consumption expenditure.
27
The Marions purchased a Persian rug worth $5,000 from an Iranian textile mill. Everything else remaining unchanged, this will:
decrease the consumption expenditure in the domestic country by $5,000.
decrease the net imports of the domestic country by $5,000.
reduce the net exports of the domestic country by $5,000.
increase the gross domestic product of the domestic country by $5,000.
28
As more capital is used in the production process, the amount of other inputs being fixed, the production function becomes:
flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.
steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.
steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.
flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.
29
The natural rate of unemployment in a country is 4 percent. This implies that:•
the country has an unemployment rate of 4 percent in the short run.•
the country has a 4 percent unemployment rate when the labor market is in equilibrium. •
4 percent of the labor force is unemployed at any given point of time.
the unemployment rate is constant at 4 percent over time.
Which of the following is true according to the circular-flow diagram?
Firms receive wages, rent, and profit from the government.
Firms receive income from households.
Households receive revenue from the government.
Households receive wages, rent, and profit from firms.
ECO 372 Final Exam
1 The Marions purchased a Persian rug worth $5,000 from an Iranian textile mill. Everything else remaining unchanged, this will:
decrease the net imports of the domestic country by $5,000.
decrease the consumption expenditure in the domestic country by $5,000.
reduce the net exports of the domestic country by $5,000.
increase the gross domestic product of the domestic country by $5,000.
2 The table given below shows the total amount of spending in the country of Mesodonia. Mesodonia’s gross domestic product is:
3 The circular-flow diagram shows that:
firms receive wages and profits from households in the products market.
households sell the factors of production to firms in the inputs market.
households supply resources to firms in the products market.
firms supply labor and other resources to the government in the factor market.
4 Martha lends $200 to a friend who promises to return it after a year. Instead of lending it to her friend, Martha could have put the money in a bank where she could have earned an interest rate of 2 percent per annum. Martha’s opportunity cost of lending the money is _____.
$204
$200
$2
$4
5 Following the unexpected good performance of Leathex, all its employees were given a one-time bonus. This consequently led to a rightward shift of the demand curve for shoes manufactured by the company and a leftward shift of the demand curve for socks. This shows that shoes are:
normal goods.
complementary goods.
substitutes.
inferior goods.
6 Ephlon Inc., an Italian bike manufacturer, opens a factory in the United States. This is an example of:
the catch-up effect.
the accumulation of human capital.
a foreign portfolio investment.
a foreign direct investment.
7 Which of the following is true according to the circular-flow diagram?
Households receive revenue from the government.
Firms receive income from households.
Firms receive wages, rent, and profit from the government.
Households receive wages, rent, and profit from firms.
8 Scarcity occurs because of:
overutilization of labor.
the limited supply of resources.
limited human needs and wants.
the excess of quantity supplied over quantity demanded.
9 In the long run, a higher saving rate:
does not always lead to a higher growth rate of output because of diminishing returns to capital.
does not lead to a higher level of income because of deterioration in labor productivity.
always leads to a higher growth rate of output because of improvement in the stock of human capital.
always leads to a higher level of productivity because of increasing returns to scale.
10 The buyers and sellers in the country of Perylia use corn as a medium of exchange. This means that:
corn can be used as a store of value but not as a unit of account in Perylia.
Perylia uses fiat money.
Perylia uses commodity money.
corn cannot be used as a store of value or as a unit of account in Perylia.
11 Suppose the net foreign investment in Italy is positive. This implies that:
Italy is experiencing a net capital inflow.
foreigners are buying relatively more Italian assets.
foreign direct investment in Italy is higher than foreign portfolio investment in the country.
Italians are buying more foreign assets than foreigners are buying Italian assets.
12 The exhibit given below shows the short-run aggregate demand and supply curves in an economy, AD1 and AS1, and the long-run aggregate supply curve, LRAS. The economy was initially in equilibrium when there was a decrease in aggregate demand, causing a shift of the aggregate demand curve from AD1 to AD2. Which of the following is true in this case?
The economy will move from point D to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.
The economy will move from point B to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.
The economy will move from point C to point B in the short run and then eventually to point A.
The economy will move from point D to point C in the long run.
13 A difference between commodity money and fiat money is that:
fiat money cannot be used as a unit of account.
commodity money cannot be used as a unit of account.
commodity money is used in a barter economy.
fiat money does not have any intrinsic value.
14 As more capital is used in the production process, the amount of other inputs being fixed, the production function becomes:
steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.
flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.
flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.
steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.
15 Suppose the Fed purchases government bonds through open-market operations. All other things remaining equal, this is likely to:
decrease the price level and make domestic goods less expensive relative to foreign goods.
decrease the price level and increase the real wealth of consumers.
increase the price level and eventually decrease the demand for money as well as goods and services.
increase the price level and eventually decrease the interest rate and investment spending.
16 Jack is an out-of-work sculptor. He has been looking for a job for the last two years. Unable to find any, he has given up his job search. Which of the following is true in this case?
This is an example of frictional unemployment.
He is a discouraged worker and will not be included in the calculation of the unemployment rate.
This is an example of structural unemployment.
He is a part of the unemployed labor force.
17 The country of Merilya exported goods and services worth $1.2 million and imported goods and services worth $2.7 million. The net exports of the country was _____.
$2 million, and it had a trade surplus
−$3.9 million, and it had a trade deficit
$3.9 million, and it had a trade surplus
−$1.5 million, and it had a trade deficit
18 If the price level in an economy is 120 and the equilibrium price level is 100, _____.
the supply of money is likely to exceed the demand for money
the demand for money curve will shift to the left
people will want to hold more money than is supplied by the central bank
the purchasing power of money will increase
19 A recent survey showed the health benefits of cranberry juice for treating heart and other respiratory disorders. The exhibit below shows that the initial demand curve for cranberry juice is D1. Which of the following is likely to be a consequence of the publication of the survey?
The demand curve will shift from D1 to D2.
There will be a movement from point A to point C on D1.
The demand curve will shift from D1 to D3.
There will be a movement from point A to point B on D1.
20 Suppose the central bank of a country undertakes an expansionary monetary policy. Which of the following is most likely to be the effect of such a policy, all other things remaining unchanged?
A decrease in the price level that reduces the amount of money that people want to hold and decreases the interest rate.
A decrease in the price level that reduces the interest rate and lowers the real value of the domestic currency foreign-exchange market.
An increase in the price level that stimulates spending on net exports and increases the demand for money
An increase in the price level that reduces the real value of households’ money holdings and stimulates consumer spending
21 The Phillips curve shows:
the positive relationship between the price level and aggregate supply.
the positive relationship between the interest rate and the supply of money.
the negative relationship between inflation and unemployment.
the negative relationship between the interest rate and the demand for money.
22 A rise in the price of bacon from $14 per pound to $16 per pound will reduce the purchasing power of the dollar by:
5 pounds of bacon.
0.55 pounds of bacons.
2 pounds of bacon.
0.06 pounds of bacon.
23 There is an increase in human capital when _____.
Susie puts in more than 8 hours of work at her workplace every day
Sue rents a laser printer to teach her employees how to fix it
Shiroh persuades the management of her company to offer more perks to employees
Samantha receives training in quality management after joining a new firm
24 Suppose an economy is in long-run equilibrium. An increase in consumption expenditure will:
decrease both the price level and real gross domestic product in the long run.
increase the price level in the long run but have no effect on real gross domestic product.
shift the aggregate demand curve rightward and increase the real output in the long run.
shift the short-run aggregate supply curve rightward and increase both the price level and real output in the long run.
25 After retirement, Molly deposits $500,000 in a local bank in Merrina. At an interest rate of 4 percent, she will receive approximately _____ after 3 years.
$662,345
$608,326
$562,432
$750,000
26 Ruth wants to calculate the present value of a sum of money that she will receive after the demise of her grandparents. To calculate the present value, she should use the:
makes domestic bonds less attractive to foreigners.
lowers saving in the country and decreases the quantity of loanable funds supplied.
discourages investment and decreases the quantity of loanable funds demanded.
encourages citizens to buy foreign assets.
28 Keynesian economists believe that when an economy is in a recession, the government should:
increase its purchases rather than decrease taxes because households save a part of the increase in their income as a result of tax cuts.
increase the money supply in the economy so that interest rates decline, reducing the cost of borrowing to finance new investment projects.
decrease tax rates rather than increase government spending because households always view such tax cuts as permanent and increase their current consumption.
increase the money supply in the economy so that an excess supply of money can induce households to increase their consumption expenditure.
29 The natural rate of unemployment in a country is 4 percent. This implies that:
4 percent of the labor force is unemployed at any given point of time.
the unemployment rate is constant at 4 percent over time.
the country has a 4 percent unemployment rate when the labor market is in equilibrium.
the country has an unemployment rate of 4 percent in the short run.
30 Suppose the net capital outflow from Zenovia is negative. This implies that:
the real interest rate in Zenovia is high.
the citizens of Zenovia are investing more in foreign assets than foreigners are investing in assets in Zenovia.
the real interest rate in foreign countries is higher than in Zenovia.
foreigners are not interested in buying assets in Zenovia
Eco/372 Macroeconomics
Resources: National Bureau of Economic Research; Principles of Macroeconomics: Ch. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7
Scenario: Your organization’s CEO is concerned that members of the strategic planning committee are not familiar with current economic thought and principles. The CEO has assigned you the task of developing a report to introduce some of these thoughts and principles.
Develop a 1,050-word report to the members of the strategic planning committee explaining the following information:
How economists are both scientists and policymakers and what principles society uses to allocate its scarce resources.
Using the circular flow model, explain the flow of money and goods in an economy.
How the economy coordinates society’s independent economic actors.
A country’s gross domestic product (GDP) and how it is defined and calculated.
How the consumer price index (CPI) is constructed and why it is an imperfect measurement of the cost of living.
Format the assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
Phoenix Eco/365 Ten Principles Of Economics And How Markets Work
Purpose of Assignment
In Week 1, students are introduced to the ten fundamental principles on which the study of economics is based. Throughout this course, the students will use these ten principles to better develop their understanding of economics and how society manages its scarce resources. Students will see how markets work using supply and demand for a good to determine both the quantity produced and the price at which the good sells. The concepts of equilibrium and elasticity are used to explain the sensitivity of quantity supplied and quantity demanded to changes in economic variables. Students will see how government policies impact prices and quantities in markets.
Assignment Steps
Resources: Principles of Microeconomics, Ch. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6.
Prepare an 875-word research paper as part of a marketing research committee for your organization about current microeconomic thought and theory.
Identify the fundamental lessons the Ten Principles of Economics teaches regarding:
How people make decisions
How people interact
How the economy works as a whole
Explain the following to help the committee members understand how markets work:
How society manages its scarce resources and benefits from economic interdependence.
Why the demand curve slopes downward and the supply curve slopes upward.
o Where the point of equilibrium is and what does it determine?
The impact of price controls, taxes, and elasticity on changes in supply, demand and equilibrium prices.
Format consistent with APA guidelines.
Assumptions of ordinary least square
Describe the major assumptions of ordinary least squares and define the error term
The necessary OLS assumptions, which are used to derive the OLS estimators in linear regression models, are discussed below. OLS Assumption 1: The linear regression model is “linear in parameters.” When the dependent variable (Y)(Y)(Y) is a linear function of independent variables (X′s)(X’s)(X′s) and the error term, the regression is linear in parameters and not necessarily linear in X′sX’sX′s. For example, consider the following: A1. The linear regression model is “linear in parameters.” A2. There is a random sampling of observations. A3. The conditional mean should be zero. A4. There is no multi-collinearity (or perfect collinearity). A5. Spherical errors: There is homoscedasticity and no autocorrelation A6: Optional Assumption: Error terms should be normally distributed. a)Y=β0+β1X1+β2X2+εa)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ 1 }{ X }_{ 1 }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilona)Y=β0+β1X1+β2X2+ε b)Y=β0+β1X12+β2X2+εb)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ 1 }{ X }_{ { 1 }^{ 2 } }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilonb)Y=β0+β1X12+β2X2+ε c)Y=β0+β12X1+β2X2+εc)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ { 1 }^{ 2 } }{ X }_{ 1 }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilonc)Y=β0+β12X1+β2X2+ε In the above three examples, for a) and b) OLS assumption 1 is satisfied. For c) OLS assumption 1 is not satisfied because it is not linear in parameter β1{ \beta }_{ 1 }β1. OLS Assumption 2: There is a random sampling of observations This assumption of OLS regression …
Difference between Economic growth and Economic Development
Cleary Distinguish between economic development and economic growth
The theory of comparative advantage
Cleary describe the benefits of this theory to a nation’s economy
ACC 291 Week 5 Practice: Connect Practice Assignment
ACC 291 Week 5 Practice: Connect Practice Assignment
attempt 1
1
Healthy Eating Foods Company is a distributor of nutritious snack foods such as granola bars. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances that follow.
Required:
Record adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record closing entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:
Assuming that the firm did not record a reversing entry for salaries payable, what entry is required when salaries of $6,000 are paid on January 3?
2
Good to Go Auto Products distributes automobile parts to service stations and repair shops. The adjusted trial balance data that follows is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019
Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than one year.
Analyze:
What percentage of total operating expenses is attributable to warehouse expenses?
3
Superior Hardwood Company distributes hardwood products to small furniture manufacturers. The adjusted trial balance data given below is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019.
Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than a year.
Analyze:
The data below concerns adjustments to be made at Coffee Bean Importers.
Adjustments
On November 1, 2019, the firm signed a lease for a warehouse and paid rent of $21,000 in advance for a six-month period.
On December 31, 2019, an inventory of supplies showed that items costing $1,940 were on hand. The balance of the Suppliesaccount was $11,880.
A depreciation schedule for the firm’s equipment shows that a total of $10,750 should be charged off as depreciation in 2019.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed salaries of $6,100 that will not be paid until January 2020.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed the employer’s social security (6.2 percent) and Medicare (1.45 percent) taxes on all accrued salaries.
On October 1, 2019, the firm received a five-month, 8 percent note for $6,500 from a customer with an overdue balance.
Required:
Record the adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:
After the adjusting entries have been posted, what is the balance of the Prepaid Rent account on January 1, 2020?
5
The Artisan Wines is a retail store selling vintage wines. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances below. All account balances are normal.
Required:
Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The company does not classify its operating expenses as selling expenses and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the year.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019.
Analyze:
What is the inventory turnover for Artisan Wines?
Explanation
Analyze:
The inventory turnover for Artisan Wines is 6.59 times, calculated as follows:
Cost of good sold = 92,225 = 6.59
Average inventory 14,000
The data below concerns adjustments to be made at Coffee Bean Importers.
Adjustments
On November 1, 2019, the firm signed a lease for a warehouse and paid rent of $21,000 in advance for a six-month period.
On December 31, 2019, an inventory of supplies showed that items costing $1,940 were on hand. The balance of the Suppliesaccount was $11,880.
A depreciation schedule for the firm’s equipment shows that a total of $10,750 should be charged off as depreciation in 2019.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed salaries of $6,100 that will not be paid until January 2020.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed the employer’s social security (6.2 percent) and Medicare (1.45 percent) taxes on all accrued salaries.
On October 1, 2019, the firm received a five-month, 8 percent note for $6,500 from a customer with an overdue balance.
Required:
Record the adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:
After the adjusting entries have been posted, what is the balance of the Prepaid Rent account on January 1, 2020?
2
The Artisan Wines is a retail store selling vintage wines. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances below. All account balances are normal.
Required:
Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The company does not classify its operating expenses as selling expenses and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the year.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019.
Analyze:
What is the inventory turnover for Artisan Wines?
3
Healthy Eating Foods Company is a distributor of nutritious snack foods such as granola bars. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances that follow.
Required:
Record adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record closing entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:
Assuming that the firm did not record a reversing entry for salaries payable, what entry is required when salaries of $6,000 are paid on January 3?
4
Good to Go Auto Products distributes automobile parts to service stations and repair shops. The adjusted trial balance data that follows is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019
Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than one year.
Analyze:
What percentage of total operating expenses is attributable to warehouse expenses?
5
Superior Hardwood Company distributes hardwood products to small furniture manufacturers. The adjusted trial balance data given below is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019.
Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than a year.
Analyze:
What is the current ratio for this business?
SCI 256 Select an ecosystem
SCI 256 Select an ecosystem in your area (forest, lake, desert, grassland).
Write a 600- to 1000-word paper explaining the following:
1) Describe the structure of your ecosystem including important abiotic features and dominant plant and animal species.
2) Explain some functions/processes of your ecosystem including one nutrient cycle and one food chain.
3) Give two examples of species interactions (predation, competition, mutualism, etc.) that occur in your ecosystem.
4) Identify an invasive species in your ecosystem. Explain its effects on the ecosystem and efforts to control or eradicate it.
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Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific
Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.
Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.
Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:
What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
Using Excel®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
Research Paper Psyc 312
Research Paper Instructions
You will be responsible for writing a Research Paper focusing on a social psychology topic of your choosing. The topic must be one that is discussed in the textbook. The focus of the paper will be to present and review peer-reviewed research regarding your topic as well as provide a Biblical integration discussion for your topic.
For your paper, you must thoroughly review and cite 2 peer-reviewed journal articles that demonstrate research regarding your topic. Your articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental) in which the authors of the article actually formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results themselves. Theoretical/review articles and meta-analyses are not permitted to be reviewed for this paper.
Some examples include (please note you do not need to choose one of these topics):
For a paper on the Bystander Effect, you could find an article in which the authors manipulated the number of people present and measured helping behavior.
For a paper on Relational Aggression, you could find an article in which the authors measured and correlated parenting styles with degree of relational aggression in daughters.
Keep in mind that these 2 articles must come from academic, peer-reviewed journals. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases should not be used. In addition to your 2 peer-reviewed articles, you must also cite the textbook in your paper. Other book sources will not count toward the source requirements. In the Biblical Integration section of your paper, you will be required to cite 2 different Scriptural references.
You will submit your paper as a Microsoft Word document through Safe Assign. A “draft” link is available for you to check the originality of your work, but all papers must be submitted in the “final” link for credit and grading. Your paper must contain original work to this course only (i.e., you cannot reuse a paper or portion of a paper you have written in the past for another course). Papers that do not include a topic covered in the textbook will be returned and you will be asked to submit a new paper. Normal late policies will apply. In addition, the paper should be written mostly in your own words. Excessive use of quotes is not permitted and will result in a score reduction. Be sure you are paraphrasing information from articles well and citing correctly to avoid plagiarism. Paraphrasing that is too close to the original wording is still considered plagiarism. All instances of plagiarism will be reviewed and action taken as necessary (e.g., point reduction, Code of Honor report, a score of 0 for the paper, failure of the course).
Your paper must include a current APA-style title page, abstract, body, and reference section. The body of the paper must be at least 5 pages with a maximum of 7 pages (not including the title page, abstract, and references). Papers shorter or longer than this requirement are subject to point deductions. Please note that there is a specific page length requirement for the Biblical Integration section (1 page). Be sure to use current APA-style citations throughout the paper to avoid plagiarism.
The structure of the paper must follow the outline below and all section components must be included for maximum credit.
Title Page– current APA style
Abstract– current APA style
Introduction
Provide a definition of the social psychology concept you are researching
Provide a brief background of why this concept is important
To relate your concept to “real life,” provide a specific, real-world example of your concept. This example can be either something you’ve witnessed in your own life, an example you “make up” to illustrate your concept, or an example used in one of your sources. If you use an example from a source, be sure to cite appropriately.
Review of Article I
Introduce the article, including the purpose of the article and any relevant hypotheses.
Summarize methods (i.e., type of participants, procedures used to manipulate or measure variables)
Summarize study results
Explain how study and results demonstrate or support the social psychology topic chosen (you must be able to demonstrate that you can relate the specific study results to the general topic chosen)
Review of Article II
Include all of the same elements listed above
Biblical Integration (must be at least one pagein length)
Discuss your topic from a Biblical standpoint (i.e., what does the Bible say about it). You must use at least twodifferent Scriptural references in this section to support your discussion.
Conclusion
Briefly summarize/define the chosen topic
Briefly summarize the major results of each study
Briefly summarize the Biblical standpoint discussed
Include 2 peer-reviewed journal articles describing original research
Include textbook reference
(Note that the Bible does notneed to be included in your reference section)
Research Paper: Topic and References Instructions
For this assignment you will decide on your Research Paper topic and find references to be used in your paper. Before completing this assignment, thoroughly read the Research Paper Instructions in Module 7 so you know the guidelines for the paper and what will be expected of you. Be sure you are picking a Social Psychology concept covered in your textbook, and one for which you can present an example and discuss from a Biblical standpoint. For this assignment, you will create and submit an APA-style reference page, submitted as a Word document. The reference page must include 3 references with the following guidelines:
Two references must be peer-reviewed journal articles. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases may not be used.
Both of these journal articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental). This means that the authors of the article actually conducted a study themselves in which they formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results. No theoretical/review articles or meta-analyses are allowed.
One reference needs to be your course textbook
Please note that the instructor will not be able to look up each of your articles to verify whether they meet criteria (although this is sometimes obvious from the title). You are responsible for ensuring any article you submit fits the guidelines above. If not, you will need to do more research before your paper is due since you will not be able to complete the paper correctly without appropriate articles and will incur significant point deductions at that time. Attached to the end of this document is a list of questions you can ask yourself to ensure you are choosing appropriate articles.
At the bottom of the page underneath your APA-style references, list your topic (including the chapter number for where your topic is found in your textbook) and two different Scriptural references that you will use in your paper. This requirement allows you to check whether or not you can apply Scripture to your topic, which will be required for your final paper. Please list out both the Scriptural citation and the text. If you are referencing long passages of text, please only type out one or two of the most applicable verses for this assignment. For your paper, you can reference more than what you list here if needed. The information can be organized as follows:
Topic (including chapter number where topic is found):
Scriptural Reference 1: (e.g., John 3:16 (NIV) “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.”)
Scriptural Reference 2:
**You will be allowed to alter your references and Scriptural choices if necessary for the final Research Paper, but will need to ensure that any changes to your references continue to meet requirements for full credit on your paper.
Your Research Paper: Topic and References is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.
Questions to Ask Yourself When Choosing Articles
Does my article come from a peer-reviewed journal article?
If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following other sources:
Does the article come from a magazine, book, website, or thesis/dissertation database?
Did the authors of this article conduct an original research study themselves?
If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following questions:
Are the authors onlyreviewing someone else’s work?
Are the authors compiling others’ research into a meta-analysis?
Are the authors onlyproviding a theoretical discussion of the topic or describing a model they are proposing?
Did the authors form hypotheses, seek out a sample, collect data from this sample, analyze their own results, and provide a discussion of these results?
If you can answer YES to questions 1, 2, and 3, then your article is appropriate for your paper!
You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position. Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications. However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.
The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package. The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home. The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home. Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.
Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:
Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.
As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?
Use APA format and references
New hire for job position
You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position. Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications. However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.
The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package. The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home. The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home. Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.
Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:
Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.
As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?
Use APA format and references
International econ
1) Explain the connection between the US trade deficit and financial capital flows.
2) Explain how comparative advantage determines the pattern of trade. Use an example to aid in your explanation.
3) Explain how the Stolper-Samuelson theorem indicates that free trade will (likely) worsen income inequality in the US, but (likely) narrow it for Mexico.
4) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a tariff on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a tariff on a small, imperfectly competitive market c. Imposition of a tariff on a large, perfectly competitive market
5) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a quota on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a quota on a small, imperfectly competitive market
6) If the US is a large importing country and imposes a tariff on the import of a good, what will the welfare effect on the exporting country be?
7) Assume that the US is a large country in the semi-conductor market. If the US is an exporter of the good and experiences a technological improvement, will the US always be better off? Show and explain why or why not.
8) National security demands have made it imperative for the US to close the toilet paper trade gap (just think what would happen in times of war if we couldn’t produce our own!). The government has decided to reduce our imports from 100 million units to 90 million units. As the supreme TP czar, which of the following policies should be chosen? Show and explain why. a. A production subsidy b. A consumption tax c. An import tariff
9) Show why in a competition between the Boeing and Airbus that autarky may be the preferred welfare situation to free trade. Explain how you draw this conclusion. 10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.
10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.
11) Explain what constraints the WTO places on US government actions.
12) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of fixed and flexible exchange rates. In your answer, consider the ramifications for fiscal and monetary policy.
13) Explain how trade may reduce pressure for immigration.
14) For each of the following cases indicate the expected change in the equilibrium exchange rate (€/$). Use supply and demand analysis (no credit without the graph). a) an increase in EU interest rates b) a fall in the price level in the US c) an increase in US barriers to imports from the EU
15) Explain why labor unions may wish to oppose international trade. Does this entail that this is a “good” government policy? Explain.
16) Explain why “dumping” is considered to be unfair trade. Does dumping – if unfair or not – cause harm in the dumped upon country? What condition is required for harm to accrue?
17) What is a senescent industry? How is protection for international trade supposed to aid this industry? How is it supposed to aid the country? Under what conditions will the aid actually accrue to the industry and the country?
1) Explain what is meant by “dollarization.” What might lead a country to make this choice for managing its money supply?
2) Explain how a managed float differs from a freely floating (flexible) exchange rate.
3) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of fixed v. flexible exchange rate systems?
4) For each of the following cases, explain that is the “best” tool for the goal trying to be achieved. Clearly demonstrate why this is the “best” tool. a) The US wishes to contain pollution generated by the consumption of widgets. b) The US wishes to protect jobs in the widgets sector. c) The US wishes to restrain imports in the widgets sector to reduce the trade imbalance with Widgeria.
5) How does the existence of “3-way trades” undermine the usefulness of the supply and demand model of the exchange rate for precisely predicting what the exchange rate will be?
1) Explain how a fixed exchange rate may contribute to a currency crisis? Is any fixed exchange rate subject to this risk?
2) Given the following information where should you invest in order to maximize your return? e = 0.001 $/peso f = 0.0011 $/peso Nominal interest rate in the US = 8% Nominal interest rate in Mexico = 10% Given your investment pattern, how do you expect the variables to evolve over time?
3) What is the Law of One Price? Under what assumptions does the Law of One Price lead to the Purchasing Power Parity model of exchange rates?
4) Suppose that the money supply in the US falls. What will happen to the value of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets? Justify your answer using at least two (2) models of the exchange rate.
1) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the IS curve. a) An increase in the foreign price level b) A fall in foreign income levels c) An increase in domestic tax rates d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets e) A collapse in business confidence f) An increase in the money supply
2) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the LM curve. a) An increase in the domestic price level b) A decrease in the money supply c) A fall in the precautionary demand for money d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets
Consider how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.
consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.
Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank. Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?
Provide an example of empirical probability ?
BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activitis
Formative question
Activity 1.
What is marketing? (20-40words)
What is the USP? (20-40 words)
Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)
Activity 2.
What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)
What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words
Activity 3.
How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.
How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.
Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each
Activity 5.
Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words
Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words
Activity 6.
What is positioning? 1 sentence
What is market mix? 20-40words
Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words
Activity 7.
What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.
How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.
Activity 8.
How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples
What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples
Activity 9.
What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence
What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples
Activity 10
From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples
What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence
Activity 11.
What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.
You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words
Activity 12
What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.
Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which work best? Why? 50-75 words
Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words
Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.
Activity 14.
How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.
When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words
Activity 15
How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.
How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.
Activity 16.
Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words
How can they be documented? 1 sentence
Acitivty 17.
What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10
Summative assessment 1
Question 1.
Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.
Question 2
List five examples of basic marketing activities.
Question 3.
Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words
Question 4.
Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words
Summative Assessment 2.
Project
The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.
The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns
The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.
Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :
Conduct market research
Develop product knowledge
Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
Clearly describe the goals that you have set
How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
What resources will you required (including team members)
Set realistic timeline for your campaign
Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
Review marketing activities
1000-2000words
Production/Operation
Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text
Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management
How do firms go about planning and analyzing their logistics capabilities?
Using the logic behind the Centroid Method, list five major reasons why a new electronic components manufacturing firm should move into your city or town.
Why is it important for firms to focus on global procurement and sourcing?
What are ways firms can be more efficient through improved global procurement and sourcing?
How should firms go about making the decision whether or not to outsource?
Describe how outsourcing works. Why would a firm want to outsource?
Case study 10-4 performance management
Possible illegal discrimination at tractors, Inc.
As the new human resource manager, you have been asked to identify those areas of current performance management system that could face legal challenge. Develop a one page summantion, the currentsystem identifying the potentially illegal aspect of the current system and your suggestion for making the current system more legally sound.
How to find blogs for guest-blogging in your niche
Writing Instructions
This is a “How to” post for my digital marketing blog. I need a good quality on “How to find blogs for guest-blogging in your niche” Add a little information too on how to do the actual guest-blogging. This should, however, be actionable tips, not just general info.
Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”
“Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”
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Course textbook:
Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice (4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.
How mangers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce
Write a one page paper on how Managers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce. How can each generation learn from one another? Then tell me what can Generation X do to make the workplace a better place?
Analysis, Modeling, and Design
Business Case Research Paper
A Business Case Definition: Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.
For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan. Include definitions and applications. Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.
I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length. Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.
This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.
XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000. An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building. A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000. Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used. Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.
Economic Gain – 10 million
Depreciation rates are as follows:
Real Property – 39 year straight line
7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:
7 Year Property5 Year Property
14.29% 1. 20%
24.49% 2. 32%
17.49 % 3. 19.2%
12.49 % 4. 11.52%
8.93 % 5. 11.5%
8.92 % 6. 5.76%
8.93
4.46
Signature Assignment
Assignment Steps
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word memo to a prospective employer outlining your credentials, including: taking this class, all of the projects you have done for this class individually and with your team, and their impact on the businesses you have engaged with so a senior manager reading it would want to hire you as either an operations consultant or permanent employee.
Summarize the business case for each project.
Outline what you specifically accomplished, assuming these projects were implemented, and their estimated impacts on the business.
Utilize the learnings from your skills in global sourcing, procurement, and outsourcing which can also be of benefit to your target firm.
Format your assignment as if you would be giving a presentation to senior management
Which of these countries is NOT identified in the text as having a developing economy with a substantial market?
A) Russia
B) China
C) India
D) Europe
Low inflation is a trigger for improved project management skills because:
A) Rampant cost increases must be passed along to the consumer
B) Internal process improvement is accomplished via project management
C) Lower inflation means narrower product launch windows
D) Global markets are a prerequisite for low inflation
The Project Management Body of Knowledge Guide definition of a project indicates that a project is:
A) Multifunctional
B) Permanent
C) Designed to avoid using human resources
D) Not limited by a budget
The acronym PMBoK stands for:
A) The Personal Management Before or Kernel.
B) The Project Movement Behind our Kernel.
C) The Project Management Body of Knowledge.
D) The Performance Measurement Body of Knowledge.
Which of the following is NOT a project constraint?
A) The budget
B) The customer requirements
C) The schedule
D) The technical specifications
Which of the following is NOT an element of strategic management?
A) Formulating cross-functional decisions
B) Implementing cross-functional decisions
C) Evaluating cross-functional decisions
D) Eliminating cross-functional decisions
Which of the following is descriptive of a vision statement?
A) Inspirational
B) Functional
C) Supportive
D) Critical
Which of these strategic elements exists at a higher level than the others?
A) Programs
B) Objectives
C) Goals
D) Strategies
A strategic element that contains formally titled initiatives such as the Customer Survey Project, the Small Business Alliance Project, and the Employee Relations Project is most likely a:
A) Mission
B) Strategy
C) Goal
D) Program
External stakeholders that are external to a project but possess the power to effectively disrupt the project’s development are:
A) Intervenor groups
B) Environmental groups
C) Stressor groups
D) Special-interest groups
Souder’s project screening criterion of realism addresses the question:
A) How many workers will the project need?
B) Will the project work as intended?
C) Who are the stakeholders?
D) How often should the project team meet?
A selection model that is broad enough to be applied to multiple projects has the benefit of:
A) Ease of use.
B) Comparability.
C) Capability.
D) Flexibility.
A project screening criterion that allows the company to compare long-term versus short-term projects, projects with different technologies, and projects with different commercial objectives is:
A) Flexibility.
B) Ease of use.
C) Capability.
D) Realistic.
A wedding planner allows $10,000 for flowers and three weeks to receive all RSVPs back from the list of 700 guests. Both estimates are correct within a fraction of a percent. We could describe this factoid as:
A) Numeric and subjective.
B) Numeric and objective.
C) Non-numeric and subjective.
D) Non-numeric and objective.
One project factor that directly impacts a firm’s internal operations is the:
A) Expected return on investment.
B) Financial risk.
C) Need to develop employees.
D) Impact on company’s image.
Which statement regarding project selection is BEST?
A) Organizational reality can be perfectly captured by most decision-making models.
B) Before selecting any project, the team should identify all the relevant issues that play a
role in project selection.
C) Decision models must contain either objective or subjective factors.
D) Every decision model has both objective and subjective factors.
A project manager is using a simple scoring model to decide which of four projects is best, given the company’s limited resources. The criteria, importance weights, and scores for each are shown in the table. Which project should be chosen?
Project Criteria
Importance
Weight Score
1 1 3
Greenlight 2 2 2
3 3 1
1 1 2
Runway 2 2 1
3 3 3
1 1 1
X 2 2 2
3 3 2
1 1 2
Ilevomit 2 2 2
3 3 2
A) Project Greenlight
B) Project Runway
C) Project X
D) Project Ilevomit
For the project manager, leadership is:
A) The process by which she influences the project team.
B) The process of assembling a group of individuals.
C) The process of building skills among all team members.
D) The process of maintaining control of the budget.
The idea that all members of a project team have the ability to offer a contrary position in order to achieve true partnership between the project manager and the team is called:
A) Exchange of purpose.
B) A right to say no.
C) Joint accountability.
D) Absolute honesty.
In a partnership, each member of the project team is responsible for the project’s outcomes and the current situation, whether it is positive or shows evidence of project problems. The term that BEST describes this responsibility is:
A) Exchange of purpose.
B) A right to say no.
C) Joint accountability.
D) Absolute honesty.
Which statement regarding the duties of leaders and managers is BEST?
A) Leaders embrace change while managers support the status quo.
B) Management is more about interpersonal relationships than leadership is.
C) Leaders aim for efficiency.
D) Managers aim for effectiveness.
Which of these is more characteristic of a leader?
A) Strive for control
B) Do things right
C) Demand respect
D) Inspire trust
A common tactic project managers use when they realize their project is underfunded is to rely on:
A) Intimidation.
B) Political tactics.
C) Asking for forgiveness rather than permission.
D) The kindness of strangers.
Which personality trait is a poor match for project work?
A) Introverted
B) Outgoing
C) Gregarious
D) People-oriented
Which statement about scope management is BEST?
A) Scope management must take place during the conceptual development, full definition, execution, and termination phases.
B) Project goals don’t matter in scope management as long as the budget is not exceeded.
C) Scope management is accomplished in a single step by any one project team member.
D) Scope management can begin once a project hits operational level.
The Scope Management chapter begins and ends with the quote, “It’s a dream until you write it down. Then it’s:
A) Etched in stone.”
B) A scope statement.”
C) A documented dream.”
D) A goal.”
Which of these is NOT an element of project scope management?
A) Project champion
B) Scope statement
C) Project closeout
D) Control systems
Scope management for a project begins with:
A) A work package.
B) An organization breakdown structure.
C) A statement of goals.
D) A configuration statement.
Restrictions that affect project development are:
A) Problems.
B) Constraints.
C) Stop-limits.
D) Limitations.
Expected commitments from other departments in support of the project would most likely be detailed in the:
A) Approach section of the SOW.
B) Risks and concerns section of the SOW.
C) Acceptance criteria section of the SOW.
D) Resource requirements section of the SOW.
The step that reflects the formal “go ahead” given to the project to commence once the scope definition, planning documents, and other contractual documents have been prepared and approved is the:
A) Go ahead.
B) Send off.
C) Work authorization.
D) Work release.
Project management people skills include:
A) Team building.
B) Scheduling.
C) Budgeting.
D) Project evaluation.
The first step in assembling a project team is to:
A) Talk to potential team members.
B) Identify the required skills.
C) Negotiate with the functional supervisor.
D) Notify top management.
Most project resources are negotiated with:
A) Project managers.
B) Potential team members.
C) Top management.
D) External stakeholders.
Stacey noted that the client was a cantankerous old man and that her current project team lacked the requisite skills to work with him. Time was running short, so the BEST approach to making sure the project team had the necessary skills was to:
A) Locate a new client for this project.
B) Identify a suitable training program and implement it.
C) Hire a contractor for the life of the project.
D) Modify the skill set to something that her current team possessed.
If a functional manager will NOT release the resources you need as project manager, your best course of action is to:
A) Complete the project as best you can and inform management and the client that you predicted this outcome.
B) Use social media to voice your concerns.
C) Notify top management of the consequences.
D) Update your resume.
The department chair had allotted plenty of time for all department (and project) members to prepare sections of their five-year program review. Administration demanded no less than 50 pages be devoted to a thorough and thoughtful review of activities and goals. What happened to the report was anybody’s guess; no one had actually seen one or ever heard back from administration once they had submitted it. Most of the project team members thought the report was immediately sent to the steam tunnels running underneath the campus or perhaps it would sit collecting dust as part of a make-work program to justify an assistant VP’s job. No wonder that team meetings were poorly attended and that all the sections of the report were filled with trite phrases and wide margins. This team suffers from:
During the two hours before their 7:30 p.m. appointments on Wednesday evenings, the operations team had a weekly gripe session during which everyone gleefully unloaded on the powers that controlled their miserable lives. This session was valuable since it:
A) Allowed them to feel like real men, if only for a little while.
B) Rewarded good behavior.
C) Established a sense of security and consistency.
D) Created a clear process for addressing conflict and group norms.
The difference between projects that fail and those that are ultimately successful has to do with:
A) The plans that have been made to deal with problems as they arise.
B) The fact that a successful project doesn’t encounter problems.
C) Whether the project is for an internal or external customer.
D) Whether the problem is time- or budget-related.
Project risk is highest during the:
A) Termination stage of the project life cycle.
B) Concept stage of the project life cycle.
C) Implementation stage of the project life cycle.
D) Development stage of the project life cycle.
Project risk is lowest during the:
A) Concept stage of the project life cycle.
B) Implementation stage of the project life cycle.
C) Termination stage of the project life cycle.
D) Development stage of the project life cycle.
The greatest project risk occurs when:
A) The probability of the event is high and the consequences of the event are high.
B) The probability of the event is high and the consequences of the event are low.
C) The probability of the event is low and the consequences of the event are high.
D) The probability of the event is low and the consequences of the event are low.
The greatest project opportunity occurs when:
A) The project is in the concept phase.
B) The project is in the development phase.
C) The project is in the implementation phase.
D) The project is in the termination phase.
The overall project risk factor is known to be 0.6. The probability of dependency failure is twice the probability of complexity failure and four times the probability of maturity failure. The consequence of performance failure is twice the consequence of reliability failure, four times the consequence of schedule failure and eight times the consequence of cost failure. What is the probability of maturity failure?
Maturity X Cost Y
Complexity 2X Schedule 2Y
Dependency 4X Reliability 4Y
Performance 8Y
A) 0.213
B) 0.197
C) 0.104
D) 0.148
Use the failure probability and consequence scores shown in the table to determine the consequence of failure for the project.
Maturity 0.6 Cost 0.2
Complexity 0.8 Schedule 0.3
Dependency 0.6 Reliability 0.2
Performance 0.5
A) Greater than 0.7
B) Less than or equal to 0.7 but greater than 0.5
C) Less than or equal to 0.5 but greater than 0.3
D) Less than 0.2
True and False: Write T for True or F for False on the line.
Projects, rather than repetitive tasks, are now the basis for most value-added in business.
True
False
The emergence of global markets has made project management skills more critical.
True
False
The same project managed in the same fashion may succeed in one organization but fail in another.
True
False
Most companies are well suited to allow for successful completion of projects in
conjunction with other ongoing corporate activities.
True
False
Risks can be quantified by multiplying the likelihood a failure will occur by the severity of the failure.
True
False
ECO100 Knowledge Check 1
Question
Question 1
If macroeconomics looks at the economy as a whole, it focuses on which of the following?
households
business firms
unemployed people
the division of labor
Question 2
In a discussion of economics, which of the following would exert the most influence on an individual firm’s decision to hire workers?
wage levels
the macroeconomy
the firm’s income
household income
Question 3
What is the basic difference between macroeconomics and microeconomics?
microeconomics looks at the forest (aggregate markets) while macroeconomics looks at the trees (individual markets).
macroeconomics is concerned with groups of individuals while microeconomics is concerned with single countries.
microeconomics is concerned with the trees (individual markets) while macroeconomics is concerned with the forest (aggregate markets).
macroeconomics is concerned with generalization while microeconomics is concerned with specialization.
Question 4
What is the basic difference between macroeconomics and microeconomics?
microeconomics concentrates on individual markets while macroeconomics focuses primarily on international trade.
microeconomics concentrates on the behaviour of individual consumers while macroeconomics focuses on the behaviour of firms.
microeconomics concentrates on the behaviour of individual consumers and firms while macroeconomics focuses on the performance of the entire economy.
microeconomics explores the causes of inflation while macroeconomics focuses on the causes of unemployment.
Question 5
Which of the following is most likely a topic of discussion in macroeconomics?
an increase in the price of a hamburger
a decrease in the production of DVD players by a consumer electronics company
an increase in the wage rate paid to automobile workers
a decrease in the unemployment rate
Question 6
Attending college is a case where the ________________ exceeds the monetary cost.
budget constraint
marginal analysis
opportunity cost
marginal utility
Question 7
Most real-world choices aren’t about getting all of one thing or another; instead, most choices involve _________________, which includes comparing the benefits and costs of choosing a little more or a little less of a good.
utility
opportunity cost
benefit analysis
marginal analysis
Question 8
The law of ____________________________ explains why people and societies rarely make all-or-nothing choices.
consumption
marginal analysis
diminishing marginal utility
utility
Question 9
Also called the opportunity set—a diagram which shows what choices are possible—which of the following is the model that economists use to illustrate the process of individual choice in a situation of scarcity?
consumption set
budget constraint
original budget
income cap
Question 10
Scarcity implies that:
consumers would be willing to purchase the same quantity of a good at a higher price.
it is impossible to completely fulfill the unlimited human desirefor goods and services with the limited resources available.
at the current market price, consumers are willing to purchase more of a good than suppliers are willing to produce.
consumers cannot afford the goods and services available
A fundamental and distinctive mode of expression that appears in a field of human endeavor is called a __________.
style
theme
trend
pattern
A firm should use undifferentiated marketing to promote its products when:
the market shows several natural segments.
it wants to appeal to multiple market segments
it wants to customize its products for each consumer.
all consumers have the same wants and preferences.
The marketing department of Style Wheel Inc., a manufacturer of luxury cars, initiates intensive marketing efforts prior to launching a new model. Three months into the launch of the new model, the department decides to assess the short-term effects of its marketing activities. Which of the following is a reliable measure of performance for this purpose?
Perceived quality
Market share
Customer awareness
Shareholder value
___________ the first step a firm should take while setting the price for a product.
Determining demand
Selecting the pricing objective
Selecting a pricing method
Estimating cost
Business markets differ from consumer markets in that:
in business markets, purchasing is often executed through intermediaries.
the total demand for many goods and services in business markets is elastic.
buying decisions are subject to multiple influences.
in business markets, a marked typically deals with several smaller buyers.
Which of the following describes the term product system?
It is a set of variants that are developed for a single product.
It is a group of products that perform a similar function and belong to a single product class.
It refers to a set of products available only to high-income consumers.
It refers to a set of different but related items that operate in a compatible manner.
The width of a company’s product mix refers to:
the extent to which the different product lines in the mix are related in terms of end use.
the number of variants offered for each product in a product line.
the number of different product lines carried by the company.
the total number of items in the product mix.
C-level executives. Nowadays, a __________ is being appointed by many firms as C-level executives.
chief marketing officer
finance manager
chief information officer
marketing manager
In which of the following stages of a product life cycle are profits nonexistent?
Introduction
Maturity
decline
Growth
Which of the following statements is true?
Their influence on purchase is significant.
Their effectiveness derives from individualized presentation and feedback.
They are often less effective than mass communication channels.
They include public relations, advertising and sales promotions.
_______________ to the capacity to satisfy humanity’s needs without harming future generations.
Profitability
Sustainability
Accountability
Durability
Fashion Vista Designers, a firm that sells designer clothes, has outlets in four countries. In each country, it offers the climatic conditions of the country and match the cultural sensibilities of the local population. The marketing department of Fashion Vista often releases advertisements that show regional celebrities endorsing the company’s products. In this scenario, which of the following types of market segmentation does Fashion Vista employ?
Which of the following is a difference between business markets and consumer markets?
In business markets, buyers usually purchase products through intermediaries, while in consumer markets, buyers usually purchase products directly from manufacturers.
Suppliers in business markets are often expected to tailor their products to suit the requirements of individual business customers.
In business markets, the total demand for goods and services is affected by price changes, whereas in consumer markets, the total demand for goods and services is not affected by price changes.
Purchasing decisions are made by the end user and purchasing decisions are made by a buying committee.
Which of the following measures reflects the short-term results of a firm’s marketing efforts?
Perceived quality
Customer awareness
Sales turnover
Market share
_________ refers to the activity of designing a company’s product and image so that they occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market
targeting
segmentation
Positioning
Customization
__________ the process of maximizing customer loyalty by cautiously handling detailed information about customers and all customer touch points.
Product modification
Customer cloning
Customer relationship management
Enterprise resource planning
The __________ encompasses the engaged engaged in producing, distributing, and promoting a product or a service.
legal environment
demographic environment
natural environment
task environment
__________ divides the market into units looking for nations, states, regions, cities, or neighborhoods.
Geographic segmentation
Behavioral segmentation
Demographic segmentation
Psychographic segmentation
In the context of the value chain, __________ is a primary activity that involves bringing into the business.
operations
inbound logistics
technology development
marketing
__________ refers to a marketing strategy in which a firm tries to cater to all customer groups with all the products they might require
Multiple segment specialization
Single-segment concentration
Individual marketing
Full market coverage
Entities that assist in the distribution process of a product do not take __________.
agents
merchants
jobbers
facilitators
Which of the following statements is true of a sharing economy?
An organization’s trust and reputation have a role in determining its place in a sharing economy.
A sharing economy is usually the result of two activities, harvesting and divesting.
Self-policing mechanisms are typically absent in most platforms that are part of a sharing-related business.
In a sharing economy, in individual experiences the benefits of being both a consumer and a producer.
Which of the following statements is true of fads?
They usually satisfy a strong customer need.
They tend to win over only a limited following.
They have a long acceptance cycle.
They last for several generations.
The ___________releases to the core business process in which an organization researches, develops, and introduces novel, high-quality products quickly and within the firm’s budget.
customer acquisition process
customer relationship management process
new-offering realization process
fulfillment management process
When marketers combine an existing brand with a new brand, the product is called a __________.
sub-brand
parent brand
master brand
family brand
__________ is a period in a typical product life cycle characterized by rapid market acceptance and significant profit improvement.
Introduction
Growth
decline
Maturity
__________ seeks to create brand awareness among consumers and communicate about new products or new features of existing products.
Informative advertising
Reinforcement advertising
Reminder advertising
Persuasive advertising
A customer-focused __________ presents a strong, convincing reason why the target market should be a product or service.
value proposition
value network
project objective
mission statement
A company that interacts with its customers to get product ideas should:
engage the right customers in the right way.
allow all its customers to participate in the product design process.
focus solely on its lead users.
prohibit customers from innovating products without their consent.
__________ is one of the methods used to develop ideas for a new product in which each feature of an existing product is noted and modified.
A nurse who has an obvious physical disability applies for a staff nurse position. Which question, asked by the nurse recruiter, is legal?
“How long have you been disabled?”
“How does your disability affect your life?”
“Are you able to fulfill the requirements of this job?”
“Has your condition stabilized, or do you foresee it getting worse with time?”
Question 2
What is the basic purpose of the state board of nursing?
To ensure that all practicing nurses are competent
To restrict nursing practice through regulations
To ensure that all schools of nursing seek national accreditation
To establish a means of protecting the public at large
Question 3
A nurse brings suit against the hospital after being terminated for excessive absenteeism. Who is the defendant in this lawsuit?
The nurse bringing the suit
The nurse’s attorney
The hospital
The hospital’s attorney
Question 4
Which of the following principles underlies the actions of all health care providers and assures that those actions will meet or exceed standards of care?
Veracity
Maleficence
Beneficence
Autonomy
Question 5
What is the nurse’s legal duty with regard to implementing a physician’s order?
The nurse should follow the order unless the nurse believes some other course of action would be better.
The nurse should follow the order unless the nurse has reason to believe that the patient could come to harm if the order is followed.
The nurse should review each order with the physician and then follow the order.
The nurse should question every order with the physician, since physicians are only human.
Question 6
Which patient incident should be addressed because it is the primary cause of action in lawsuits against long-term care facilities?
Inadequate resident nutrition
Resident falls
Medication errors
Abuse of residents
Question 7
Ethical theories that derive norms and rules from the duties human beings owe to each other fall under the broad classification of:
Teleological theories.
Deontological theories.
Utilitarian theories.
Situational ethics.
Question 8
Which of the following actions is a requirement of the standard of care when it comes to technology and equipment in nursing practice?
Select and properly use equipment within health care settings.
Clean and repair equipment so that it can be readily used.
Modify equipment or improvise as needed in clinical settings.
Notify the FDA is equipment is not working properly.
Question 9
Students do not need to be licensed to practice nursing actions because:
They practice on their instructors’ licenses.
They practice as an exception to the licensure requirement.
They have a lower standard of care than do licensed nurses.
Clinical contracts preclude the need for licenses.
Question 10
A nurse’s neighbor routinely calls and asks for advice regarding health issues. What should the nurse do about these calls?
Tell the neighbor that the nurse is not legally able to give health advice outside the work environment.
Be certain that any advice given reflects both nursing and community standards.
Charge the neighbor a flat fee of $25 for each call.
Tell the neighbor that nurses are not educationally prepared to give health advice.
Question 11
When one delegates tasks to another, accountability for that task:
Is transferred to the person performing the task.
Is retained by the person who transfers the task.
Is held jointly by the person transferring the task and the person performing the task.
Can be imputed to either the person performing the task or the person transferring performance of the task.
Question 12
When giving health-related advice, the nurse can avoid liability if the advice reflects:
A solid medical diagnosis.
Nursing and community standards.
A quick assessment and treatment recommendations.
There is no way to avoid liability when giving advice.
Question 13
The overall goal of American antitrust laws is to:
Prevent competition while creating efficient markets.
Promote competition while creating efficient markets.
Promote competition without affecting market practices.
Prevent competition without affecting market practices.
Question 14
The single most critical factor in determining whether a particular nurse acted with reasonable care in a given situation is:
The number of years the nurse has practiced as a professional.
The experience the nurse has in a particular clinical setting.
The ability of the nurse to perform according to his or her job description.
How the nurse’s conduct compared to the conduct of other nurses with similar backgrounds and experience.
Question 15
Persons who are qualified under the Americans with Disabilities Act include:
Persons who have gender identity disorders and sexual behavior disorders.
Persons who are bisexual and homosexual.
Persons who are currently using illegal drugs.
Persons who are recovering or rehabilitated alcoholics.
Question 16
When the nurse manager transfers full responsibility for the performance of a task without transferring the accountability for the ultimate outcome, the task has been:
Consent, once validly given by a competent adult patient:
May not be revoked.
May be revoked only in writing if the original consent was written.
May be revoked at any time prior to the procedure or treatment being implemented.
May be revoked only if a second procedure supersedes the first procedure.
Question 18
Nurses in which health care settings are required to comply with the Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990?
Solely in formal institutional settings, such as hospitals.
In all health care settings except home health care settings.
In all health care settings, including home health care settings, if federal funds are received.
In home health care settings only if they have a validly executed advanced directive when care is first rendered.
Question 19
A nurse is caring for a 45-year-old patient who reveals that recent injuries are a result of domestic violence. The patient begs the nurse not to “tell anyone.” What action, taken by the nurse, is correct?
Tell the patient that the law requires reporting this incident.
Promise the patient the information will not be shared.
Talk with the patient about the reason for secrecy.
Report the revelation to the charge nurse immediately.
Question 20
The number of states that now have elder abuse laws is:
40
45
48
50
Question 21
Which of the following best describes the term “Telehealth”?
Transmission of information from one site to another.
Delivery of health care through a telecommunications system.
Transmission of sounds and images between two or more sites.
Combination of robotics and virtual reality to allow treatment modalities in distant sites.
Question 22
Apparent consent occurs when the patient:
Voluntarily signs a consent form for an invasive procedure.
Orally agrees to have an invasive procedure performed.
Allows a family member to sign the informed consent form for him or her.
Shows by his or her conduct that he or she agrees to the treatment.
Question 23
In passing the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, Congress attempted to combine the two legal concepts of:
Disability and the right to work.
Disability and equality.
Disability and autonomy.
Disability and fairness.
Question 24
A nurse, while under a general employment contract with a hospital, is subject to the right to direct and control the details of his or her work by a second entity. Such a nurse would be said to be acting as a (an):
Dual servant.
Borrowed servant.
Independent contractor.
Agent of the principal.
Question 25
Internal sources for determining standards of care include:
Hospital policy and procedure manuals.
Professional journals and nursing texts.
Previous and relevant court cases.
State standards of care as defined by the state board of nursing.
Question 26
The defendant in a lawsuit is the party:
Bringing the lawsuit against another.
Who was injured by the nurse or health care provider.
Who is answering a complaint brought against him or her.
Who is the health care institution in the case.
Question 27
One of the most important state legislative acts in the area of community health nursing is the:
State nurse practice act.
State Medicaid law.
State family consent doctrine.
State reporting statute.
Question 28
Which advanced nurse practitioner role is authorized by nurse practice acts, medical practice acts, and allied health laws?
Nurse anesthetist
Nurse midwife
Family nurse practitioner
Clinical nurse specialist
Question 29
Since unlicensed personnel are not licensed by the state in their own right, they may perform delegated tasks because:
They practice on the license of the professional delegating the task.
They are sanctioned by the American Hospital Association as an exception to the requirement for licensure.
They work under the auspices and licensure of the institution, not the professional nurse.
They are sanctioned by the state nurse practice act as an exception to the requirement for licensure.
Question 30
When nurses assist patients to understand their own value system and make choices consistent with those values, the approach to advocacy is said to be the:
Rights protection model.
Autonomy model.
Values-based decision model.
Patient advocate model.
Question 31
The main purpose of documentation is to:
Communicate the patient’s condition to all members of the health care team.
Record patient information for future research studies.
Verify dates of patients’ admissions to health care institutions.
Ensure that all charges are validly documented and assessed to the patient for collection from third-party payers.
Question 32
What is the most significant professional qualification necessary for a nurse who practices as a school nurse?
The nurse’s ability to work closely with school officials.
The nurse’s ability to properly counsel students about medical concerns.
The nurse’s ability to exercise independent judgment in emergency situations.
The nurse’s ability to effectively teach students about their health and wellness.
Question 33
The functions of risk management include all of the following except:
Defining situations that place the entity at some financial risk.
Intervening in and investigating potential risks that exist in the health care setting.
Identifying opportunities for improving patient care.
Identifying opportunities and funding for patient research.
Question 34
The legal guide to the practice of registered nursing is:
ANA Code of Ethics.
Nightingale Pledge.
State Nurse Practice Act.
Nurse’s Bill of Rights.
Question 35
When a nurse manager assists an employee in deciding about the employee’s future career and possible options available to him or her, the manager is most likely following the ethical principle of:
Justice
Fidelity
Autonomy
Paternalism
Question 36
The standard of care under Good Samaritan laws is usually the:
Standard of the reasonably prudent patient.
Emergency care standard.
Disaster care standard.
Standard of the prudent hospital-based staff nurse.
Question 37
The court found a nurse manager liable for failure to warn. Which option reflects a failure to warn scenario?
The nurse manager did not adequately supervise a newly hired nurse who had not practiced nursing in five years.
The nurse manager did not tell a potential employer that a former employee was asked to resign for incompetence.
The nurse manager did not advise a newly hired nurse that continuing education was an annual requirement for promotion.
The nurse manager did not notify the physician regarding worsening of a patient’s respiratory status.
Question 38
One of the earliest needs for the EMTALA was seen as the need to prevent:
Patients being turned away from clinics because of inability to pay for services.
Health maintenance organizations from making a profit by providing substandard care.
Patients being turned away from emergency centers based on inability to pay for services.
Illegal aliens from receiving free services in the United States.
Question 39
Which group or person has authority to write statutory law such as nurse practice acts?
State legislatures
State boards of nursing
State governors
State nursing associations
Question 40
The doctrine of personal liability is a rule that:
Protects nurses against liability for malpractice.
Holds everyone responsible for his or her own negligent conduct.
Makes some persons responsible for the actions of others.
Ensures that no one has liability in certain legal actions.
Question 41
The statute of limitations for a lawsuit:
Defines events that will not be allowed to be discussed at trial.
Defines the period of time in which a lawsuit may be filed.
Is suspended for minors in all states until they become 18 years of age.
Limits the number of plaintiffs and defendants in any given lawsuit.
Question 42
By passing the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act, Congress:
Established the right of all Americans to have health insurance.
Established the right of access to medical care, regardless of ability to pay.
Established the right of access to medical care, dependent upon the ability to pay.
Set into motion a socialized medical plan for all Americans.
Question 43
Delegation has been a concept used in nursing:
Since the 1990s.
Since the early 1970s.
Since the mid-1950s.
Throughout all of nursing’s history.
Question 44
A confused patient frequently calls out for “help” throughout the shift. When nursing staff respond to the call, the patient is unable to explain what is needed. What action should be taken by the nurse?
Continue to respond and attempt to reorient the patient.
Move the call bell out of the patient’s reach to deter erroneous calls.
Restrain the patient in soft wrist restraints until the physician can be reached.
Chemically restrain the patient with a mild sedative so he/she will sleep.
Question 45
A nurse has decided to obtain individual professional liability insurance. In general, which type of insurance is best for most nurses?
Claims-made
Certificate-based
Occurrence-based
Employer-sponsored
Question 46
A patient on the medical/surgical unit became confused and dangerous to himself and others in the setting, restraints were applied, and the patient was confined to bed. The nurse’s best defense for applying the restraints would be:
Consent.
Self-defense.
Necessity.
Privilege.
Question 47
The standard of care of the nursing student is:
Greater than that of the RN.
Less than that of the RN.
The same as that of the RN.
Not comparable to the standard of the RN.
Question 48
A school nurse negligently administered an overdose of medication to a student, causing the student to suffer a severe reaction that necessitated hospitalization. Should a lawsuit result from this case, the nurse would be held to what standard?
The reasonably prudent school nurse
The reasonably prudent pediatric nurse
The reasonably prudent general duty hospital nurse
The reasonably prudent advanced nurse practitioner
Question 49
Discrimination against which group of persons necessitated the Americans with Disabilities Act?
The increasing population of older Americans
Those returning from war with orthopedic injuries
The increasing numbers of people injured in motor vehicle accidents
Those living with HIV/AIDS
Question 50
External sources for determining standards of care include:
When advising a patient about the influenza nasal spray vaccine, the NP considers the following:
Question options:
1) Its use is acceptable during pregnancy.
2) Its use is limited to children younger than 6 years.
3) It contains live, attenuated virus.
4) This is the preferred method of influenza protection in the presence of airway disease.
Question 2
Which of the following is true about the MMR vaccine?
Question options:
1) This vaccine contains live virus.
2) Its use is contraindicated in persons with a history of egg allergy.
3) Revaccination of an immune person is associated with risk of allergic reaction.
4) One dose is recommended for young adults who have not been previously immunized.
Question 3
Which of the following is the most prudent first-line treatment choice for an otherwise well toddler with acute otitis media (AOM) who requires antimicrobial therapy?
Question options:
1) Ceftibuten.
2) Amoxicillin.
3) Cefuroxime.
4) Azithromycin.
Question 4
The most common causative organism of bronchiolitis is:
Question options:
1) haemophilus influenzae.
2) parainfluenza virus.
3) respiratory syncytial virus.
4) coxsackievirus.
Question 5
At which of the following ages in an infant’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about teething most helpful?
Question options:
1) 1–2 months.
2) 2–4 months.
3) 4–6 months.
4) 8–10 months.
Question 6
A young child should use a rear-facing car seat until at least age:
Question options:
1) 12 months.
2) 18 months.
3) 24 months.
4) 30 months.
Question 7 1 / 2 points
Risk factors for dyslipidemia in children include which of the following? Select all that apply.
Question options:
1) Blood pressure at the 70th to 80th percentile for age.
2) Breastfeeding into the toddler years.
3) Family history of lipid abnormalities.
4) Family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Question 8
Which of the following laboratory tests can identify the causative organism of bronchiolitis?
Question options:
1) Nasal washing antigen test.
2) Antibody test via blood sample.
3) Urine culture.
4) A laboratory test is not available.
Question 9
Physical examination findings in otitis externa include:
Question options:
1) tympanic membrane immobility.
2) increased ear pain with tragus palpation.
3) tympanic membrane erythema.
4) tympanic membrane bullae.
Question 10
Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?
Aortic stenosis in a 15-year-old male is most likely:
Question options:
1) a sequela of rheumatic fever.
2) a result of a congenital defect.
3) calcific in nature.
4) found with atrial septal defect.
Question 12
Which of the following do you expect to find in an examination of a 2-week-old infant?
Question options:
1) A visual preference for the human face.
2) A preference for low-pitched voices.
3) Indifference to the cry of other neonates.
4) Poorly developed sense of smell.
Question 13
An 18-year-old woman has a chief complaint of a “sore throat and swollen glands” for the past 3 days. Her physical examination includes a temperature of 101° F (38. 3° C), exudative pharyngitis, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Right and left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness is absent. The most likely diagnosis is:
Question options:
1) streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis.
2) infectious mononucleosis.
3) viral pharyngitis.
4) vincent angina.
Question 14
At which of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about infant sleep position most helpful?
Question options:
1) Birth.
2) 2 weeks.
3) 2 months.
4) 4 months.
Question 15
With regard to seasonal influenza prevention in well children, the NP considers that:
Question options:
1) compared with school-aged children, younger children (? 24 months old) have an increased risk of seasonal influenza-related hospitalization.
2) a full adult dose of seasonal influenza vaccine should be given starting at age 4 years.
3) the use of the seasonal influenza vaccine in well children is discouraged.
4) widespread use of the vaccine is likely to increase the risk of eczema and antibiotic allergies.
Question 16
Rebound tenderness is best described as abdominal pain that worsens with:
Question options:
1) light palpation at the site of the discomfort.
2) release of deep palpation at the site of the discomfort.
3) palpation on the contralateral side of the abdomen.
4) deep palpation at the site of the discomfort.
Question 17
A Still murmur:
Question options:
1) is heard in the presence of cardiac pathology.
2) has a humming or vibratory quality.
3) is a reason for denying sports participation clearance.
4) can become louder when the patient is standing.
Question 18
Common causative organisms of acute suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the following except:
Question options:
1) staphylococcus aureus.
2) haemophilus influenzae.
3) streptococcus pneumoniae.
4) pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Question 19
Which of the following imaging studies potentially exposes the patient being evaluated for abdominal pain to the lowest ionizing radiation burden?
Question options:
1) Ultrasound.
2) Barium enema.
3) CT scan.
4) Abdominal flat plate.
Question 20
At which age is a child at greatest risk of death from pertussis?
Question options:
1) <1 year.
2) 2–4 years.
3) 5–10 years.
4) >10 years.
Question 21
A healthy 3-year-old child is in your office for well-child care. You expect this child to be able to:
Question options:
1) name five colors.
2) alternate feet when climbing stairs.
3) speak in two-word phrases.
4) tie shoelaces.
Question 22
Treatment options in acute and recurrent allergic conjunctivitis include all of the following except:
Question options:
1) cromolyn ophthalmic drops.
2) oral antihistamines.
3) ophthalmological antihistamines.
4) corticosteroid ophthalmic drops.
Question 23
Rectal bleeding associated with anal fissure is usually described by the patient as:
Question options:
1) drops of blood noticed when wiping.
2) dark brown to black in color and mixed in with normal-appearing stool.
3) a large amount of brisk red bleeding.
4) significant blood clots and mucus mixed with stool.
Question 24
Concerning the MMR vaccine, which of the following is true?
Question options:
1) The link between use of MMR vaccine and childhood autism has been firmly established.
2) There is no credible scientific evidence that MMR use increases the risk of autism.
3) The use of the combined vaccine is associated with increased autism risk, but giving the vaccine’s three components as separate vaccines minimizes this risk.
4) The vaccine contains thimerosal, a mercury derivative.
Question 25
You are examining an 18-year-old man who is seeking a sports clearance physical examination. You note a mid-systolic murmur that gets louder when he stands. This may represent:
Question options:
1) aortic stenosis.
2) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
3) a physiologic murmur.
4) a Still’s murmur.
Question 26
Which of the following statements is correct about the varicella vaccine?
Question options:
1) This vaccine contains killed varicella-zoster virus (VZV).
2) A short febrile illness is common during the first days after vaccination.
3) Children should have a varicella titer drawn before receiving the vaccine.
4) Rarely, mild cases of chickenpox have been reported in immunized patients.
Question 27
A healthy 6-year-old girl presents for care. Her parents request that she receive vaccination for influenza and report that she has not received this vaccine in the past. How many doses of influenza vaccine should she receive this flu season?
Question options:
1) 1.
2) 2.
3) 3.
4) 4.
Question 28
At which of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about toilet-training readiness most helpful?
Question options:
1) 12 months.
2) 15 months.
3) 18 months.
4) 24 months.
Question 29
The murmur of atrial septal defect is usually:
Question options:
1) found in children with symptoms of cardiac disease.
2) first found on a 2–6-month well-baby examination.
3) found with mitral valve prolapse.
4) presystolic in timing.
Question 30
You are examining an 18-month-old boy who is not speaking any discernible words. Mom tells you he has not said “mama or dada” yet or babbled or smiled responsively. You:
Question options:
1) encourage the mother to enroll her son in daycare to increase his socialization.
2) conduct further evaluation of milestone attainment.
3) reassure the parent that delayed speech is common in boys.
4) order audiogram and tympanometry.
Question 31
Treatment options for streptococcal pharyngitis for a patient with penicillin allergy include all of the following except:
Question options:
1) azithromycin.
2) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
3) clarithromycin.
4) clindamycin.
Question 32
Which of the following is one of the more common sources of hepatitis A infection in the United States?
Question options:
1) Receiving blood products.
2) Ingestion of raw shellfish.
3) Drinking municipally sourced tap water drinking water.
4) Exposure to fecally contaminated food.
Question 33
Juice intake is acceptable in children 6 months and older per which of the following recommendations? Select all that apply.
Question options:
1) The juice is mixed in small amounts to flavor water.
2) Only 100% juice is used.
3) Juice replaces no more than one serving of milk.
4) The juice is consumed in the morning with breakfast.
5) No more than 6 oz. (177 mL) per day is recommended for children 6 months to 5 years.
Question 34
Treatment of viral conjunctivitis can include:
Question options:
1) moxifloxacin ophthalmic drops.
2) polymyxin B ophthalmic drops.
3) oral acyclovir.
4) no antibiotic therapy needed.
Question 35 1 / 2 points
Which of the following benchmarks indicate normal development by a healthy child born at term who is now 12 months of age? Select all that apply.
Question options:
1) Talking in two-word sentences.
2) Pointing to a desired object.
3) Reaching for a desired object.
4) Walking backward.
COM 539 Final Exam Guide (New, 2018)
Relative to Americans, Canadians are more likely to be:
Happy and casual
Educated and informal
Bilingual and formal
Sociable and casual
Which of the following is an acceptable method of negotiating the price objection?
Apologize for the product’s high price
Clarify the link between price and quality
Make price the focal point of your presentation
Focus on an individual product feature
John Bieland, the equipment buyer for Great Lakes Manufacturing, purchased two large riveting machines from Hoseke Corporation’s sales representative, Lindell Ross. Because of a clerical error, the machines shipped a day later than scheduled, which put the delivery truck in the middle of a blizzard that shut down roads for several days. By the time the machines were delivered by Hoseke Corporation, they were a full week late. John Bieland sends an email to Lindell, cc’ing the CEOs of Great Lakes Manufacturing and Hoseke Corporation, expressing his dissatisfaction. What should Lindell offer to John to rectify the situation?
Lindell should discount any further purchases by half.
Lindell should refund John’s money.
Lindell should send John 2 new machines
Lindell should consult with John to find out what would help him regain trust in Lindell and Hoseke Corporation.
Managing an organization’s personal selling function to include planning, implementing, and controlling the sales management process is called:
Sales control
Sales supervision
Sales leadership
Sales management
With respect to the sales training process, after Brenda is done assessing the sales training needs, she should begin working on:
Performing sales training
Setting training objectives
Setting the sales training schedule
Evaluating training alternatives
Developing a long-term relationship that focuses on solving the customer’s buying problems is referred to as:
consulting
transitioning
selling
partnering
Steve is looking for a way to analyze customer data from his territory in an effort to identify new opportunities for sales revenue growth. _______________ could help Steve with this task.
Deal analytics
Sales call auditing software
Cloud computing
Customer Relationship Management
The primary goal of a ____________ presentation strategy is to influence the prospect’s beliefs, attitudes, or behavior, and to encourage buyer action.
persuasive
value
sensory
reminder
Which of the following is true with respect to negotiations in foreign cultures?
Business rituals are largely the same across cultures
It is sometimes advisable to become antagonistic during negotiations
German buyers are unlikely to look you in the eye
Different cultural expectations can cause miscommunication
The most widely used system for dividing responsibility is to organize the sales force on the basis of:
Products
Geography
Markets
Customers
JoAnn has a website for her business. She advertises her business on a number of online services, but she is not sure which ones are driving traffic to her website and which are not worth the money for advertising. The best thing for JoAnn to do is:
All websites are public so there really is not a way to determine how people find a website.
Buy advertising everywhere
Only advertise 1 or 2 places and see if her sales go up or down
Use a service such as Google Analytics® to determine what websites and searches are bringing traffic to her site.
The most likely reason for salespeople to make follow-up telephone calls to customers is that:
sales managers cannot make all the calls themselves
customer service representatives cannot be trusted to make the calls
the customer may place repeat orders during a phone call
follow-up calls are more efficient than e-mails
By demonstrating effective listening, a salesperson is able to do which of the following?
Beat out the competition
Always uncover two or three explicit needs
Convince the buyer that the salesperson’s product is best
Help build the buyer’s trust
“Smart” sales-force automation tools that analyze data on past customer behavior, cross-selling opportunities, and demographics to identify areas of opportunity are referred to collectively as?
Sales force automation
Cloud computing
Deal analytics
CRM
A customer has a negative experience at your business and writes about this on a social media review site. What is the best thing for you to do?
Respond calmly and don’t take it personally.
Never admit responsibility and divert blame.
Ignore it. People don’t take those sites seriously.
Post your reasons for not meeting their expectations.
The purpose of the follow-up communication between customer and salesperson is to express thanks for the order and to:
introduce related products
determine if the customer is satisfied
request referrals for other prospects
complete the call card form
Andrew is a new sales rep for an industrial chemical supplier. Andrew makes it a point to never be late for an appointment and to always follow through immediately on promises he makes to his customers. These behaviors help Andrew build trust with his customers because they perceive him as:
dependable
likeable
competent
candid
Steve is a salesperson who is responsible for selling only two of his company’s 15 products. Steve is working in a _____________ sales force.
Specialized
Centralized
Geographic
Decentralized
Which the following best describes the process of strategic prospecting?
The process of turning prospects into customers
The process of locating new customers
The process of generating leads
The process of identifying, qualifying, and prioritizing sales opportunities
Conveying interest and understanding is the objective of which active listening component?
Evaluating
Sensing
Responding
Interpreting
A series of creative improvements in the sales process that enhance the customer experience is known as:
value-added selling
relationship modeling
customer-oriented sales
transactional selling
Which statement is most likely true about the communication-style model?
Emotion and dominance are the two primary dimensions.
It is based on 3 important dimensions of human behavior
It is based on a highly accurate self-rating system.
It is composed of 4 distinct quadrants.
When a prospect has voiced an objection, it is most likely best for the salesperson to:
Deny the accuracy of the objection
Clarify the true nature of the problem
Suggest postponing the negotiations
Divert attention to a product feature
In order for salespeople to be able to deliver complete comparative product information in sales presentations they must possess:
trust
competitor knowledge
adaptability
assertiveness
Anthony is a purchasing agent for a hospital. One day the hospital receives a shipment from one of its suppliers with several items missing. Anthony calls the supplier and talks to a customer service representative who is very friendly and helpful. Anthony calls the supplier again the next day but talks to a different customer service representative. This customer service representative is not as friendly and not as helpful. Which of the following describes the problem the supplier has with customer service?
The first customer service agent set an unrealistic expectation
Customer service people are hard to train
The quality of the service provided is inconsistent across customer service agents
The second customer service agent needs more training
Steve is a salesperson for XYZ Corporation. His territory includes 50 established accounts which he calls on regularly. Although Steve is supposed to allocate some time to prospecting, he’d rather call on his existing accounts. Like many salespeople in his position, Steve resists prospecting because:
His established accounts are too important.
He is afraid of rejection.
He’d rather use his spare time for paperwork.
He doesn’t believe it’s necessary.
Working to reach an agreement that is mutually satisfactory to both buyer and seller is also called:
negotiation
practice theory
tactics
agreement
When a customer service problem requires an apology, a salesperson should most likely:
Send a text message to the customer
Delegate the task to a customer service representative
Send a prompt email to the customer
Call the customer personally
In order to better understand their own product’s position in the market place, salespeople need:
A high degree of competitor knowledge.
To be candid.
To be customer oriented.
A high degree of customer knowledge.
You have a business that you want to set up on Facebook®. What is the best way to drive traffic to your business using Facebook?
Create a profile using the name of your business.
Facebook does not have business options and only personal profiles are allowed.
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NR511 Midterm Exam 2018
Question
Question 1.Question : Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?
Creating a physician expert panel
Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
Conducting an external review of a guideline
Developing evidence-based tables
Question 2.Question : African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?
Inhaled corticosteroids
Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators
Leukotriene receptor agonists
Oral corticosteroids
Question 3.Question : Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?
The tumor size cannot be evaluated; the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes; and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
The cancer is in situ; it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread cannot be evaluated otherwise.
The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
The cancer is about 5 cm in size; nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated; and there is no evidence of distant spreading.
Question 4.Question : Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
Meclizine
Diphenhydramine
Diamox
Diamox
Promethazine
Question 5.Question : Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
Filiform/digitate wart
Dysplastic cervical lesion
Condyloma acuminata
Koilocytosis
Question 6.Question : Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?
Dementia
Alzheimer’s disease
Parkinson’s disease
Delirium
Question 7.Question : You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?
“Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
“Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
“Drive to the emergency room now.”
“Call 911.”
Question 8.Question : A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
Question 9.Question : Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?
Fluid restriction
Hemodialysis 4 days a week
High-protein diet
Maintenance of blood pressure at 120/80
Question 10.Question : Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
Glaucoma
Increased sperm quality
Bladder cancer
Eczema
Question 11.Question : A chronic cough lasts longer than:
3 weeks
1 month
6 months
1 year
Question 12.Question : The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
Parkinson’s disease
Alzheimer’s disease
A CVA
Bell’s palsy
Question 13.Question : When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
Tension
Migraine
Cluster
Stress
Question 14.Question : Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?
African American men
Scandinavian men and women
Caucasian women
Asian men
Question 15.Question : The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:
Pharyngitis
Allergies
Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
Perforation of the eardrum
Question 16.Question : Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:
Severe asthma
A common valvular lesion
Severe hypertension
A prosthetic heart valve
Question 17.Question : A 34-year-old patient was treated for a UTI and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
Send a urine specimen for microscopy and evaluate for fungal colonies.
Increase the dose of antibiotic.
Order a cytoscopy.
Order a different antibiotic.
Question 18.Question : Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
Question 19.Question : Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?
It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone during pregnancy.
This condition only occurs on the face.
Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.
It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Question 20.Question : Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
“You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
“It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
“The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
“We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 21.Question : A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:
Stage 2 hypertension
Hypertensive
Normal in healthy older adults
Acceptable if the patient has DM
Question 22.Question : When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?
1 month
3 months
6 months
As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.
Question 23.Question : Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?
He should stop smoking today.
He should stop smoking tomorrow.
His quit date should be in 1 week.
He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.
Question 24.Question : When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question 25.Question : The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
No activity at all
A blank stare
Urine is usually voided involuntarily
The attack usually lasts several minutes
Question 26.Question : Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?
Permethrin cream
Lindane
Crotamiton lotion and cream
Ivermectin
Question 27.Question : The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?
Viral conjunctivitis
Keratoconjunctivitis
Bacterial conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis
Question 28.Question : Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
“Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
“Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
“Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
“You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”
Question 29.Question : How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?
Every 3 months
Every 6 months
Annually
Whenever there is a problem
Question 30.Question : Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Question 31.Question : The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?
Repeat the test.
Refer to a nephrologist.
Measure the serum protein.
Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Question 32.Question : Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?
CN V
CN VII
CN IX
CN X
Question 33.Question : Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
Kidneys, ureter, bladder x-ray
Cystoscopy with biopsy
Magnetic resonance imaging
Urine tumor marker (NMP22)
Question 34.Question : The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:
Biopsy
Best practice
Boundary
Border irregularity
Question 35.Question : Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
These persons may drive but never alone.
Question 36.Question : Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
Greater than 30
Greater than 40
Greater than 50
Greater than 60
Question 37.Question : The most common cause of CAP is?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Legionella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 38.Question : Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?
Serum calcium
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
Complete blood cell count
Question 39.Question : A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?
The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Question 40.Question : Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
All of the above
Question 41.Question : Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?
BUN and creatinine
Electrolytes
Creatinine clearance
Urinalysis
Question 42.Question : Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?
It is an old wives’ tale.
It is used as a last resort.
Salicylic acid is more effective.
It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.
Question 43.Question : What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
Penicillin
Quinolone
Cephalosporin
Macrolide
Question 44.Question : Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?
Perforation of the tympanic membrane
Otosclerosis
Cholesteatoma
Presbycusis
Question 45.Question : Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”
An ulcer
A fissure
Lichenification
An excoriation
Question 46.Question : A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?
The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.
Question 47.Question : The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 48.Question : A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?
Question 49.Question : Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?
B-type natriuretic peptide
C-reactive protein
Serum albumin
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Question 50.Question : You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?
Baker phenomenon
Arnold reflex
Cough reflex
Tragus reflex
Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?
Western blot
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test
Viral load
Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
White blood cell count
Polymorphonuclear cells
C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
GABA
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 4.Question : Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
Dogs
Cats
Humans
Rodents
Question 8.Question : A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods. She is pale and states she can no longer exercise. Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?
Transvaginal ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
MRI
Abdominal computed tomography scan
Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
All of the above
Question 10.Question : A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Serum calcium
TSH
Electrolytes
Urine specific gravity
Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Insulin
Metformin
Glucotrol
Precose
Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
A boggy gland
Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?
Remove the insect with tweezers.
Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.
Sedate Eddie with diazepam.
Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”
Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Thalassemia
Question 15.Question : An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Parkinson’s disease
Prostate cancer
All of the above
Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:
Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints
Rigid joints with diminished range of motion
Joint swelling and immobility on rising
A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub
Question 17.Question : A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?
Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 18.Question : The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month
3 months
6 months
12 months
Question 19.Question : A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
The scrotum will appear milky white.
The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?
A favorable prognostic trend
Disease progression
The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s
medications
The eradication of the HIV
Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:
Question 23.Question : You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Articular
Inflammatory
Nonarticular
A and B
Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
1,200 mg/day
1,000 mg/day
1,300 mg/day
1,500 mg/day
Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?
Analysis of partner’s sperm
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Hysterosalpingogram
Estrogen level
Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question 27.Question : A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?
Two
Three
Four
Five
Question 29.Question : Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Testosterone level
Prostate-specific antigen
Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
Prolactin level
Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Acetylcholine
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?
Refer to a urologist immediately.
Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.
Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.
Prescribe ibuprofen.
Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Prednisone
Metformin
Synthroid
Cephalexin
Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?
IV
Abdomen
Upper lateral thigh
Deltoid
Question 37.Question : It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Before the initiation of treatment
1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
When switching to a different medication
1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Pregnancy
Pituitary dysfunction
Inadequate estrogen levels
Genetic disorders
Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Citoprolam
Imipramine
Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:
Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning
Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy
Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician
Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication
Question 41.Question : John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
McMurray circumduction test
Lachman test
Varus stress test
Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?
Pain
Nausea
Light-headedness
Palpitations
Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Sexually transmitted infections
Ovarian cyst
Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?
Tick
Brown recluse spider
Wasp
Stinging caterpillar
Question 45.Question : Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equine compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?
Pregnancy test
Complete blood cell count
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Urine dip for protein
Question 47.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?
Ketoacidosis
Cirrhosis
Hypoglycemic episodes
All of the above
Question 48.Question : The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than
TCAs.
SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?
Autogenic
Autologous
Allogeneic
Syngeneic
Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?
Arsenic
Lead
Carbon monoxide
Strychnine
Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:
Autonomy and feeling valued by others
Exhilaration and productivity
Spirituality
Career success and material rewards
Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question 53.Question : A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular selfexamination (TSE). Which of the following should be examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?
Chelation
Dialysis
Gastric lavage
Bowel irrigation
Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 57.Question : A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Fluconazole
Estrogen vaginal cream
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Question 58.Question : The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?
A sprain
A strain
A partial fracture
A fracture
Question 60.Question : Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?
Heat cramps
Heat syncope
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke
Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
CAGE
SANE
SAD PERSONAS
DIGFAST
Question 62.Question : One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Bone
Synovium
Tendons
Fascia
Question 63.Question : After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
A viral syndrome
Lyme disease
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Relapsing fever
Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?
Pregnancy
Estrogen level
Progesterone level
LH level
Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated TSH
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question 67.Question : A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?
No treatment at this time
Diet and exercise for 6-week trial
Diet, exercise, and oral medication
Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin
Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
All of the above
Question 69.Question : Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
Doxycycline
Acyclovir
Metronidazole
Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treat
NR511 Midterm Exam
NR511 Midterm Exam 2018
Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?
Western blot
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test
Viral load
Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
White blood cell count
Polymorphonuclear cells
C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
Question 4.Question : Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
Dogs
Cats
Humans
Rodents
Question 8.Question : A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods. She is pale and states she can no longer exercise. Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?
Transvaginal ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
MRI
Abdominal computed tomography scan
Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
All of the above
Question 10.Question : A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Serum calcium
TSH
Electrolytes
Urine specific gravity
Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Insulin
Metformin
Glucotrol
Precose
Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
A boggy gland
Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?
Remove the insect with tweezers.
Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.
Sedate Eddie with diazepam.
Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”
Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Thalassemia
Question 15.Question : An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Parkinson’s disease
Prostate cancer
All of the above
Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:
Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints
Rigid joints with diminished range of motion
Joint swelling and immobility on rising
A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub
Question 17.Question : A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?
Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 18.Question : The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month
3 months
6 months
12 months
Question 19.Question : A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
The scrotum will appear milky white.
The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?
A favorable prognostic trend
Disease progression
The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s
medications
The eradication of the HIV
Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:
Erythema infectiosum
Laterothoracic exanthem
Erythema migrans
Morbilli exanthem
Question 23.Question : You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Articular
Inflammatory
Nonarticular
A and B
Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
1,200 mg/day
1,000 mg/day
1,300 mg/day
1,500 mg/day
Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?
Analysis of partner’s sperm
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Hysterosalpingogram
Estrogen level
Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question 27.Question : A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?
Two
Three
Four
Five
Question 29.Question : Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Testosterone level
Prostate-specific antigen
Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
Prolactin level
Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Acetylcholine
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?
Refer to a urologist immediately.
Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.
Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.
Prescribe ibuprofen.
Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Prednisone
Metformin
Synthroid
Cephalexin
Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?
IV
Abdomen
Upper lateral thigh
Deltoid
Question 37.Question : It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Before the initiation of treatment
1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
When switching to a different medication
1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Pregnancy
Pituitary dysfunction
Inadequate estrogen levels
Genetic disorders
Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Citoprolam
Imipramine
Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:
Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning
Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy
Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician
Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication
Question 41.Question : John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
McMurray circumduction test
Lachman test
Varus stress test
Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?
Pain
Nausea
Light-headedness
Palpitations
Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Sexually transmitted infections
Ovarian cyst
Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?
Tick
Brown recluse spider
Wasp
Stinging caterpillar
Question 45.Question : Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equine compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?
Pregnancy test
Complete blood cell count
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Urine dip for protein
Question 47.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?
Ketoacidosis
Cirrhosis
Hypoglycemic episodes
All of the above
Question 48.Question : The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than
TCAs.
SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?
Autogenic
Autologous
Allogeneic
Syngeneic
Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?
Arsenic
Lead
Carbon monoxide
Strychnine
Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:
Autonomy and feeling valued by others
Exhilaration and productivity
Spirituality
Career success and material rewards
Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question 53.Question : A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular selfexamination (TSE). Which of the following should be examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?
Chelation
Dialysis
Gastric lavage
Bowel irrigation
Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 57.Question : A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Fluconazole
Estrogen vaginal cream
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Question 58.Question : The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?
A sprain
A strain
A partial fracture
A fracture
Question 60.Question : Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?
Heat cramps
Heat syncope
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke
Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
CAGE
SANE
SAD PERSONAS
DIGFAST
Question 62.Question : One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Bone
Synovium
Tendons
Fascia
Question 63.Question : After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
A viral syndrome
Lyme disease
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Relapsing fever
Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?
Pregnancy
Estrogen level
Progesterone level
LH level
Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated TSH
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question 67.Question : A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?
No treatment at this time
Diet and exercise for 6-week trial
Diet, exercise, and oral medication
Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin
Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
All of the above
Question 69.Question : Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
Doxycycline
Acyclovir
Metronidazole
Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
All of the above
Question 72.Question : Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?
Elevated uric acid level
Elevated blood urea nitrogen
Decreased urine pH
Decreased C-reactive protein
Question 73.Question : Which of the following data is indicative of testicular torsion?
Absent cremasteric reflex
Pain relieved on testicular elevation
Testicle very low in the scrotum
Swollen scrotum with “red dot sign”
Question 74.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?
Reduces postprandial blood glucose
Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
Reduces total cholesterol
All of the above
Question 75.Question : A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
Platelet count
Question 76.Question : What is the most common cause of generalized musculoskeletal pain in women ages 20 to 55?
Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)
Anemia
Fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS)
Sports-related injuries
Question 77.Question : If the international normalized ratio (INR) result is above the therapeutic range in a patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin, what might the clinician do?
Stop the warfarin for 1 week, and then repeat the INR.
Withhold one or more days of anticoagulant therapy.
Restart therapy at a lower dose immediately.
The prothrombin time and INR should be reevaluated within 1 month of the dosage adjustments.
Question 78.Question : A 32-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because she has been unable to get pregnant after 12 months of unprotected sex. In order to determine the cause of the infertility, the clinician should question her about which of these possible causes?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Oral contraceptive use for 15 years
Early menarche
Diet high in soy protein
Question 79.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?
There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.
Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.
Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.
All of the above
Question 80.Question : The clinician should prescribe an antibiotic that covers which of these organisms for a patient with acute prostatitis?
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
Gram-positive bacillus
Gram-negative bacillus
Question 81.Question : Which household solution should be used to clean a bathroom if sharing with a friend who has HIV?
100% bleach
50% bleach and 50% vinegar
Nine parts H2O to one part bleach
The friend must have his or her own bathroom.
Question 82.Question : Sandra is 42 years old and has just been diagnosed with leukemia. She is complaining of bone and joint pain. Which type of leukemia is most likely the culprit?
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Acute myelogenous leukemia
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Question 83.Question : Which of the following is identified as an eating disorder in which a person craves food substitutes, such as clay, ice chips, and cotton, and is considered an objective finding associated with severe iron deficiency?
Ferritin
Porter’s syndrome
Hypochromasia
Pica
Question 84.Question : The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?
High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
Free T4 and serum calcium
Free T3 and T4
TSH and thyroxin antibodies
Question 85.Question : The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?
“As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”
“I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”
“My optometrist checks my eyes.”
“I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”
Question 86.Question : Triggering factors for acute exacerbations of which of the following conditions include exposure to ultraviolet (UV)-B and UV-A rays?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Scleroderma
SLE
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 87.Question : Which of the following characteristics separates anaphylaxis from a vasovagal reaction?
Bradycardia
Extreme diaphoresis
Severe bronchoconstriction
Hypotension
Question 88.Question : Mr. Jackson is a 65-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis. The clinician has explained to Mr. Jackson that the goals for managing osteoarthritis include controlling pain, maximizing functional independence and mobility,
minimizing disability, and preserving quality of life. Mr. Jackson explains to the clinician that his first choice would be to use complementary therapies to control his condition and asks what therapies are most effective in treating osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate response from the clinician?
“Complementary therapies should be considered only if surgical interventions are not successful.”
“I am unfamiliar with the available complementary therapies for osteoarthritis and prefer to discuss more mainstream treatments, such as NSAIDs and physical therapy, to manage your condition.”
“I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you. Complementary therapies, such as acupuncture, acupressure, and tai-chi, are being studied for use in the treatment of osteoarthritis and have shown promise when used with standard medical therapy.”
“It would be crazy to use complementary therapies to treat such a serious condition.”
Question 89.Question : One benefit of motivational interviewing (MI) is:
It assumes that ambivalence is a normal part of the change process.
It can be utilized during routine office visits.
It is a therapeutic technique which is not necessarily time intensive.
All are benefits of MI.
Question 90.Question : What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?
9%
18%
24%
36%
Question 91.Question : Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
6 months
Question 92.Question : Which statement about HIV postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for health-care workers is the most accurate?
PEP should be started within hours of exposure.
PEP should be started within 72 hours of exposure.
Renal and hepatic function tests should be done 6 weeks after beginning PEP.
PEP will prevent potential hepatitis C infection if present.
Question 93.Question : The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an xray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?
Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury
Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury
Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle
All of the above
Question 94.Question : A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
Carrots
Spinach
Potatoes
Question 95.Question : A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve?
CN II
CN III
CN IV
CN V
Question 96.Question : A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?
Pheochromocytoma
Hyperthyroidism
Cardiac arrhythmias
All of the above
Question 97.Question : Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?
Urinalysis
Gram stain of urethral discharge
Gram stain of urethral discharge
Complete blood cell count with differential
Ultrasound of the scrotum
Question 98.Question : BATHEing the patient refers to:
A technique used in primary care to get the patient to accept the need for psychological or psychiatric referral.
A technique used to facilitate cultural understandingc.
A technique used to perform psychotherapyd.
A technique that is a quick screen for psychiatric issues and interventions for psychological problems
Question 99. Question :BATHEing the patient is an advanced practice nursingintervention that allows the practitioner to:
Develop a therapeutic relationship without “owning” the patient’s problem
Conduct psychological counseling within the context of the primary care encounter
Focus on the “process” and not the assessment
Make the patient and family happier
Question 100. Question A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with abnormaluterine bleeding and pain during intercourse. The clinicianshould consider which of the following diagnoses? Leiomyoma
Pregnancy
Ovarian cancer
All of the above
MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam
MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam
Question
During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient’s vestibule and expects to see the:
A ) urethral meatus and vaginal orifice.
B) vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
C) urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands.
D) paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?
A) Cervix
B) Uterus
C) Ovaries
D) Fallopian tubes
The uterus is usually positioned tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as:
A) anteverted and anteflexed.
B) retroverted and anteflexed.
C retroverted and retroflexed.
D)superiorverted and anteflexed.
An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. The nurse notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. The nurse should use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The nurse should:
A) use the Tanner’s table on the five stages of sexual development.
B) describe her development and compare it with that of other girls her age.
C) use Jacobsen’s table on expected development on the basis of height and weight data.
D) reassure her that her development is within normal limits and should tell her not to worry about the next step.
A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a checkup. The nurse reads on her chart that her cervix is softened and looks cyanotic. The nurse knows that the woman is exhibiting _____ sign and _____ sign.
A) Tanner’s; Hegar’s
B) Hegar’s; Goodell’s
C) Chadwick’s; Hegar’s
D) Goodell’s; Chadwick’s
A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will hurt the fetus. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true?
A) If intercourse is avoided, then the risk for infection is minimal.
B) A thick mucus plug forms that protects the fetus from infection.
C) The acidic pH of vaginal secretions promotes the growth of pathogenic bacteria.
D) The mucus plug that forms in the cervical canal is a good medium for bacterial growth.
The changes normally associated with menopause occur generally because the cells in the reproductive tract are:
A)aging.
B)becoming fibrous.
C)estrogen dependent.
D)able to respond to estrogen.
The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which of these are changes associated with menopause?
A) Uterine and ovarian atrophy along with thinning vaginal epithelium
B) Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size
C) Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions
D) Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy
A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? “A postmenopausal woman:
A) is not at any greater risk for heart disease than a younger woman is.”
B) should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions.”
C) has only stopped menstruating; there really are no other significant changes with which she should be concerned.”
D) is likely to have difficulty with sexual pleasure as a result of drastic changes in the female sexual response cycle.”
A woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. The nurse should plan to begin the interview with the:
A) menstrual history because it is generally nonthreatening.
B) obstetric history because it is the most important information.
C) urinary system history because there may be problems in this area as well.
D) sexual history because it will build rapport to discuss this first.
A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as gravida _____, para _____, AB _____.
A) 2; 2; 1
B) 3; 2; 0
C) 3; 2; 1
D) 3; 3; 1
During the interview with a female patient, the nurse gathers data that indicate that the patient is perimenopausal. Which of these statements made by this patient leads to this conclusion?
A)”I have noticed that my muscles ache at night when I go to bed.”
B) “I will be very happy when I can stop worrying about having a period.”
C) “I have been noticing that I sweat a lot more than I used to, especially at night.”
D) “I have only been pregnant twice, but both times I had breast tenderness as my first symptom.”
A 50-year-old woman calls the clinic because she has noticed some changes in her body and breasts and wonders if they could be due to the hormone replacement therapy (HRT) she started 3 months ago. The nurse should tell her:
A) “Hormone replacement therapy is at such a low dose that side effects are very unusual.”
B) “Hormone replacement therapy has several side effects, including fluid retention, breast tenderness, and vaginal bleeding.”
C) “It would be very unusual to have vaginal bleeding with hormone replacement therapy, and I suggest you come in to the clinic immediately to have this evaluated.”
D)”It sounds as if your dose of estrogen is too high; I think you may need to decrease the amount you are taking and then call back in a week.”
A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she “wets herself a little.” She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is:
A) dysuria.
B) stress incontinence.
C) hematuria.
D) urge incontinence.
During the interview a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse’s most appropriate response to this would be:
A) “Oh, don’t worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal.”
B) “Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?”
C) “I’d like some information about the discharge. What color is it?”
D) “Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?”
A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, “Have you noticed:
A) a change in your urination patterns?”
B) any excessive vaginal bleeding?”
C) any unusual vaginal discharge or itching?”
D) any changes in your desire for intercourse?”
Which statement would be most appropriate when the nurse is introducing the topic of sexual relationships during an interview?
A)”Now it is time to talk about your sexual history. When did you first have intercourse?”
B) “Women often feel dissatisfied with their sexual relationships. Would it be okay to discuss this now?”
C) “Often women have questions about their sexual relationship and how it affects their health. Do you have any questions?”
D) “Most women your age have had more than one sexual partner. How many would you say you have had?”
A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her history, the nurse should ask:
A) “Do you have a history of heart murmurs?”
B) “Will you be in a monogamous relationship?”
C) “Have you thought this choice through carefully?”
D) “If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?”
A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first?
A) Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics.
B) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
C) Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory disease—the most common cause of infertility.
D) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert.
A nurse is assessing a patient’s risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be:
A) “You know that it’s important to use condoms for protection, right?”
B) “Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?”
C) “Do you have a sexually transmitted infection?”
D) “You are aware of the dangers of unprotected sex, aren’t you?”
When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening statement would be least threatening?
A) “Do you have any questions about growing up?”
B) “What has your mother told you about growing up?”
C) “When did you notice that your body was changing?”
D) “I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you’ll feel?”
When the nurse is discussing sexuality and sexual issues with adolescents, a permission statement helps to convey that it is normal to think or feel a certain way. Which of these is the best example of a permission statement?
A) “It is okay that you have become sexually active.”
B) “Often girls your age have questions about sexual activity. Have you any questions?”
C) “If it is okay with you, I’d like to ask you some questions about your sexual history.”
D) “Often girls your age engage in sexual activity. It is okay to tell me if you have had intercourse.”
The nurse is preparing to interview a postmenopausal woman. Which of these statements is true with regard to the history of a postmenopausal woman?
A) The nurse should ask a postmenopausal woman if she ever has vaginal bleeding.
B) Once a woman reaches menopause, the nurse does not need to ask any further history questions.
C) The nurse should screen for monthly breast tenderness.
D) Postmenopausal women are not at risk for contracting sexually transmitted infections and thus these questions can be omitted.
During the examination portion of a patient’s visit, she will be in lithotomy position. Which statement below reflects some things that the nurse can do to make this more comfortable for her?
A) Ask her to place her hands and arms behind her head.
B) Elevate her head and shoulders to maintain eye contact.
C) Allow her to choose to have her feet in the stirrups or have them resting side by side on the edge of the table.
D) Allow her to keep her buttocks about 6 inches from the edge of the table to prevent her from feeling as if she will fall off.
An 18-year-old patient is having her first pelvic examination. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Invite her mother to be present during the examination.
B) Avoid the lithotomy position this first time because it can be uncomfortable and embarrassing.
C) Raise the head of the examination table and give her a mirror so that she can view the exam.
D) Drape her fully, leaving the drape between her legs elevated to avoid embarrassing her with eye contact.
The nurse has just completed an inspection of a nulliparous woman’s external genitalia. Which of these would be a description of a finding within normal limits?
A) Redness of the labia majora
B) Multiple nontender sebaceous cysts
C) Discharge that is sticky and yellow-green
D) Gaping and slightly shriveled labia majora
The nurse is preparing for an internal genitalia examination of a woman. Which order of the examination is correct?
A) Bimanual, speculum, rectovaginal
B) Speculum, rectovaginal, bimanual
C) Speculum, bimanual, rectovaginal
D) Rectovaginal, bimanual, speculum
During an internal examination of a woman’s genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum?
A) Instruct the woman to bear down, open the speculum blades, and apply in a swift, upward movement.
B) Insert the blades of the speculum on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 30-degree angle while continuing to insert them. Ask the woman to bear down after the speculum is inserted.
C) Instruct the woman to bear down, turn the width of the blades horizontally, and insert the speculum at a 45-degree angle downward toward the small of the woman’s back.
D) Lock the blades open by turning the thumbscrew. Once the blades are open, apply pressure to the introitus and insert the blades at a 45-degree angle downward to bring the cervix into view.
The nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal?
A) Nabothian cysts are present.
B) The cervical os is a horizontal slit.
C) The cervical surface is granular and red.
D) Stringy and opaque secretions are present.
A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are:
A) “If you are menstruating, please use pads to avoid placing anything into the vagina.”
B) “Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment.”
C) “If you suspect that you have a vaginal infection, please gather a sample of the discharge to bring with you.”
D) “We would like you to use a mild saline douche before your examination. You may pick this up in our office.”
During an examination, which tests will the nurse collect to screen for cervical cancer?
A) Endocervical specimen, cervical scrape, and vaginal pool
B) Endocervical specimen, vaginal pool, and acetic acid wash
C) Endocervical specimen, KOH preparation, and acetic acid wash
D) Cervical scrape, acetic acid wash, saline mount (“wet prep”)
When performing the bimanual examination, the nurse notices that the cervix feels smooth and firm, is round, and is fixed in place (does not move). When cervical palpation is performed, the patient complains of some pain. The nurse’s interpretation of these results should be which of these?
A) These findings are all within normal limits.
B) The cervical consistency should be soft and velvety—not firm.
C) The cervix should move when palpated; an immobile cervix may indicate malignancy.
D) Pain may occur during palpation of the cervix.
The nurse is palpating a female patient’s adnexa. The findings include a firm, smooth uterine wall; the ovaries are palpable and feel smooth and firm. The fallopian tube is firm and pulsating. The nurse’s most appropriate course of action would be to:
A) tell the patient that her examination was normal.
B) give her an immediate referral to a gynecologist.
C) suggest that she return in a month for a recheck to verify the findings.
D) tell the patient that she may have an ovarian cyst that should be evaluated further.
A 65-year-old woman is in the office for routine gynecologic care. She had a complete hysterectomy 3 months ago after cervical cancer was detected. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true with regard to this visit?
A) Her cervical mucosa will be red and dry looking.
B) She will not need to have a Pap smear done.
C) The nurse can expect to find that her uterus will be somewhat enlarged and her ovaries small and hard.
D) The nurse should plan to lubricate the instruments and the examining hand well to avoid a painful examination.
The nurse is preparing to examine the external genitalia of a school-age girl. Which of these positions would be most appropriate in this situation?
A) In the parent’s lap
B) In a frog-leg position on the examining table
C) In the lithotomy position with the feet in stirrups
D) Lying flat on the examining table with legs extended
When assessing a newborn infant’s genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant’s mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply:
A) “This is a normal finding in newborns and should resolve within a few weeks.”
B “This could indicate an abnormality and may need to be evaluated by a physician.”
C) “We will need to have estrogen levels evaluated to make sure that they are within normal limits.”
D) “We will need to keep close watch over the next few days to see if the genitalia decrease in size.”
During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which of these conditions?
A) Candidiasis
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Atrophic vaginitis
D) Bacterial vaginosis
A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. There is also inguinal lymphadenopathy present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
A) pediculosis pubis.
B) contact dermatitis.
C) human papillomavirus.
D) herpes simplex virus type 2.
When performing an external genitalia examination of a 10-year-old girl, the nurse notices that there is no pubic hair, and the mons and the labia are covered with fine vellus hair. These findings are consistent with stage _____ of sexual maturity, according to the Sexual Maturity Rating scale.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
A 46-year-old woman is in the clinic for her annual gynecologic examination. She voices a concern about ovarian cancer because her mother and sister died of it. The nurse knows that which of these statements is correct regarding ovarian cancer?
A) Ovarian cancer rarely has any symptoms.
B) The Pap smear detects the presence of ovarian cancer.
C) Women at high risk for ovarian cancer should have annual transvaginal ultrasonography for screening.
D) Women over age 40 years should have a thorough pelvic examination every 3 years.
During a bimanual examination, the nurse detects a solid tumor on the ovary that is heavy and fixed, with a poorly defined mass. This finding is suggestive of:
A) an ovarian cyst.
B) endometriosis.
C) ovarian cancer.
D) an ectopic pregnancy.
A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden fever of 101° F and abdominal pain. Upon examination, the nurse notices that she has rigid, boardlike lower abdominal musculature. When the nurse tries to perform a vaginal examination, the patient has severe pain when the uterus and cervix are moved. The nurse knows that these signs and symptoms are suggestive of:
A) endometriosis.
B) uterine fibroids.
C) ectopic pregnancy.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware of any problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be:
A) syphilitic chancre.
B) herpes simplex virus type 2 (herpes genitalis).
C) human papillomavirus (HPV), or genital warts.
D) pediculosis pubis (crab lice).
During an examination, the nurse would expect the cervical os of a woman who has never had children to appear:
A) stellate.
B) small and round.
C) as a horizontal irregular slit.
D) everted.
A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV, or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _____ cancer.
A) uterine
B) cervical
C) ovarian
D) endometrial
During an internal examination, the nurse notices that the cervix bulges outside the introitus when the patient is asked to strain. The nurse will document this as:
A) uterine prolapse, graded first degree.
B) uterine prolapse, graded second degree.
C) uterine prolapse, graded third degree.
D) a normal finding.
A 35-year-old woman is at the clinic for a gynecologic examination. During the examination, she asks the nurse, “How often do I need to have this Pap test done?” Which reply by the nurse is correct?
A)”It depends. Do you smoke?”
B)”This will need to be done annually until you are 65.”
C)”If you have 2 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you can wait 5 years between tests.”
D)”After age 30, if you have 3 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you may be screened every 2 to 3 years.”
The nurse is palpating an ovarian mass during an internal examination of a 63-year-old woman. Which findings of the mass’s characteristics would suggest the presence of an ovarian cyst? Select all that apply.
A) Heavy and solid
B) Mobile and fluctuant
C)Mobile and solid
D) Fixed
E) Smooth and round
F) Poorly defined
HealthCare Information Systems (7pgs)
Questions:
How proper use of Information Systems can enhance Health Care?
Millennium development goals report
Instructions for developing the MDGs Report HLTH 4380 Fall 2018 In this Project, we will use the United Nations Millennium Declaration document called Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) adopted by world leaders at the dawn of the 21st century as our guide. The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are eight international development goals that were established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000, and subsequent adoption of the United Nations Millennium Declaration. Although these Goals have universal appeal, they are readily applicable to mainly developing countries and Middle-income countries of the world. Of course they have some relevance to the United States, but you are not required to make any comparison with US or any other industrialized country. The idea of including this part of the project is for us to examine the global perspectives of public health and the extent to which world leaders (governments, civil society groups, NGOs) in low-resource settings are affected by the poor health vulnerabilities and efforts being made by countries to improve population health. The MDGs has eight goals with targets and indicators; and range from halving extreme poverty rates to halting the spread of HIV/AIDS and providing universal primary education by the target date of 2015. I have provided the eight goals below: 1. To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger 2. To achieve universal primary education 3. To promote gender equality and empower women 4. To reduce child mortality 5. To improve maternal health 6. To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases 7. To ensure environmental sustainability 8. To develop a global partnership for development These goals have been reviewed in July 2015, and a new development plan Agenda 2030 Sustainable Development Goals has been put in place. I have posted a copy of final review of the MDGs document on Blackboard (under MDG Assignment Resources). Your role is to select TWO GOALS from the MDGs and two specific countries outside the United States and other industrialized countries to assess the extent to which your selected countries did in achieving the goal by July 2015 (the target and indicators for that MDG goals you picked by July of 2015). You may include what the country need to do as part of your postMDG steps. The post MDG’s are Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) MDG Expectation: Visit the web link of countries you have selected for this project. You can just google by typing “your selected country and MDG report.” For example, if I selected Ghana, I will google “Ghana MDG report” and you will find all MDG reports for Ghana in different years. Select the three most current reports of the respective country selected. The link below is for the assessment of UN member’s countries progress towards achievement of MDG’s. Assess (based on your chosen goals and targets for the MDG’s) whether the country (of your interest) is likely to meet those MDG’s (for that country) by 2015 according to your specific objective /goals. Critically evaluate whether your specific community or your country of interest will meet respective goals and objectives as well as the accompanying dates. Prepare a six page comparative analytic report that includes the information below (you may additional information for extra credit): • Short definition or description of your Goals (from the MDGs) for the two countries, and a briefly descriptions of each country’s background context. The context of each country is important for understanding why or why not the results achieved in the manner in they have been reported. • Most important issue each country addressed in each Goal. • Individuals most affected by this objective (age, gender, ethnicity, etc.) and a country of your interest. • Ethnic/racial groups most affected • Value of addressing this Goal and consequences of not meeting your objective • Most interesting data to use to gain more attention to this objective or Goal • Details of community and national efforts to address this issue and any local data that you may be able to secure. There is detailed information on the MDG’s and what countries are doing to achieve a specific goal. Make sure to select a peer reviewed publication and cite appropriately. Please, refer to this website for additional information on MDGs: http://www.healthpolicyinitiative.com/index.cfm?id=onlineCDs&groupID=7 3 Note that the MDG’s are primarily United Nations target to improve health and social wellbeing of populations of the world (mainly outside the United States). The US uses the Healthy People as a national guide for improving health and social outcomes. Healthy People are a set of goals and objectives spanning a 10-year period, designed to guide national health promotion and disease prevention efforts for the population in the United States. Prepare a critical and detailed six-page report to address those issues. You will utilize and cite, according to the APA Style and Format (6th edition). Make sure that you have at least seven additional references aside the Healthy People 2020 and MDGs documents. My suggestions when writing this paper is to avoid direct quoting from any source (even those you will cite those sources). I strongly recommend that you paraphrase and cite appropriately instead of direct quoting.
BSBSUS401 Implement & monitor environmentally sustainable work practices
What is the purpose of National Greenhouse & Energy Reporting Legislation?
What is the purpose of Environment Protection & Biodiversity Conservation Legislation?
What is the Kyoto Protocol?
Who has the prime responsibility for environmental protection?
How do organisations know how to behave ethically in regards to sustainability?
Activity 2.
What process might an assessor follow when analysing procedures to ensure compliance with
environmental regulations?
How might an assessor conduct an assessment?
Activity 3.
What is resource efficiency?
What is an Environmental Management System?
How can a work group be engaged in disseminating environmental and resource efficiency information?
Activity 4.
Explain the differences between qualitative and quantitative information.
What do you think are the advantages of presenting analysed data in graphical format, rather than a written report?
Your organisation is interested in analysing and organising information about the amount of paper it uses. Convert the data provided into a format that is easily used.
Activity 5.
What are the goals of resource usage assessments? Give at least 6 examples.
List the steps (in order) that need to be taken when carrying out a resource usage assessment.
Activity 6.
Identify 5 benefits of environmental purchasing.
Activity 7.
How can organisations ensure that work processes meet environmental requirements and identify areas in which changes need to be made? Give at least 6 examples.
What is problem solving in the context of environmental work processes and what is its aim/s?
Activity 8.
List at least 5 various ways that organisations can access stakeholder input.
Activity 9.
What are the advantages of joining an industry association? List two examples.
What are the advantages of joining an environmental program? Give 2 examples.
What is the hierarchy of control?
Rearrange the controls in their correct order, as specified in the hierarchy of control:
Administration, Elimination, Engineering, Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), and Substitution.
Activity 11.
What are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)?
What five criteria should be met when creating targets?
Identify what is wrong with the following targets and rewrite them so they conform to SMART criteria.
The Absolute Advertising Agency will reduce its paper waste.
The Fish Factory will reduce its energy consumption to zero in the next month.
Activity 12.
Identify five things a business could do to reduce its energy consumption.
Identify five things an organisation could do to reduce its waste.
Activity 13.
Identify the four steps of the continuous improvement cycle.
Identify five things an organisation can do to improve the performance of its employees.
Activity 14.
Explain why it is a good idea to integrate environmental procedures and practices with pre-existing organisation procedures and practices.
What needs to be done when existing procedures or work practices are changed or new procedures and work practices are introduced?
Activity 15.
Define the term “Engagement”.
Engagement is the emotional commitment the employee has to the organization and its goals. It relates to a state of involvement and participation.
Why is it important to ensure that employees do not become disengaged?
What are the benefits of having a diverse team?
Activity 16.
List at least six people/groups who might make up an organisations stakeholders.
Each stakeholder will have different areas of expertise. Complete the table by providing reasons that an organisation should seek suggestions & ideas about their environmental and resource efficiency management for each of the listed stakeholders.
Activity 17.
A school is thinking about installing low-flush toilets in all of its bathrooms and air hand-driers to replace paper towel dispensers. Purchasing new toilets for the entire school will cost $22,000. It will need to employ plumbers to fit the toilets at a cost of $9,500. It is estimated that this will save the school $16,000 in water consumption fees. The hand driers will cost $13,500. The cost of employing electricians to install the hand driers will come to $4,400. As the school will no longer have to purchase paper towels, it will save $7,300 per year. It also estimates it will save $1,000 a year in cleaning costs, as the bathrooms will take less time to clean, and bins will need to be emptied less frequently. The school will incur additional electricity costs of $1,700 per year, however. Calculate the combined payback period for the installation of low flush toilets and air hand driers.
Activity 18.
Determine whether the following statements are true or false.
Activity 19.
Place the steps, which need to be observed when creating an environment report in their correct order.
Communicate with the audience to understand their concerns, questions, expectations & interests.
Create performance Indicators.
Decide how you are going to publish report.
Gather the data and evaluate it.
Identify the data you will need to produce the report.
Identify key environmental aspects that need to be covered by the report.
Identify the target audience for your report.
Make improvements to reporting procedures for future reports.
Obtain Feedback.
Produce, publish and distribute the report.
Identify 5 benefits of creating and distributing an environmental report.
Activity20.
Why is it important to carry out regular evaluations of environmental management systems/ strategies and improvement plans?
Activity 21.
List 5 reasons that efficiency targets should be/ might need to be regularly reviewed.
Activity 22.
Identify the characteristics of an effective reward system. Give 4 examples.
Question 1.
What methods can be used to convey information and identify sustainability improvements?
Question 2.
What are the essential features of a non-compliance form that could be used by employees to report any non-compliance issues?
Question 3.
What is the effect of environmental regulations and legislation on business?
Question 4.
What common environmental and energy efficiency issues can you think of?
Question5.
What benchmarks might be used for environmental & resource sustainability?
List at least 8 examples of techniques or tools that can be used to achieve efficiency.
Question 6.
Define the term “Sustainability” and explain how it relates to resource usage.
Question 7.
What are the steps in creating an Environment Management System (EMS)?
Question 8.
How do sustainable businesses foster ethical behaviours in staff and management?
Summative Assessment 2
Project 1.
Essay Question –write a response to the following quote from Unlimited Sustainable Development Solutions.
Organisations today are being asked to address an increasingly complex set of environmental issues. As noted in the quote:
“Sustainability is achieved when we understand the economic, environmental, and social consequences of our actions and make deliberate choices that allow all people to lead healthy, productive and enjoyable lives”.
Your response should include a discussion of:
Complex environmental issues.
Methods of measuring an organisation’s environmental impact.
Methods of managing an organisation’s environmental impact.
Methods of reducing an organisation’s environmental impact.
Project 2.
Youare the supervisor of a group of 15 workers in a business involved in an industry of your choice. You have been asked to plan and organise a number of work group activities in relation to measuring current resource use and devising strategies to improve usage.
Identify a minimum of 3 appropriate work group activities and provide an overview of what is involved with each activity.
Develop a plan to monitor resource use and improvements for environmental performance as a result of the activities undertaken by your work group.
Millennium development goals
Pick two MDGs
Evaluate the progress with a case study of two developing countries.
HSA 505 Case Study 3 Missed Opportunities
HSA 505 Case Study 3 Missed Opportunities
Due Week 9 and worth 200 points
Read the case study titled “Missed Opportunities”, located in the online course shell.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
Examine the pros and cons from the perspective of Crestview Hospital of the placement of its new billboard directly adjacent to Briarwood Medical Center. Interpret the reaction of customers and other community stakeholders to the billboard postings.
Use competitive marketing entry strategies to suggest the action that Briarwood Hospital should undertake to counter the messages in the new Crestview Hospital Billboard postings.
Recommend the marketing communication strategy or strategies that both Crestview and Briarwood Hospitals should employ. Justify why the Governing Board of both hospitals should take a proactive role in promoting and implementing effective marketing strategies.
Assess the value of the various marketing research tool(s) that Briarwood and Crestview hospital could use to promote effective marketing communication strategies. Justify your response.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Evaluate marketing research tools involved in the marketing process.
Formulate competitive market entry strategies based on analysis of global markets that comply to initiatives in the health care industry.
Determine the marketing communications strategy used in health care services.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in health services strategic marketing.
Write clearly and concisely about health services strategic marketing using proper writing mechanics.
HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets
HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets
Read the case study titled “GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets” located in the XanEdu case pack (Link Below)
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
Determine two (2) emerging trends in the external environment that prompted General Electric (GE) Healthcare to develop a new strategy for the production and marketing of a low cost Electroencephalography (EEG) machine in bottom of the pyramid markets (BOP).
Examine two (2) internal barriers GE Healthcare faced when developing its BOP market in India and determine the manner in which they hindered GE Healthcare’s growth in this market segment.
Analyze two (2) of the significant external barriers that GE Healthcare faced when trying to meet its marketing goals in the Indian market. Propose two (2) ways to address these barriers.
Analyze the specific steps GE took in developing its strategy to grow its BOP market. Determine the manner in which those actions apply to the principles of strategic thinking and strategic planning.
Determine the manner in which GE Healthcare’s strategy to improve its position in BOP markets contributed to the organization’s value chain in both emerging and developed markets.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Differentiate between strategic management, strategic thinking, strategic planning, and managing strategic momentum.
Analyze the significance of the external environment’s impact on health care organizations.
Examine the role of internal environmental analysis in identifying the basis for sustained competitive advantage.
Examine the organizational value chain, including the components of the service delivery and support activities.
Examine barriers to new product development that comply with initiatives in the health care industry.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in the strategic management of health care organizations.
Write clearly and concisely about strategic management of health care organizations using proper writing mechanics.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic / organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric.
Week 2 – Healthy People 2020
After reviewing the Healthy People 2020 website, discuss the concept of MAP-IT. Choose a health topic of your choice to briefly discuss how MAP-IT can be implemented in the community of your choice. Topic: Affordable Medication Program
Length: Minimum of two full pages of text in length. Please ensure you cite your references in APA format. Please ensure you cite your references in APA format with a minimum of 3 references
Identify one innovation that has been developed in the past 20 years that has influenced the health care industry, such as: Telemedicine Organ transplants Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that discusses the following: Explain how evidence-based research influences the health care industry. Compare external influences on health care research. Cite 3 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references to support your paper. Format your paper according to APA guidelines.
Human Resource Management Overview
Assignment 1: Human Resource Management Overview
Due Week 4 and worth 200 points
Using the course readings, articles, and your personal experiences, address the role of human resource management.
Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
1.Determine key roles that human resource management plays in the health care field..
2.Evaluate three to five (3-5) functions of human resource management in terms of their level of support to the health care field, and then select which one you believe is the primary function in furthering the health care field..
3.Analyze the role of human resource management in an organization’s strategic plan..
4.Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources..
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions..
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length..
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Appraise the aspects of managing human resources (HR) in health care organizations. .
Use technology and information resources to research issues in health care human resources management..
Write clearly and concisely about health care human resources management using proper writing mechanics..
MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017
MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
Which statement about confusion is true?
Question options:
a) Confusion is a disease process.
b) Confusion is always temporary.
c) Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.
d) Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.
Question 2 0 / 2 points
Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
Question options:
a) Meclizine
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Diamox
d) Promethazine
Question 3 2 / 2 points
The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
Question options:
a) No activity at all
b) A blank stare
c) Urine is usually voided involuntarily
d) The attack usually lasts several minutes
Question 4 2 / 2 points
How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?
Question options:
a) Every 3 months
b) Every 6 months
c) Annually
d) Whenever there is a problem
Question 5 2 / 2 points
Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Question options:
a) A teenage male
b) A 65-year-old male
c) A 25-year-old female
d) A 60-year-old female
Question 6 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a specific test to MS?
Question options:
a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan
c) A lumbar puncture
d) There is no specific test.
Question 7 2 / 2 points
Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Cholinesterase inhibitors
b) Anxiolytics
c) Antidepressants
d) Atypical antipsychotics
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?
Question options:
a) Epidural hematoma
b) Subdural hematoma
c) Subarachnoid hematoma
d) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?
Question options:
a) CN V
b) CN VII
c) CN IX
d) CN X
Question 10 2 / 2 points
Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
Question options:
a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
Question 11 2 / 2 points
Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
Question options:
a) A female in her reproductive years
b) A 40-year-old African American male
c) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?
Question options:
a) Dementia
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) Parkinson’s disease
d) Delirium
Question 13 2 / 2 points
Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?
Question options:
a) Purulent meningitis
b) Chronic meningitis
c) Aseptic meningitis
d) Herpes meningitis
Question 14 2 / 2 points
Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?
Question options:
a) MRI
b) CT
c) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
d) An initial lumbar puncture
Question 15 2 / 2 points
What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
Question options:
a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c) A pain that is worse upon awakening
d) A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 16 1 / 1 point
Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
Question options:
a) “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
b) “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c) “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d) “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
Question options:
a) “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b) “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c) “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d) “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
Question 18 2 / 2 points
Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?
Question options:
a) Resting tremor
b) Bradykinesia
c) Rigidity
d) Postural instability
Question 19 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?
Question options:
a) Light sensitivity
b) Pulsatile pain
c) Sound sensitivity
d) Experiencing an aura
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?
Question options:
a) The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.
b) There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.
c) Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.
d) The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.
Question 21 2 / 2 points
Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?
Question options:
a) Greater than 25%
b) Greater than 50%
c) Greater than 75%
d) Only for 100% occlusion
Question 22 2 / 2 points
What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?
Question options:
a) Aspirin
b) Ticlopidine
c) Clopidogrel
d) Aspirin and clopidogrel
Question 23 2 / 2 points
Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?
Question options:
a) MRI
b) CT
c) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
d) EEG
Question 24 2 / 2 points
Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?
Question options:
a) Sam-e
b) Saint John’s Wort
c) Melatonin
d) Saw Palmetto
Question 25 0 / 2 points
Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?
Question options:
a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube
b) Determining if the patient can drive on the highway
c) Asking the patient about a news event from the current week
d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean
Question 26 2 / 2 points
About 90% of all headaches are?
Question options:
a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Without pathological cause
Question 27 2 / 2 points
Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
Question options:
a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
d) These persons may drive but never alone.
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?
Question options:
a) Glatiramer acetate
b) Natalizumab
c) Fingolimod
d) Glucocorticoids
Question 29 2 / 2 points
The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
Question options:
a) Parkinson’s disease
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) A CVA
d) Bell’s palsy
Question 30 2 / 2 points
A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?
Question options:
a) Spinothalamic dysfunction
b) Ratcheting
c) Cogwheeling
d) Hand tremors
Question 31 2 / 2 points
Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?
Question options:
a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Huntington’s disease
Question 32 1 / 1 point
Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?
Question options:
a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Delirium
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:
Question options:
a) SLUMS
b) MoCA
c) FAST
d) MMSE
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?
Question options:
a) 1 hour
b) 3 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 12 hours
Question 35 2 / 2 points
When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
Question options:
a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Stress
Question 36 2 / 2 points
The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Question options:
a) Acetylcholine
b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonin
Question 37 2 / 2 points
The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months
Question 38 1 / 1 point
A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?
Question options:
a) Pheochromocytoma
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Cardiac arrhythmias
d) All of the above
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?
Question options:
a) Benzodiazepines
b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
c) Tricyclic antidepressants
d) Cognitive behavioral therapy
Question 40 1 / 1 point
Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
Question options:
a) Hypersomnolence
b) Blunted feelings
c) Loss of interest in significant activities
d) Intrusive recurrent recollections of the event
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Which of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?
Question options:
a) Decrease in adrenal size
b) Increased cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormone
c) An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone
d) Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone
Question 42 2 / 2 points
The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
Question options:
a) SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
b) SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
c) SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.
d) SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 43 2 / 2 points
After discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?
Question options:
a) 2 weeks
b) 3 weeks
c) 4 weeks
d) 5 weeks
Question 44 2 / 2 points
It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Question options:
a) Before the initiation of treatment
b) 1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
c) When switching to a different medication
d) 1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 45 2 / 2 points
A patient is experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications. The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to treating these side effects?
Question options:
a) Give the patient a “drug holiday” until the symptoms resolve and then restart the medication.
b) Switch the patient to a different antipsychotic.
c) Treat the patient with anticholinergics.
d) Treat the patient with anticonvulsants.
Question 46 1 / 1 point
According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Question options:
a) Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
b) Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
c) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
The clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana. The patient stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere with her life. What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that the clinician should educate this patient about?
Question options:
a) Memory impairment
b) Sexual dysfunction
c) Dry mouth
d) There are no long-term consequences of marijuana use.
Question 48 2 / 2 points
Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
Question options:
a) GABA
b) Acetylcholine
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonin
Question 49 2 / 2 points
What blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?
Question options:
a) 0.05
b) 0.1
c) 0.2
d) 0.3
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?
Question options:
a) Every 30 minutes
b) Every 60 minutes
c) Every 90 minutes
d) Every 180 minutes
Question 51 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?
Question options:
a) Hypercholesterolemia
b) Hypermagnesmia
c) Leukocytosis
d) Decreased TRH
Question 52 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Question options:
a) Sertraline
b) Fluoxetine
c) Citoprolam
d) Imipramine
Question 53 2 / 2 points
Which of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
Question options:
a) Liver function
b) Vision
c) Growth parameters
d) Renal function
Question 54 2 / 2 points
It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?
Question options:
a) Depression
b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c) Substance abuse
d) PTSD
Question 55 2 / 2 points
Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
Question options:
a) 2 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 3 months
d) 6 months
Question 56 2 / 2 points
Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?
Question options:
a) Depression
b) Anxiety
c) Substance-related addictions
d) Gambling
Question 57 1 / 1 point
What is recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision)?
Question options:
a) Clinical disorder or focus of clinical attention
b) Personality or environmental problems
c) Environmental and psychosocial stressors
d) Global assessment of functioning
Question 58 2 / 2 points
Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
Question options:
a) CAGE
b) SANE
c) SAD PERSONAS
d) DIGFAST
Question 59 2 / 2 points
Assessing for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following diagnostic groups?
Question options:
a) ADHD
b) Bipolar
c) Depression
d) Anxiety
Question 60 1 / 1 point
Bipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except?
Question options:
a) Substance abuse and medication effects
b) Medical and neurological disorders
c) Cluster B personality disorders and depression
d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Question 61 1 / 1 point
The use of benzodiazepines in the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and comorbid depression can exacerbate depressive symptoms.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 62 1 / 1 point
Depressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder are treated the same as major depressive disorder.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 63 1 / 1 point
Women in abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers when they leave the relationship than women who stay.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 64 1 / 1 point
Adults must show childhood onset of symptoms to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 65 1 / 1 point
Parkinson’s disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 66 1 / 1 point
The best predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 67 1 / 1 point
A no-suicide contract can prevent a suicide attempt.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 68 1 / 1 point
Depression is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of the severe mental illnesses.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 69 1 / 1 point
Clozapine (Clozaril) requires laboratory monitoring at specified frequencies with results reported to a national registry.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 70 1 / 1 point
When combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can have significant liver P450-interaction effects.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 71 1 / 1 point
A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Question options:
a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b) Endometrial hyperplasia
c) Vagismus
d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 72 2 / 2 points
A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Question options:
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Doxycycline
c) Acyclovir
d) Metronidazole
Question 73 1 / 1 point
A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to?
Question options:
a) Gonorrhea
b) HPV
c) Chlamydia
d) Trichomonas
Question 74 1 / 1 point
A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear.Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
Question options:
a) Trichomonas
b) Bacterial vaginosis
c) HPV
d) Herpes simplex virus
Question 75 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Question options:
a) Metronidazole
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Diflucan
d) Doxycycline
Question 76 1 / 1 point
A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Question options:
a) Fluconazole
b) Estrogen vaginal cream
c) Metronidazole
d) Doxycycline
Question 77 2 / 2 points
Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
Question options:
a) Filiform/digitate wart
b) Dysplastic cervical lesion
c) Condyloma acuminata
d) Koilocytosis
Question 78 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 79 2 / 2 points
Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers?
Question options:
a) Necrotizing fasciitis
b) Periorbital cellulitis
c) Erysipelas
d) “Flesh-eating” cellulitis
Question 80 2 / 2 points
The forced vital capacity is decreased in:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) Restrictive disease
Question 81 2 / 2 points
The most common cause of CAP is?
Question options:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Legionella pneumoniae
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 82 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Increased white blood cells
c) Insulin resistance
d) Hyperactivity
Question 83 2 / 2 points
The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?
Question options:
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM
Question 84 2 / 2 points
A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
Question options:
a) The scrotum will be dark.
b) The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c) The scrotum will appear milky white.
d) The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 85 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 86 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?
Question options:
a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.
b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.
c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.
d) There is metastasis to distant organs.
Question 87 1 / 1 point
A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Risk of osteoporosis
b) May have hot flushes
c) May have impotence
d) All of the above
Question 88 1 / 1 point
A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Testicular cancer
b) Inguinal hernia
c) Varicocele
d) All of the above
Question 89 1 / 1 point
What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Question options:
a) Radical orchidectomy
b) Lumpectomy
c) Radiation implants
d) All of the above
Question 90 1 / 1 point
A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?
Question options:
a) Every month
b) Every 3 to 4 months
c) Every 6 to 12 months
d) Every year
Question 91 2 / 2 points
Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
Question options:
a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 92 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”
Question options:
a) An ulcer
b) A fissure
c) Lichenification
d) An excoriation
Question 93 2 / 2 points
A bulla is:
Question options:
a) A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter
b) An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregular
c) A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid
d) Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent
Question 94 1 / 1 point
A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?
Question options:
a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 95 1 / 1 point
Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 96 1 / 1 point
The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 97 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Question options:
a) Prednisone
b) Metformin
c) Synthroid
d) Cephalexin
Question 98 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
Question options:
a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion
b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions
c) Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions
d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion
Question 99 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Question options:
a) Insulin
b) Metformin
c) Glucotrol
d) Precose
Question 100 1 / 1 point
A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Anxiety disorder
b) Pheochromocytoma
c) Psychosis
d) All of the above
MN568 Unit 8 Exam latest 2017
MN568 Unit 8 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 2 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Question options:
a) Insulin
b) Metformin
c) Glucotrol
d) Precose
Question 3 2 / 2 points
After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Question options:
a) Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation.
b) Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan.
c) Send her for acupuncture treatments.
d) All of the above
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Question options:
a) Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c) Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 5 2 / 2 points
John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain.The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Question options:
a) Valgus stress test
b) McMurray circumduction test
c) Lachman test
d) Varus stress test
Question 6 2 / 2 points
The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort.Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
Question options:
a) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
b) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
c) “You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
d) “It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 7 2 / 2 points
The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?
Question options:
a) Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury
b) Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury
c) Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle
d) All of the above
Question 8 2 / 2 points
The clinician finds numerous nodules on the thyroid of a 65-year-old woman. The clinician suspects thyroid cancer. Which of the following data would be most significant for this patient?
Question options:
a) A history of tonsillectomy in the 1940s
b) Recent exposure to mumps
c) Vegetarian diet
d) Allergy to iodine
Question 9 2 / 2 points
A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Question options:
a) Rice
b) Carrots
c) Spinach
d) Potatoes
Question 10 2 / 2 points
One of the most frequent presenting signs/symptoms of osteoporosis is:
Question options:
a) Goiter
b) Abnormal serum calcium
c) Elevated urine biochemical markers
d) Bony fracture
Question 11 2 / 2 points
After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Question options:
a) Elevated TSH
b) Normal TSH
c) Low TSH
d) Undetectable TSH
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Question options:
a) Decreased C-reactive protein
b) Hyperalbuminemia
c) Morning stiffness
d) Weight gain
Question 13 2 / 2 points
The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
Question options:
a) “I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
b) “I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
c) “It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
d) “Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 14 2 / 2 points
The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 15 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Question options:
a) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b) Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c) Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d) All of the above
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Question options:
a) Prednisone
b) Metformin
c) Synthroid
d) Cephalexin
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Question options:
a) Gastrocnemius weakness
b) A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c) Numbness in the lateral foot
d) Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 18 2 / 2 points
You are performing muscle strength testing on a patient presenting with musculoskeletal pain and find that the patient has complete ROM with gravity eliminated. Which numeric grade of muscle strength would you give this patient?
Question options:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Question 19 2 / 2 points
A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
Question options:
a) “Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
b) “Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
c) “Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
d) All of the above
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
Question options:
a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion
b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions
c) Random plasma glucose greater than or equal to 200 in a person with symptoms of hyperglycemia
d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?
Question options:
a) Reduces postprandial blood glucose
b) Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
c) Reduces total cholesterol
d) All of the above
Question 22 0 / 2 points
A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Anxiety disorder
b) Pheochromocytoma
c) Psychosis
d) All of the above
Question 23 2 / 2 points
The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?
Question options:
a) “As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”
b) “I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”
c) “My optometrist checks my eyes.”
d) “I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”
Question 24 2 / 2 points
A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?
Question options:
a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 25 2 / 2 points
A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first?
Question options:
a) Check his blood sugar.
b) Have him drink 4 ounces of juice.
c) Call 911.
d) Ask him about his usual eating habits.
Question 26 2 / 2 points
The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?
Question options:
a) High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
b) Free T4 and serum calcium
c) Free T3 and T4
d) TSH and thyroxin antibodies
Question 27 2 / 2 points
A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes.Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Question options:
a) Serum calcium
b) TSH
c) Electrolytes
d) Urine specific gravity
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Gray is a 55-year-old woman who presents with tightness, pain, and limited movement in her right shoulder. She denies any history of trauma. Her examination reveals a 75% reduction in both active and passive ROM of the right shoulder. Mrs. Gray also is experiencing tenderness with motion and pain at the deltoid insertion. Her medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her social history reveals that she is a secretary and that she is right-handed. Based on her examination and medical history, you suspect adhesive capsulitis, or “frozen shoulder.” Which clue in Mrs. Gray’s history supports this diagnosis?
Question options:
a) History of hypertension
b) Her affected shoulder is also her dominant arm.
c) Her history of diabetes mellitus
d) Her work as a secretary predisposes her to repetitive motions.
Question 29 2 / 2 points
What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
Question options:
a) 1,200 mg/day
b) 1,000 mg/day
c) 1,300 mg/day
d) 1,500 mg/day
Question 30 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Question options:
a) Sinus bradycardia
b) Atrial fibrillation
c) Supraventricular tachycardia
d) U waves
Question 31 2 / 2 points
You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Question options:
a) Articular
b) Inflammatory
c) Nonarticular
d) A and B
Question 32 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?
Question options:
a) There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.
b) Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.
c) Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.
d) All of the above
Question 33 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Question options:
a) Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
b) Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
c) Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
d) Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Allen is a 60-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer associated with hormone replacement therapy and is wondering what other treatments are available to her. The clinician explains that bisphosphonates are another class of drugs used in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. What teaching should the clinician give Mrs. Allen in regard to taking bisphosphonates?
Question options:
a) Taking bisphosphonates can result in hypercalcemia, so calcium intake should be decreased while taking this class of drugs.
b) There is potential for upper GI irritation, so these medications are contraindicated in people with abnormalities of the esophagus or delayed esophageal emptying.
c) This class of drugs can be taken at any time of the day without regard to meals.
d) None of the above
Question 35 2 / 2 points
The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as:
Question options:
a) Apprehension sign
b) Bulge sign
c) Thumb sign
d) None of the above
Question 36 2 / 2 points
Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women. Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways?
Question options:
a) By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts
b) By promoting osteoclastogenesis
c) By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis
d) All of the above
Question 37 2 / 2 points
Which of the following tests should you order to confirm Mr.W’s diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Bone scan
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan
c) X-ray of the foot
d) Culture of the ulcer
Question 38 2 / 2 points
One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Question options:
a) Bone
b) Synovium
c) Tendons
d) Fascia
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?
Question options:
a) Elevated uric acid level
b) Elevated blood urea nitrogen
c) Decreased urine pH
d) Decreased C-reactive protein
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Urine-free cortisol is one of four diagnostic tests recommended for Cushing’s syndrome.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Joyce is seen in the clinic complaining of vague symptoms of nervousness and irritability. She says that her hair will not hold a permanent wave anymore. On physical examination, the clinician finds an irregular heartbeat and brisk reflexes. The differential diagnosis should include which of the following conditions?
Question options:
a) Myxedema
b) Thyrotoxicosis
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Pan-hypopituitarism
Question 42 0 / 2 points
How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Question options:
a) Once a year
b) Every 6 months
c) Every 3 months
d) Every visit
Question 43 2 / 2 points
A BMI of 29 kg/m2 is considered obesity.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 44 2 / 2 points
Jennifer is an 18-year-old who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited ROM in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Question options:
a) Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b) There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c) Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require great force to result in injury.
d) Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 45 2 / 2 points
The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications?
Question options:
a) Low-dose aspirin
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Ethambutol
d) All of the above
Question 46 2 / 2 points
Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 47 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Question options:
a) Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
b) Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
c) An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
d) Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 48 2 / 2 points
Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 49 2 / 2 points
The patient is prescribed radioactive iodine (RAI) and asks the clinician how this drug works. The clinician’s response should include which of the following data?
Question options:
a) RAI prevents the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
b) RAI binds free T4.
c) RAI destroys thyroid tissue.
d) RAI reduces freely circulating iodine.
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Lifestyle modification is the treatment of choice for metabolic syndrome.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
MN568 Unit 6 Exam latest 2017
MN568 Unit 6 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Pancreatitis
b) Peptic ulcer disease
c) Diverticulitis
d) All of the above
Question 2 2 / 2 points
Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for a patient with mild BPH?
Question options:
a) Refer to a urologist for surgery.
b) Prescribe a trial of tamsulosin.
c) Recommend cranberry supplements.
d) Reevaluate symptoms in 1 to 3 months.
Question 3 2 / 2 points
The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?
Question options:
a) Repeat the test.
b) Refer to a nephrologist.
c) Measure the serum protein.
d) Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin?
Question options:
a) 0.05% liquid formulation
b) 0.1% cream
c) 1% foam
d) 0.02% cream
Question 5 2 / 2 points
Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a patient in ARF?
Question options:
a) Pruritis
b) Glycosuria
c) Irritability
d) Hypotension
Question 6 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is an infraorbital fold skin manifestation in a patient with atopic dermatitis?
Question options:
a) Keratosis pilaris
b) Dennie’s sign
c) Keratoconus
d) Pityriasis alba
Question 7 2 / 2 points
The patient with BPH is seen for follow-up. He has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for 6 months. The clinician should assess this patient for which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Erectile dysfunction
b) Glaucoma
c) Hypotension
d) Headache
Question 8 2 / 2 points
When using the microscope for an intravaginal infection, you see something translucent and colorless. What do you suspect?
Question options:
a) A piece of hair or a thread
b) Hyphae
c) Leukocytes
d) Spores
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection. Which of the following is a treatment that you usually recommend/order in nonpregnant patients, but is listed as a Pregnancy category D?
Question options:
a) Vagistat vaginal cream
b) Monistat combination pack
c) Terazol vaginal cream
d) Diflucan, 150 mg
Question 10 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
Question options:
a) NSAIDs
b) Beets
c) Vitamin A
d) Red meat
Question 11 2 / 2 points
Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?
Question options:
a) BUN and creatinine
b) Electrolytes
c) Creatinine clearance
d) Urinalysis
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Eighty percent of men have noticeable hair loss by what age?
Question options:
a) 35
b) 50
c) 70
d) 85
Question 13 0 / 2 points
When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes.What do you suspect they are?
Question options:
a) Spores
b) Leukocytes
c) Pseudohyphae
d) Epithelial cells
Question 14 2 / 2 points
Which of the following information is essential before prescribing Bactrim DS to a 24-year-old woman with a UTI?
Question options:
a) Last menstrual period
b) Method of birth control
c) Last unprotected sexual contact
d) All of the above
Question 15 2 / 2 points
What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Question options:
a) Radical orchidectomy
b) Lumpectomy
c) Radiation implants
d) All of the above
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?
Question options:
a) Urinalysis
b) Gram stain of urethral discharge
c) Complete blood cell count with differential
d) Ultrasound of the scrotum
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sally, age 25, presents with impetigo that has been diagnosed as infected with Staphylococcus. The clinical presentation is pruritic tender, red vesicles surrounded by erythema with a rash that is ulcerating. Her recent treatment has not been adequate. Which type of impetigo is this?
Question options:
a) Bullous impetigo
b) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)
c) Nonbullous impetigo
d) Ecthyma
Question 18 2 / 2 points
An example of ecchymosis is:
Question options:
a) A hematoma
b) A keloid
c) A bruise
d) A patch
Question 19 2 / 2 points
An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Prostate cancer
d) All of the above
Question 20 0 / 2 points
A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Testosterone level
b) Prostate-specific antigen
c) Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
d) Prolactin level
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of painful erections, and he notices his penis is crooked when erect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Peyronie’s disease
b) Damage to the pudendal artery
c) Scarring of the cavernosa
d) All of the above
Question 22 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?
Question options:
a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.
b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.
c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.
d) There is metastasis to distant organs.
Question 23 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 24 2 / 2 points
Tinea unguium is also known as:
Question options:
a) Onychomycosis
b) Tinea versicolor
c) Tinea manuum
d) Tinea corporis
Question 25 2 / 2 points
The patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure (ARF).Which of the following data obtained from the history should alert the provider that this is a case of prerenal azotemia?
Question options:
a) Recent heat stroke
b) Nephrolithiasis
c) Recent infection where gentamicin was used in treatment
d) All of the above
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is accurate when you are removing a seborrheic keratosis lesion using liquid nitrogen?
Question options:
a) Do not use lidocaine as it may potentiate bleeding.
b) Pinch the skin taut together.
c) Use gel foam to control bleeding.
d) This should be performed by a dermatologist only.
Question 27 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with urge incontinence. Before prescribing Detrol XL, the provider should question the patient about which of these contraindications to this medication?
Question options:
a) Diarrhea
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Closed-angle glaucoma
d) Breast cancer
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
Question options:
a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 29 2 / 2 points
A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Risk of osteoporosis
b) May have hot flushes
c) May have impotence
d) All of the above
Question 30 2 / 2 points
Josh, aged 22, has tinea versicolor. Which description is the most likely for this condition?
Question options:
a) There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back.
b) Josh has red papules on his face.
c) There are crusted plaques in Josh’s groin area.
d) There are white streaks on his neck.
Question 31 2 / 2 points
The most common precancerous skin lesion found in Caucasians is:
Question options:
a) A skin tag
b) Actinic keratosis
c) A melanoma
d) A basal cell lesion
Question 32 2 / 2 points
Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs?
Question options:
a) Telogen effluvium (TE)
b) Trichotillomania
c) Psoriasis
d) Alopecia areata
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A 46-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy and low back pain. He has no history of UTI. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a normal prostate, and a diagnosis of prostatodynia is made. Which is the appropriate treatment?
Question options:
a) Terazosin 2 mg PO once a day
b) Ice pack to the scrotal area
c) Saw palmetto 320 mg per day
d) All of the above
Question 34 2 / 2 points
A 30-year-old patient presents with pain on urination. The urine microscopy of unspun urine shows greater than 10 leukocytes/mL, and a dipstick is positive for nitrites. What is the probable diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Lower urinary tract infection
b) Chlamydia infection
c) Candidiasis
d) Pyelonephritis
Question 35 2 / 2 points
Which of the following foods should be limited in a patient with CRF?
Question options:
a) Milk
b) Bananas
c) Soy sauce
d) All of the above
Question 36 2 / 2 points
An example of a primary skin lesion is a/an:
Question options:
a) Bulla
b) Scale
c) Excoriation
d) Fissure
Question 37 2 / 2 points
A 76-year-old man is seen in the office for complaints of urinary incontinence. The clinician should explore which of these causes of incontinence in men?
Question options:
a) Urethral polyps
b) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
c) Anticholinergic medication
d) All of the above
Question 38 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of hematuria. To make a differential diagnosis, which of the following questions should be asked?
Question options:
a) “Do you have a history of liver disease?”
b) “What medications are you currently taking?”
c) “Have you noticed swelling in your ankles?”
d) All of the above
Question 39 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with Stage D bladder cancer and asks the provider what that means. Which is the best response?
Question options:
a) “There is no such thing as Stage D cancer.”
b) “You have cancer that has spread to the surrounding tissue.”
c) “Your cancer has spread to other organs.”
d) “Your cancer can be cured by removing your bladder.”
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Treatment for epididymitis includes which of the following?
Question options:
a) Warm sitz baths
b) Scrotal elevation
c) Masturbation
d) All of the above
Question 41 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the office complaining of severe flank pain. The clinician should assess this patient for which risk factor for kidney stones?
Question options:
a) Hypertension
b) Constipation
c) Tubal ligation
d) Diabetes
Question 42 2 / 2 points
A 63-year-old man is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of nocturia. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Psychogenic nocturia
b) Urethral polyp
c) Irritative posterior urethral lesion
d) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Question 43 0 / 2 points
A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?
Question options:
a) Every month
b) Every 3 to 4 months
c) Every 6 to 12 months
d) Every year
Question 44 2 / 2 points
Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity.Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to gas production by which anaerobic bacteria?
Question options:
a) Staphylococcal aureus
b) Clostridium perfringens
c) S. pyrogenes
d) Streptococcus
Question 45 2 / 2 points
Ian, age 62, presents with a wide, diffuse area of erythematous skin on his lower left leg that is warm and tender to palpation.There is some edema involved. You suspect:
Question options:
a) Necrotizing fasciitis
b) Kaposi’s sarcoma
c) Cellulitis
d) A diabetic ulcer
Question 46 2 / 2 points
Why do people of African descent have a lower incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer?
Question options:
a) They have an increased number of melanocytes.
b) Their darker skin protects from ultraviolet radiation.
c) Their skin is thicker.
d) Their immune system is stronger.
Question 47 2 / 2 points
A 23-year-old sexually active man is seen in the clinic with unilateral painful testicular swelling, and he is diagnosed with epididymitis.In order to prescribe the correct drug, the clinician must understand that which of these is the most common causative organism?
Question options:
a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Chlamydia trachomatis
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 48 2 / 2 points
When instructing your elderly client about treating her xerosis, what do you tell her?
Question options:
a) A daily hot bath may help the associated pruritus.
b) Rub the skin briskly to make sure it is completely dry after bathing.
c) Only take short tepid showers.
d) Use a gel that is alcohol-based after bathing to soften the skin.
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Which of the following instructions should be given to the patient with nephrolithiasis?
Question options:
a) Take ibuprofen, 600 mg every 8 hours.
b) Take Tums? for stomach upset.
c) Drink more black tea.
d) Increase intake of vegetables, like spinach.
Question 50 2 / 2 points
The 56-year-old man with chronic prostatitis should be treated with trimethoprim 80 mg-sulfamethoxazole 400 mg (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for how long?
Question options:
a) 3 to 7 days
b) 14 to 21 days
c) 3 to 6 weeks
d) 6 to 12 weeks
MN568 Unit 4 Exam
MN568 Unit 4 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 0 / 2 points
Mr. J. K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds. He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months and takes Tums® with temporary relief. He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest. Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain?
Question options:
a) The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves.
b) Coffee and fried foods don’t bother him,
c) He wakes at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth.
d) All of the above
Question 2 2 / 2 points
A 22-year-old is seen complaining of vague belly pain. This type of pain is seen at what point in appendicitis?
Question options:
a) Very early
b) 3 to 4 hours after perforation
c) Late in inflammation
d) Appendicitis never presents with vague pain.
Question 3 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Gastroenteritis
b) Inflammatory bowel disease
c) Lactase deficiency
d) All of the above
Question 4 0 / 2 points
If chest pain can be alleviated with time, analgesics, and heat applications, what might the differential diagnosis be?
Question options:
a) Peptic ulcer
b) Hiatal hernia
c) Costochondritis
d) Pericarditis
Question 5 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the office with complaints of six to seven liquid bowel movements per day. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the NP to a diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease?
Question options:
a) Intermittent constipation with periods of diarrhea
b) Wakens at night with diarrhea
c) History of international travel
d) All of the above
Question 6 2 / 2 points
In which type of arterioventricular (AV) block does the pulse rate (PR) interval lengthen until a beat is dropped?
Question options:
a) First-degree AV block
b) Second-degree Mobitz I AV block
c) Second-degree Mobitz II AV block
d) Third-degree AV block
Question 7 2 / 2 points
For the best therapeutic effect after a myocardial infarction (MI), thrombolytics should be administered within the first 3 hours (ideally 30 minutes) of symptom onset. Studies have shown, however, that thrombolytic therapy can be of benefit up to how many hours after the initial presentation of MI symptoms?
Question options:
a) 6 hours
b) 8 hours
c) 10 hours
d) 12 hours
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (celiac sprue)?
Question options:
a) Malabsorption
b) Constipation
c) Rectal bleeding
d) Esophageal ulceration
Question 9 2 / 2 points
A 46-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic with abdominal pain. Which of the following tests is essential for this patient?
Question options:
a) CBC with differential
b) Urine human chorionic gonadotropin
c) Barium enema
d) Computed tomography of the abdomen
Question 10 2 / 2 points
Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
Question options:
a) Greater than 30
b) Greater than 40
c) Greater than 50
d) Greater than 60
Question 11 2 / 2 points
A 28-year-old patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea.Which of the following responses to the history questions would help the primary care physician (PCP) establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Question options:
a) Feels relief after a bowel movement
b) Sometimes is constipated
c) Does not defecate in the middle of the night
d) All of the above
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Which heart sound may be heard with poorly controlled hypertension, angina, and ischemic heart disease?
Question options:
a) A physiologic split S2
b) A fixed split S2
c) S3
d) S4
Question 13 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with GERD, and his endoscopic report reveals the presence of Barrett’s epithelium. Which of the following should the PCP include in the explanation of the pathology report?
Question options:
a) This is a premalignant tissue.
b) This tissue is resistant to gastric acid.
c) This tissue supports healing of the esophagus.
d) All of the above
Question 14 0 / 2 points
A patient is seen with dark-colored urine, and the urine dipstick reveals a high level of bilirubin. Which of the following could be a cause of this problem?
Question options:
a) Increased breakdown of red blood cells
b) Inadequate hepatocyte function
c) Biliary obstruction
d) All of the above
Question 15 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?
Question options:
a) B-type natriuretic peptide
b) C-reactive protein
c) Serum albumin
d) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Your patient with permanent afib asks when he can discontinue his warfarin. You tell him:
Question options:
a) When your internalized normalized ratio reaches 3.0, you can stop taking your warfarin permanently.
b) When you no longer feel ill
c) One month after your symptoms dissipate
d) You’ll probably be on it indefinitely.
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?
Question options:
a) Serum calcium
b) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
d) Complete blood cell count
Question 18 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about dabigatran is true?
Question options:
a) It is difficult to keep the patient in therapeutic range.
b) Anticoagulation cannot be immediately reversed.
c) It allows for the use of tPA if the patient has a stroke despite anticoagulation.
d) None of the statements are true.
Question 19 2 / 2 points
A 25-year-old accountant is seen in the clinic complaining of crampy abdominal pain after meals. She is often constipated and takes laxatives, which are followed by a couple of days of diarrhea. She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement. She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension. She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool. This problem has gone on for about 6 months. What should the next step be?
Question options:
a) Obtain a complete history.
b) Order a barium enema.
c) Schedule a Bernstein’s test.
d) Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics.
Question 20 2 / 2 points
A 35-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following should be included in the history and physical examination?
Question options:
a) Digital rectal exam
b) Pelvic exam
c) Sexual history
d) All of the above
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A 28-year-old patient is seen in the clinic with colicky abdominal pain particular with meals. She has frequent constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which of the data make a diagnosis of diverticulitis unlikely?
Question options:
a) Her age
b) Frequent constipation
c) Flatulence
d) Colicky abdominal pain
Question 22 2 / 2 points
Nitroglycerine (NTG) is given for a patient having ischemic chest pain. One tablet or one spray should be used under the tongue every 5 minutes for three doses. What should be done if the pain has not been relieved after three doses?
Question options:
a) 911 should be called, and the patient should be transported immediately to the emergency department.
b) One more dose of NTG may be tried.
c) The person should be given two aspirin to chew.
d) A portable defibrillator should be located to ascertain the cardiac rhythm.
Question 23 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with right upper quadrant pain that is radiating to the middle of the back. The NP suspects acute cholelithiasis. The NP should expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Question options:
a) Decreased alanine aminotransferase and decreased aspartate aminotransferase
b) Elevated alkaline phosphatase
c) Elevated indirect bilirubin
d) Decreased white blood cells
Question 24 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with giardia after a backpacking trip in the mountains. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Question options:
a) Vancomycin
b) Penicillin
c) Metronidazole
d) Bactrim
Question 25 2 / 2 points
A 21-year-old student presents with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose, all of which began about 2 weeks ago. She started taking vitamins and over-the-counter cold preparations but feels worse.The smell of food makes her nauseated. Her boyfriend had mononucleosis about a month ago, and she wonders if she might have it also. Examination reveals cervical adenopathy and an enlarged liver and spleen. Which of the following labs would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis at this point?
Question options:
a) Stool culture
b) Liver enzymes
c) Antihepatitis D virus
d) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Statins are approved for which age group?
Question options:
a) Children over the age of 2
b) Children over the age of 6
c) Children over the age of 10
d) Only adolescents and adults
Question 27 2 / 2 points
When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Mary has hypertension and previously had a stroke. Which hypertensive drug would you order for her?
Question options:
a) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
b) Calcium channel blocker
c) Angiotensin II receptor blocker
d) Beta blocker
Question 29 2 / 2 points
What value on the ankle-brachial index diagnoses peripheral artery disease?
Question options:
a) Less than 0.25
b) Less than 0.50
c) Less than 0.90
d) Greater than 1
Question 30 2 / 2 points
Which group would most benefit from statins?
Question options:
a) Those with a low density lipoprotein-cholesterol greater than 100 mg/dL
b) Individuals with clinical arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease
c) Individuals with a 10-year risk greater than 10%
d) Individuals of all ages with diabetes mellitus (DM)
Question 31 2 / 2 points
Which type of angina do you suspect in Harvey, who complains of chest pain that occurs during sleep and most often in the early morning hours?
Question options:
a) Stable angina
b) Unstable angina
c) Variant (Prinzmetal’s angina)
d) Probably not angina but hiatal hernia
Question 32 2 / 2 points
The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association states which of the following regarding the use of non-statin lipid-lowering agents?
Question options:
a) Nicotinic acid derivatives are effective for lowering LDL and triglycerides (TGs).
b) Bile acid sequestrates increase HDL.
c) Cholesterol absorption inhibitors decrease LDL.
d) There is no sufficient evidence to use non-statin lipid-drugs.
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation.The patient lists all of the following medications. Which drug could be responsible for the constipation?
Question options:
a) Multivitamin
b) Magnesium hydroxide
c) Pepto-Bismol
d) Ibuprofen
Question 34 2 / 2 points
You just started Martha on HTN therapy. The Eighth Joint National Committee recommends that if her goal BP is not reached in what length of time, you should increase the initial drug or add a second drug to it?
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 1 year
Question 35 2 / 2 points
The patient with GERD should be instructed to eliminate which of these activities?
Question options:
a) Swimming
b) Weight lifting
c) Golfing
d) Walking
Question 36 2 / 2 points
A patient has acute pancreatitis with seven of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson’s criteria. In order to plan care, the NP must understand that this criteria score has which of the following meanings?
Question options:
a) A high mortality rate
b) An increased chance of recurrence
c) A 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic
d) All of the above
Question 37 2 / 2 points
A Delta wave on the ECG may be present in which condition?
Question options:
a) Prinzmetal’s angina
b) Bundle branch block
c) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
d) Aortic stenosis
Question 38 2 / 2 points
Lifestyle modifications to manage hypertension (HTN) include:
Question options:
a) Maintaining a body mass index of 17
b) Restricting dietary sodium to 2 grams per day
c) Engaging in exercise or physical activity for 90 minutes a day
d) Limiting beer intake to 24 ounces per day
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Which pain characteristic is usually indicative of cardiac pathology?
Question options:
a) Fleeting
b) Moving
c) Diffuse
d) Localized
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Which ECG change is typical of cardiac ischemia?
Question options:
a) T-wave inversion
b) ST-segment elevation
c) Significant Q wave
d) U-wave
Question 41 0 / 2 points
A 29-year-old Englishman is seen in the office with complaints of pain in his chest and belly. He has been suffering the pain for 2 weeks and gets temporary relief from Alka-Seltzer®. The burning pain wakes him at night and radiates up to his chest. Which factor favors a diagnosis of gastric ulcer?
Question options:
a) His gender
b) His age
c) His use of Alka-Seltzer
d) His ethnic origin
Question 42 2 / 2 points
Which murmurs are usually ‘watch and wait’?
Question options:
a) Systolic murmurs
b) Diastolic murmurs
c) They both are dangerous and need immediate attention.
d) You can ‘watch and wait’ for both of them.
Question 43 2 / 2 points
A 45-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of generalized abdominal pain. Her physical examination is remarkable for left lower quadrant tenderness. At this time, which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Endometriosis
b) Colon cancer
c) Diverticulitis
d) All of the above
Question 44 2 / 2 points
George, age 64, has cardiovascular disease (CVD), a total cholesterol of 280 mg/dL, and a systolic BP of 158. He is being treated for hypertension.You are doing a Framingham Risk Assessment on him. Which assessment factor would give him the highest number of points on the scale?
Question options:
a) His age
b) His cholesterol level
c) His systolic BP
d) The fact that he is on antihypertensive medication
Question 45 2 / 2 points
The nurse practitioner (NP) suspects a patient has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following items on the history would lead the NP to this conclusion?
Question options:
a) Use of NSAIDs
b) Cigarette smoker
c) Ethanol consumption
d) All of the above
Question 46 2 / 2 points
In the CHADS2 Index for the stroke risk score for AF, the‘A’ stands for:
Question options:
a) Anticoagulation
b) Autoimmune disease
c) Age
d) Antihypertension
Question 47 2 / 2 points
Jamie, age 55, has just started on a statin after having his liver function tests (LFTs) come back normal. He now asks you how often he has to have the LFTs repeated. What do you tell him?
Question options:
a) Initially in 6 weeks
b) Every 3 months
c) Every 6 months
d) It’s no longer necessary for his statin regimen.
Question 48 0 / 2 points
Which of the following dietary instructions should be given to a patient with GERD?
Question options:
a) Eliminate coffee.
b) Drink peppermint tea to relieve stomach distress.
c) Recline and rest after meals.
d) Limit the amount of antacids.
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:
Question options:
a) Severe asthma
b) A common valvular lesion
c) Severe hypertension
d) A prosthetic heart valve
Question 50 2 / 2 points
You are assessing Sigred for metabolic syndrome. Which of her parameters is indicative of this syndrome?
Question options:
a) Her waist is 36 inches.
b) Her triglyceride level is 140 mg/dL.
c) Her BP is 128/84.
d) Her fasting blood sugar (BS) is 108 mg/dL.
MN568 Unit 2 Exam
MN568 Unit 2 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 0 / 2 points
Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure?
Question options:
a) 0 to 7 mm Hg
b) 8 to 21 mm Hg
c) 22 to 40 mm Hg
d) 40 to 80 mm Hg
Question 2 0 / 2 points
Which obstructive lung disease is classified as reversible?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) COPD
Question 3 0 / 2 points
A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?
Question options:
a) The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b) The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c) Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d) Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Heart valve damage resulting from acute rheumatic fever is a long-term sequelae resulting from infection with which of the following pathogens?
Question options:
a) Coxsackievirus
b) Cytomegalovirus
c) Francisella tularensis
d) Group A streptococcus
Question 5 2 / 2 points
The presence of hairy leukoplakia in a person with no other symptoms of immune suppression is strongly suggestive of which type of infection?
Question options:
a) HSV type 2
b) HIV
c) Pneumonia
d) Syphilis
Question 6 0 / 2 points
Your patient is on Therabid for his asthma. You want to maintain his serum levels between:
Question options:
a) 0 to 5 mcg/mL
b) 5 to 10 mcg/mL
c) 5 to 15 mcg/mL
d) 10 to 20 mcg/mL
Question 7 0 / 2 points
African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?
Question options:
a) Inhaled corticosteroids
b) Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators
c) Leukotriene receptor agonists
d) Oral corticosteroids
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of bilberry as a complementary therapy for cataracts?
Question options:
a) The body converts bilberry to vitamin A, which helps to maintain a healthy lens.
b) Bilberry blocks an enzyme that leads to sorbitol accumulation that contributes to cataract formation in diabetes.
c) Bilberry boosts oxygen and blood delivery to the eye.
d) Bilberry is a good choice for patients with diabetes as it does not interact with antidiabetic drugs.
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?
Question options:
a) He should stop smoking today.
b) He should stop smoking tomorrow.
c) His quit date should be in 1 week.
d) He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.
Question 10 2 / 2 points
The forced vital capacity is decreased in:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) Restrictive disease
Question 11 2 / 2 points
A patient with hypertension comes in and insists that one of his new medications is causing him to cough. When looking at his list of medications, you think the cough must be from:
Question options:
a) Metoprolol
b) Clopidogrel
c) Tadalafil
d) Captopril
Question 12 0 / 2 points
You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?
Question options:
a) “Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
b) “Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
c) “Drive to the emergency room now.”
d) “Call 911.”
Question 13 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function is true?
Question options:
a) Cigarette smoking accelerates the decline in pulmonary function tenfold.
b) Smoking cessation can reverse most pathological changes.
c) Cigarette smoking decreases mucus production.
d) There is a normal age-related decline in pulmonary function.
Question 14 0 / 2 points
You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?
Question options:
a) Baker phenomenon
b) Arnold reflex
c) Cough reflex
d) Tragus reflex
Question 15 0 / 2 points
Nathan, a 32-year-old policeman, has a 15-pack-a-year history of smoking and continues to smoke heavily. During every visit, he gets irate when you try to talk to him about quitting. What should you do?
Question options:
a) Hand him literature about smoking cessation at every visit.
b) Wait until he is ready to talk to you about quitting.
c) Document in the record that he is not ready to quit.
d) Continue to ask him at every visit if he is ready to quit.
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which immunoglobulin mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity reaction involved in allergic rhinitis?
Question options:
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
Question options:
a) Glaucoma
b) Increased sperm quality
c) Bladder cancer
d) Eczema
Question 18 0 / 2 points
Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?
Question options:
a) African American men
b) Scandinavian men and women
c) Caucasian women
d) Asian men
Question 19 2 / 2 points
Which information should be included when you are teaching your patient about the use of nicotine gum?
Question options:
a) The gum must be correctly chewed to a softened state and then placed in the buccal mucosa.
b) Patients should not eat for 30 minutes prior to or during the use of the gum.
c) Initially, one piece is chewed every 30 minutes while awake.
d) Acidic foods and beverages should be encouraged during nicotine therapy.
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Julie has a postnasal drip along with her cough. You assess her for:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Sinusitis
c) Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis
d) Influenza
Question 21 2 / 2 points
Cydney presents with a history of asthma. She has not been treated for a while. She complains of daily but not continual symptoms, greater than 1 week and at nighttime. She has been using her rescue inhaler. Her FEV1 is 60% to 80% predicted. How would you classify her asthma severity?
Question options:
a) Mild intermittent
b) Mild persistent
c) Moderate persistent
d) Severe persistent
Question 22 2 / 2 points
A chronic cough lasts longer than:
Question options:
a) 3 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 6 months
d) 8 weeks
Question 23 0 / 2 points
Severe pain associated with acute otitis media signifies perforation of the tympanic membrane.
Question options:
a) True
b) False.
Question 24 0 / 2 points
As diabetic retinopathy progresses, the presence of ‘cotton wool’ spots can be detected. Cotton wool spots refer to:
Question options:
a) Nerve fiber layer infarctions
b) Blood vessel proliferation
c) Venous beading
d) Retinal hemorrhage
Question 25 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Increased white blood cells
c) Insulin resistance
d) Hyperactivity
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Marta is taking TB drugs prophylactically. How do you instruct her to take them?
Question options:
a) Take them on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.
b) Take them with aspirin (ASA) to prevent flushing.
c) Take them with ibuprofen to prevent a headache.
d) Take them with food to prevent nausea.
Question 27 0 / 2 points
Sam, age 78, presents to the clinic with respiratory symptoms. His pulmonary function tests are as follows: a normal total lung capacity, a decreased PaO2, and an increased PaCO2. On assessment, you auscultate coarse crackles and forced expiratory wheezes. What is your diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Emphysema
c) Chronic bronchitis
d) Influenza
Question 28 0 / 2 points
Which subtype of cataracts is characterized by significant nearsightedness and a slow indolent course?
Question options:
a) Nuclear cataracts
b) Cortical cataracts
c) Posterior cataracts
d) Immature cataracts
Question 29 0 / 2 points
Otitis media is considered chronic when:
Question options:
a) Inflammation persists more than 3 months with intermittent or persistent otic discharge.
b) There are more than six occurrences of otitis media in a 1-year period.
c) Otitis media does not resolve after two courses of antibiotics.
d) All of the above
Question 30 0 / 2 points
Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?
Question options:
a) Perforation of the tympanic membrane
b) Otosclerosis
c) Cholesteatoma
d) Presbycusis
Question 31 0 / 2 points
A patient presents with the following signs and symptoms: gradual onset of low-grade fever, marked fatigue, severe sore throat, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Based on the signs and symptoms alone, which of the following conditions is most likely the cause?
Question options:
a) Gonorrhea
b) Mononucleosis
c) Influenza
d) Herpes zoster
Question 32 0 / 2 points
You are using the CURB-65 clinical prediction tool to decide whether Mabel, whom you have diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), should be hospitalized or treated at home. Her score is 3. What should you do?
Question options:
a) Consider home treatment.
b) Plan for a short inpatient hospitalization.
c) Closely supervise her outpatient treatment.
d) Hospitalize and consider admitting her to the intensive care unit.
Question 33 2 / 2 points
The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:
Question options:
a) Pharyngitis
b) Allergies
c) Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
d) Perforation of the eardrum
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
Question options:
a) Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b) Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c) If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d) All of the above
Question 35 2 / 2 points
Marci has been started on a tuberculosis (TB) regimen.Because isoniazid (INH) may cause peripheral neuropathy, you consider ordering which of the following drugs prophylactically?
Question options:
a) Pyridoxine
b) Thiamine
c) Probiotic
d) Phytonadione
Question 36 2 / 2 points
The barrel chest characteristic of emphysema is a result of:
Question options:
a) Chronic coughing
b) Hyperinflation
c) Polycythemia
d) Pulmonary hypertension
Question 37 0 / 2 points
A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?
Question options:
a) The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b) Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c) A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d) The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Question 38 0 / 2 points
Your patient states he has a strep throat infection. Which of the following symptoms makes you consider a viral etiology instead?
Question options:
a) Fever
b) Headache
c) Exudative pharyngitis
d) Rhinorrhea
Question 39 0 / 2 points
Which statement about adenocarcinoma of the lung is accurate?
Question options:
a) It is the least common type of lung cancer, representing approximately 5% to 10% of cases.
b) It is the most prevalent carcinoma of the lungs in both sexes and in nonsmokers, representing 35% to 40% of all tumors.
c) It is more common in men than in women and occurs almost entirely in cigarette smokers.
d) It is aggressive, with rapid growth and early local and distant metastases via the lymphatic and blood vessels.
Question 40 0 / 2 points
A patient presents to the clinician complaining of ear pain.On examination, the clinician finds that the patient has tenderness on traction of the pinna as well as when applying pressure over the tragus. These findings are classic signs of which condition?
Question options:
a) Otitis media
b) Meniere’s disease
c) Tinnitus
d) Otitis externa
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Supplemental oxygen for how many hours per day has been shown to improve the mortality associated with COPD?
Question options:
a) 3 to 5 hours
b) 6 to 10 hours
c) 11 to 14 hours
d) 15 to 18 hours
Question 42 0 / 2 points
Which of the following medications used in the treatment of glaucoma works by constricting the pupils to open the angle and allow aqueous fluid to escape?
Question options:
a) Pilocarpine
b) Timolol
c) Brinzolamide
d) Acetazolamide
Question 43 2 / 2 points
You are in the park playing with your children when you see that your friend is screaming for help. Her toddler has fallen and there is a stick lodged in his eye. The child is kicking and screaming and grabbing for the stick. You:
Question options:
a) instruct his mother to hold him securely and not allow him to touch the stick, then carefully remove the stick from the eye.
b) stabilize the foreign object and accompany the mother and child to the local ER.
c) find a water fountain, hold the child to the water, and flush the eye.
d) call 911.
Question 44 2 / 2 points
You have a patient who is a positive for Strep on rapid antigen testing (rapid strep test). You order amoxacillin after checking for drug allergies (patient is negative) but he returns 3 days later, reporting that his temperature has gone up, not down (101.5 F in office). You also note significant adenopathy, most notably in the posterior and anterior cervical chains, some hepatomegaly, and a diffuse rash. You decide:
Question options:
a) to refer the patient.
b) that he is having an allergic response and needs to be changed to a macrolide antibiotic.
c) that his antibiotic dosage is not sufficient and should be changed.
d) that he possibly has mononucleosis concurrent with his strep infection.
Question 45 2 / 2 points
Fluctuations and reductions in estrogen may be a contributing factor in which type of rhinitis?
Question options:
a) Vasomotor rhinitis
b) Rhinitis medicamentosum
c) Atrophic rhinitis
d) Viral rhinitis
Question 46 2 / 2 points
In which of the following situations would referral to a specialist be needed for sinusitis?
Question options:
a) Recurrent sinusitis
b) Allergic sinusitis
c) Sinusitis that is refractory to antibiotic therapy
d) All of the above
Question 47 0 / 2 points
The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss. The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient’s mastoid process, and when the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the external auditory meatus. The patient is asked to let the clinician know when the sound fades away. This is an example of which type of test?
Question options:
a) Weber test
b) Schwabach test
c) Rinne test
d) Auditory brainstem response (ABR) test
Question 48 0 / 2 points
Sinusitis is considered chronic when there are episodes of prolonged inflammation with repeated or inadequately treated acute infection lasting greater than:
Question options:
a) 4 weeks
b) 8 weeks
c) 12 weeks
d) 16 weeks
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Most nosocomial pneumonias are caused by:
Question options:
a) Fungi
b) Viruses
c) Gram-negative bacteria
d) Pneumococcal pneumonia
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Joyce is taking a long-acting beta agonist for her asthma.What additional medication should she be taking?
Question options:
a) Inhaled corticosteroid
b) Leukotriene receptor antagonist
c) Systemic corticosteroid
d) Methyl xanthenes
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 4
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 4
Question 1. Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall.
She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question.2 In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question.3 Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a.Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b.Elevated T4
c.Elevated TRH
d.All of the above
Question.4 Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepinesb.
Antipsychoticsc.
Anticonvulsantsd.
Antidepressants
Question.5 When may confidentiality be overridden?
When personal information is available on the computer
When a clinician needs to share information with a billing company
When an insurance company wants to know the results of a breast cancer gene testX
When a patient has a communicable disease
Question.6 What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?
9%
18%
24%
36%
Question.7 The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
Low-dose aspirin
Thiazide diuretics
Ethambutol
All of the above
Question.8 Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
6 months
Question.9 Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
Autonomy
Beneficence
Justice
Veracity
Question.10 George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever
Question.11 A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test.
Endometrial biopsy
Pelvic ultrasound
Platelet count
Question.12 Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above
Question.13 During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
a. An enlarged rubbery gland
b. A hard irregular gland
c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question.14 Which drug commonly prescribed …. partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Silver nitratex
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question.15 A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question.16 After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
Send her for acupuncture treatments
All of the above
Question.17 Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Metranidazole
Ceftriaxone
Diflucan
Doxycycline
Question.18 Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
accidental.
caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
not attributed to any reason.
Question.19 Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?
Dilute povidone-iodine solutionx
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
Saline irrigation or soapy water
Question.20 A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question.21 What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
A pain that is worse upon awakening
A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question.22 Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
A female in her reproductive years
A 40-year-old African American male
A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question.23 If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
The area will be super sensitive.
The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question.24 The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?
Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood
Compete eradication of the virus
Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals
Complete abstinence
Question.25 The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question.26 The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.
Question.27 In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?
Commitment
Consensusx
Certification
Collaboration
Question.28 Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?
Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate painbut should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.
All of the above
Question.29 Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question.30 CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and non physician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components. Which of the following are part of the components used to calculate the per CPT code payment rate?
a. Clinician education loans
b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
d. Clinician volume of patients treated
Question.31 Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
x 20%
30%
50%
Question.32 A bulla is:
A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.
An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.
A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.
Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.
Question.33 Clinicians who learn how to code and document Evaluation and Management (E&M) and clinician services will be more successful in gaining timely payment for care delivery. Which or the following Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) practices are designed to financially penalize clinicians who do not bill according to CMS guidelines?
Audits and probes
Add-on codes
Modifier codes
HAC guidelines
Question 34. Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
Impaired attention
Affective changes
Delusions
Question.35 Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question.36 A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question.37 When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question.38 Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?
Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
Identifying and managing complications of care
All of the above
Question.39 Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Question.40 Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Timolol
Ergotamine
Topiramate
Question.41 A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question. 42 How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
Every 6 months
Every 3 months
Every visit
Question.43 A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
Trichomonas
Bacterial vaginosis
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Question.44 After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question.45 The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves:
Good liability insurance
A collaborating physician
Good documentation
Open communication skills
Question.46 The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
3 months.
6 months.
12 months.
Question. 47 What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question. 48 Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question.49 Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
Anxiolytics
Antidepressants
Atypical antipsychotics
Question.50 Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
NAPSRx Final Exam
NAPSRx Final Exam
1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?
A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action
B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects
C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects
D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness
2. Bone marrow transplants…
A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.
B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.
C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.
D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.
3. What does AMA stand for?
A. American Medical Academy
B. American Medical Accreditation
C. American Medical Association
D. Association of Medical Assistants
4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?
A. adverse reactions
B. contraindications
C. overdosage
D. warning/precautions
5 What is tertiary care?
A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect
B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems
C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility
D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?
A. brand personality
B. brand positoning
C. brand quality
D. brand values
7 What are vasodilators used to do?
A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow
B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system
C. narrow the blood vessels
D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster
8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?
A. homeostasis
B. steady state
C. titration
D. tolerance
9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?
A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.
B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.
C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.
D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.
10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?
A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies
B. the NIH
C. the U.S. Government
D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies
11. How are most drugs excreted?
A. via the bloodstream
B. via the heart
C. via the kidneys
D. via the skin
12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?
A. Limitations have decreased.
B. Limitations have increased significantly.
C. Limitations have increased slightly.
D. Limitations have remained about the same.
13. Answer: Branding name
14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?
A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.
B. Both drugs are generics.
C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.
D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.
15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?
A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs
B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives
C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives
D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives
16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:
A. MS
B. OH
C. SM
D. SS
17 What is an internist?
A. a physician who practices internal medicine
B. a physician’s intern
C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy
D. an internal sales representative
18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?
A. erythrocytes
B. insulin
C. Lymphocytes
D.HCs
19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?
A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry
B. to become more familiar with their territories
C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.
D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.
20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?
A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.
B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.
C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.
D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.
21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?
A. about 20%
B. about 60%
C. about 70%
D. about 95%
22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?
A. by borrowing them from hospitals
B. by ordering them over the Internet
C. by trading them for services
D. directly from sales representatives
23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?
A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.
B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.
C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.
D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.
24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?
A. cardiology
B. psychiatry
C. urology
D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.
25. What affects the rate of active transport?
A. the availability of carriers. but not energy
B. the availability of energy. but not carriers
C. the availability of carriers and energy
D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy
26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?
A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.
B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing
C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality
D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.
27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?
A. patients liking their providers
B. patients using only one pharmacist
C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs
D. support groups
28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the drug’s manufacturer
C. the FDA
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?
A. multipotent
B. pluripotent
C. totipotent
D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.
30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.
D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.
31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?
A. cardiac and smooth
B. only skeletal
C. skeletal and cardiac
D. skeletal and smooth
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?
A. the cardiovascular system
B. the cellular system
C. the gastrointestinal system
D. the musculoskeletal system
33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?
A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues
B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence
C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues
D. through genetic mutation
34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?
A. AMA guide
B. Blue Book
C. FDA drug list
D. Orange Book
35. What does subcutaneous mean?
A. beneath the intervention
B. beneath the muscle tissue
C. beneath the outer skin
D. beneath the suture
36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?
A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet
B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet
C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet
D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way
37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.
A. pharmaceutical
B. positive
C. potent
D. primary
39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?
A. distributors and supply chains
B. pharmacists and NAMs
C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors
D. retailers and institutions
40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?
A. contraindicative indication
B. off-indication usage
C or D. off-label
41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?
A. KN
B. PC
C. PK
D. pT
42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.
B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.
C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.
D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.
44. What entity grants drug patents?
A. the FDA
B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription
C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter
D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office
45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?
A. formulation
B. mycoplasma
C. peptide
D. saccharide
46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?
A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.
B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.
C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.
D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.
47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?
A. a certification program
B. an associate’s degree
C. a bachelor’s degree
D. a graduate degree
48. How many names must a drug have?
A. at most three
B. at least three
C. at most five
D. at least five
49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?
Answer: Increasing the cost of capital
50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.
A. three
B. five
C. ten
D. fifteen
51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?
A. DEA
B. FTC
C. OIG
D.TSA
52. What is passive diffusion?
A. a type of pinocytosis
B. membrane transport via vesicles
C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one
D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one
53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?
A. active drugs and active placebos
B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals
C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals
D. prescription and non prescription
54. Answer: Oxytocin
55. What are all metabolites?
A. active substances
B. inactive substances
C. injections
D. products of metabolism
56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?
A. intestine
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. stomach
57. What is the medical term for swelling?
A. assay
B. edema
C. instillation
D. protease
58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?
A. be a consultant. not a rep
B. identify what your product does
C. reflect
D. visualize the power of 10
59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?
A. abstract
B. findings
C. letter to the editor
D . methods
60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?
A. animal lung extract
B. germicides
C. sympathomimetic drugs
D. theophylline
61. What does parenteral mean?
A. child prescriptions
B. injection
C. oral
D. tablet
62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?
A. adjuvant
B. indicated
C. ligase
D peptide
63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?
A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.
B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.
C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.
D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.
64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?
A. active transport
B. homeostasis
C. passive diffusion
D. pinocytosis
65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?
A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.
B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.
C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.
D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.
66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?
A. anatomy
B. antology
C. clinical pharmacology
D. pathology
67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?
A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable
B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality
C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices
D. that they receive too many drug samples
68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?
A. GPO
B. In-state wholesaler
C. PPO
D. RPO
69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?
A. large molecule
B. oligonucleotide
C. orgaanism
D. small molecule
70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?
A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.
B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.
C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.
D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.
71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?
A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products
B. repeating a question you already asked
C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room
D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.
72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?
A. dose-response relationship
B. margin of safety
C. the placebo effect
D. therapeutic window
73. What are excipients?
A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists
B. another term for generic equivalents
C. sites of action besides the target sites of action
D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation
74. What is another term for the AWP?
A. dock-to-dock price
B. float price
C. list price
D. non-stock price
75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?
A. to induce labor
B. to make the urine more alkaline
C. to supplement oral food intake
D. to treat hyperthyroidism
76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?
A. Canada
B. Japan
C. Spain
D. none of these
77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?
A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach
B. to minimize absorption by the intestine
C. to minimize nausea
D. to pass through the stomach more quickly
78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?
A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.
B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.
C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.
D. None of these
79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?
A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.
B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.
C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.
D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.
80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?
A. auscultation
B. cardioversion
C. catheterization
D. echocardiography
81. What do enteric coatings do?
A. facilitate vomiting
B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach
C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly
D. prevent dissolution in the stomach
82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 7 years
D. 15 years
83. What do National Account Managers do?
A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation
B. manage the FDA approval process
C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs
D. sell only to pharmacies
84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?
A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.
B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.
C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.
85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?
A. Phase I
B. Phase III
C Phase IV
D. Phase IX
86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?
A. preclinical
B. Phase I
C. Phase II
D. Phase III
87. How do antacids work?
A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach
B. by lowering gastric pH
C. by raising gastric pH
D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver
88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Caterers
B. Pharcists
C. receptionists
D. travel time
89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?
A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions
B. molecules stop moving
C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely
D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely
90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?
A. autologous antigens
B. liposomes
C. naked DNA
D. viruses
91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?
A. margin fee
B. recharge
C. standard fee
D. upcharge
92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?
A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.
B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.
C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.
D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.
93 What is clinical effect?
A. federally funded research condition
B. the effect of maximum dosage
C. the response produced by a medication
D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy
94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?
A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day
B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated
C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name
D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it
95. What is the average circulation time of blood?
A. about a minute
B. about 5 minutes
C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions
D. about 10 minutes
96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?
A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.
B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.
C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.
D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.
97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?
A. brokerages
B. buying clubs
C. manufacturers
D. physicians
98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?
A. a department in pharmaceutical companies
B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services
C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency
D an arm of the FDA
99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?
A. quantity of life over quality of life
B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used
C. the inferiority of OTC drugs
D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life
100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the Food and Drug Administration
C. the United States Adopted Name Council
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.
A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.
B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws
C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.
D. none of these
102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?
A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.
B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.
C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.
D. The drug must not be water-soluble.
103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?
A. clinical research organization
B. investigator
C. researcher
D. sponsor
104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.
A. chemical
B. generic
C. pharmaceutical
D. proprietary
105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?
A. acceptable if only the physician attends
B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100
C. acceptable if the total is under $100
D. unacceptable
106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.
A. experiment
B. legislation
C. process
D. research
107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?
A. caliber
B. chronicity
C. indication
D. toxicity
108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?
A. a weaker patients’ rights movement
B. lack of insurance coverage
C. less reliance on the Internet
D. proliferation of herbal remedies
109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?
A. diffusion
B. efficacy
C. protease
D. vector
110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?
A. Choice
B. cost
C. inquiries
D. safety
111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?
A. only if they are branded generics
B. only if they have been contested
C. always
D never
112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?
A. preclinical trials
B. Phase II trials
C. Phase III trials
D. Phase IV trials
113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?
A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.
B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.
C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.
D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.
114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?
A. potentiation
B. ischemia
C. TID
D. titration
115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?
A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies
B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments
C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising
D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing
116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?
A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin
B. lymphatic tissue
C. muscle tissue
D. the stomach, via a special type of needle
117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?
A. adverse effects
B. mechanism of action
C. pharmacokinetics
D. the proprietary name and the established name
118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?
A. pharmacodynamics
B. pharmacogenetics
C. pharmacogenomics
D. pharmacokinetics
119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the
A. closing of the sale
B. first time advantage
C. likeability factor
D. power of knowledge
120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?
A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.
B It inhibits the production of viruses.
C. It prevents proper DNA replication.
D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells
121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?
A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.
B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.
C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.
D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.
122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?
A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.
B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.
C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.
D. all of these
123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?
A. decrease risk of infection
B. increase risk of infection
C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies
D. treat psoriasis
124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?
A. antineoplastics
B. cardiovascular agents
C. CNS agents
D. mitotic inhibitors
125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?
A. en vivo
B. ex vitro
C. ex vivo
D. intra vivo
126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?
A. $5-10 billion
B. $40-50 billion
C. $800-900 billion
D.$ 2-5 trillion
128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?
A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.
B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.
C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.
D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.
129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?
A. cell tolerance
B. cross-tolerance
C. indicated tolerance
D. minimized tolerance
130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.
A. ten
B. fifteen
C. twenty
D. thirty
131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?
A. only under the branded generic name
B. only under the generic name
C. only under the original trade name
D. under the original trade name or a generic name
132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?
A. It causes no serious adverse effects.
B. It causes no side effects.
C. It has an active placebo.
D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.
133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?
A. doctors
B. lawyers and office managers
C. pharmaceutical companies
D. sales representatives
134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is
A. alternative licensure
B. equivalence practice
C. necessitated substitution
D. pharmaceutical substitution
135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?
A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.
B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.
C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?
A. DE
B. ED
C. EFD
D. eff D
137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?
A. to assess patients’ expectations
B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness
C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff
D. to assess the subjects’ demographics
138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?
A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.
B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.
C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.
D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.
140. Where are most drugs metabolized?
A. interstitial spaces
B. liver
C. stomach
D . the bloodstream
141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?
A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.
B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.
C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.
D. all of these
142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?
A. Dear Personnel Department.
B. Dear Sir or Madam,
C. Dear Sir
D.To Whom It May Concern.
143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. asking for feedback
B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products
C. keeping your market share goals the same each term
D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals
144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?
A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat
B. the drug’s active metabolites
C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage
D. the drug’s usual dosage range
145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?
A. conditioning
B. deciling
C. detailing
D. private labeling
146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?
A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.
B. It is a new drug.
C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.
D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.
147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient.
A. binders
B. disintegrants
C. dispersing agents
D. lubricants
148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do?
A. It educates patients on their treatment options.
B. It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.
C. It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in doctors’ offices.
D. It limits sales representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.
149. What are the components of the central nervous system?
A. the brain and sense organs
B. the brain and spinal cord
C. the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system
D. the spinal cord and sense organs
150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition?
A. cytology
B. discovery
C. etiology
D. pathology
151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes…
A. …do not produce enough insulin because they do not have enough B cells.
B. …have an autoimmune disease.
C. …produce enough insulin. but it is not as effective.
D. …rely on insulin from porcine sources.
152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?
A. disease state ads
B. branded billboards and disease state ads
C. branded highway billboards
D. branded radio ads
153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?
A. Psychologists are more concerned with subconscious memories than conscious ones.
B. Psychologists deal more with emotional than physical issues.
C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues than emotional ones.
D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.
154. What are PBMs?
A. governmental organizations that provide healthcare
B. organizations that design marketing campaigns
C. organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers
D. organizations that write FDA new drug applications
155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?
A. by limiting the competition
B. by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market
C. by providing a 30-month cooling off period
D. by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an ANDA
156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while minimizing adverse or side effects?
A.homeostatic maximization
B.steady state administration
C.Sustained release
D.Titration
157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?
A. absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion
B. dose-response effects
C. the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction
D. the way the human body deals with a drug after it has been administered
158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers?
A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the liver.
C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.
D. Substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
159. What is a behind-the-counter drug?
A. an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist
B. another term for a generic prescription drug
C. another term for a prescription drug
D. another term for an OTC drug
160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians?
A. at nearly any stage of the product’s life cycle
B. only after the district’s sales representatives
C. only prior to launch
D. MSLs do not meet with physicians.
NAPSRx Final Exam
NAPSRx Final Exam
1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?
A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action
B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects
C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects
D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness
2. Bone marrow transplants…
A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.
B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.
C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.
D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.
3. What does AMA stand for?
A. American Medical Academy
B. American Medical Accreditation
C. American Medical Association
D. Association of Medical Assistants
4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?
A. adverse reactions
B. contraindications
C. overdosage
D. warning/precautions
5 What is tertiary care?
A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect
B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems
C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility
D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?
A. brand personality
B. brand positoning
C. brand quality
D. brand values
7 What are vasodilators used to do?
A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow
B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system
C. narrow the blood vessels
D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster
8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?
A. homeostasis
B. steady state
C. titration
D. tolerance
9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?
A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.
B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.
C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.
D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.
10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?
A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies
B. the NIH
C. the U.S. Government
D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies
11. How are most drugs excreted?
A. via the bloodstream
B. via the heart
C. via the kidneys
D. via the skin
12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?
A. Limitations have decreased.
B. Limitations have increased significantly.
C. Limitations have increased slightly.
D. Limitations have remained about the same.
13. Answer: Branding name
14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?
A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.
B. Both drugs are generics.
C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.
D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.
15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?
A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs
B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives
C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives
D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives
16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:
A. MS
B. OH
C. SM
D. SS
17 What is an internist?
A. a physician who practices internal medicine
B. a physician’s intern
C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy
D. an internal sales representative
18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?
A. erythrocytes
B. insulin
C. Lymphocytes
D.HCs
19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?
A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry
B. to become more familiar with their territories
C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.
D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.
20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?
A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.
B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.
C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.
D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.
21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?
A. about 20%
B. about 60%
C. about 70%
D. about 95%
22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?
A. by borrowing them from hospitals
B. by ordering them over the Internet
C. by trading them for services
D. directly from sales representatives
23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?
A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.
B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.
C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.
D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.
24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?
A. cardiology
B. psychiatry
C. urology
D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.
25. What affects the rate of active transport?
A. the availability of carriers. but not energy
B. the availability of energy. but not carriers
C. the availability of carriers and energy
D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy
26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?
A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.
B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing
C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality
D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.
27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?
A. patients liking their providers
B. patients using only one pharmacist
C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs
D. support groups
28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the drug’s manufacturer
C. the FDA
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?
A. multipotent
B. pluripotent
C. totipotent
D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.
30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.
D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.
31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?
A. cardiac and smooth
B. only skeletal
C. skeletal and cardiac
D. skeletal and smooth
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?
A. the cardiovascular system
B. the cellular system
C. the gastrointestinal system
D. the musculoskeletal system
33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?
A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues
B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence
C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues
D. through genetic mutation
34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?
A. AMA guide
B. Blue Book
C. FDA drug list
D. Orange Book
35. What does subcutaneous mean?
A. beneath the intervention
B. beneath the muscle tissue
C. beneath the outer skin
D. beneath the suture
36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?
A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet
B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet
C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet
D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way
37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.
A. pharmaceutical
B. positive
C. potent
D. primary
39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?
A. distributors and supply chains
B. pharmacists and NAMs
C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors
D. retailers and institutions
40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?
A. contraindicative indication
B. off-indication usage
C or D. off-label
41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?
A. KN
B. PC
C. PK
D. pT
42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.
B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.
C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.
D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.
44. What entity grants drug patents?
A. the FDA
B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription
C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter
D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office
45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?
A. formulation
B. mycoplasma
C. peptide
D. saccharide
46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?
A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.
B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.
C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.
D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.
47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?
A. a certification program
B. an associate’s degree
C. a bachelor’s degree
D. a graduate degree
48. How many names must a drug have?
A. at most three
B. at least three
C. at most five
D. at least five
49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?
Answer: Increasing the cost of capital
50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.
A. three
B. five
C. ten
D. fifteen
51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?
A. DEA
B. FTC
C. OIG
D.TSA
52. What is passive diffusion?
A. a type of pinocytosis
B. membrane transport via vesicles
C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one
D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one
53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?
A. active drugs and active placebos
B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals
C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals
D. prescription and non prescription
54. Answer: Oxytocin
55. What are all metabolites?
A. active substances
B. inactive substances
C. injections
D. products of metabolism
56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?
A. intestine
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. stomach
57. What is the medical term for swelling?
A. assay
B. edema
C. instillation
D. protease
58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?
A. be a consultant. not a rep
B. identify what your product does
C. reflect
D. visualize the power of 10
59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?
A. abstract
B. findings
C. letter to the editor
D . methods
60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?
A. animal lung extract
B. germicides
C. sympathomimetic drugs
D. theophylline
61. What does parenteral mean?
A. child prescriptions
B. injection
C. oral
D. tablet
62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?
A. adjuvant
B. indicated
C. ligase
D peptide
63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?
A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.
B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.
C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.
D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.
64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?
A. active transport
B. homeostasis
C. passive diffusion
D. pinocytosis
65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?
A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.
B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.
C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.
D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.
66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?
A. anatomy
B. antology
C. clinical pharmacology
D. pathology
67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?
A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable
B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality
C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices
D. that they receive too many drug samples
68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?
A. GPO
B. In-state wholesaler
C. PPO
D. RPO
69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?
A. large molecule
B. oligonucleotide
C. orgaanism
D. small molecule
70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?
A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.
B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.
C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.
D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.
71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?
A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products
B. repeating a question you already asked
C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room
D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.
72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?
A. dose-response relationship
B. margin of safety
C. the placebo effect
D. therapeutic window
73. What are excipients?
A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists
B. another term for generic equivalents
C. sites of action besides the target sites of action
D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation
74. What is another term for the AWP?
A. dock-to-dock price
B. float price
C. list price
D. non-stock price
75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?
A. to induce labor
B. to make the urine more alkaline
C. to supplement oral food intake
D. to treat hyperthyroidism
76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?
A. Canada
B. Japan
C. Spain
D. none of these
77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?
A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach
B. to minimize absorption by the intestine
C. to minimize nausea
D. to pass through the stomach more quickly
78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?
A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.
B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.
C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.
D. None of these
79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?
A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.
B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.
C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.
D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.
80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?
A. auscultation
B. cardioversion
C. catheterization
D. echocardiography
81. What do enteric coatings do?
A. facilitate vomiting
B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach
C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly
D. prevent dissolution in the stomach
82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 7 years
D. 15 years
83. What do National Account Managers do?
A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation
B. manage the FDA approval process
C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs
D. sell only to pharmacies
84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?
A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.
B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.
C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.
85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?
A. Phase I
B. Phase III
C Phase IV
D. Phase IX
86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?
A. preclinical
B. Phase I
C. Phase II
D. Phase III
87. How do antacids work?
A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach
B. by lowering gastric pH
C. by raising gastric pH
D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver
88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Caterers
B. Pharcists
C. receptionists
D. travel time
89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?
A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions
B. molecules stop moving
C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely
D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely
90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?
A. autologous antigens
B. liposomes
C. naked DNA
D. viruses
91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?
A. margin fee
B. recharge
C. standard fee
D. upcharge
92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?
A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.
B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.
C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.
D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.
93 What is clinical effect?
A. federally funded research condition
B. the effect of maximum dosage
C. the response produced by a medication
D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy
94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?
A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day
B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated
C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name
D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it
95. What is the average circulation time of blood?
A. about a minute
B. about 5 minutes
C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions
D. about 10 minutes
96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?
A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.
B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.
C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.
D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.
97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?
A. brokerages
B. buying clubs
C. manufacturers
D. physicians
98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?
A. a department in pharmaceutical companies
B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services
C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency
D an arm of the FDA
99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?
A. quantity of life over quality of life
B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used
C. the inferiority of OTC drugs
D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life
100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the Food and Drug Administration
C. the United States Adopted Name Council
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.
A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.
B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws
C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.
D. none of these
102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?
A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.
B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.
C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.
D. The drug must not be water-soluble.
103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?
A. clinical research organization
B. investigator
C. researcher
D. sponsor
104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.
A. chemical
B. generic
C. pharmaceutical
D. proprietary
105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?
A. acceptable if only the physician attends
B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100
C. acceptable if the total is under $100
D. unacceptable
106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.
A. experiment
B. legislation
C. process
D. research
107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?
A. caliber
B. chronicity
C. indication
D. toxicity
108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?
A. a weaker patients’ rights movement
B. lack of insurance coverage
C. less reliance on the Internet
D. proliferation of herbal remedies
109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?
A. diffusion
B. efficacy
C. protease
D. vector
110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?
A. Choice
B. cost
C. inquiries
D. safety
111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?
A. only if they are branded generics
B. only if they have been contested
C. always
D never
112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?
A. preclinical trials
B. Phase II trials
C. Phase III trials
D. Phase IV trials
113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?
A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.
B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.
C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.
D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.
114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?
A. potentiation
B. ischemia
C. TID
D. titration
115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?
A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies
B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments
C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising
D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing
116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?
A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin
B. lymphatic tissue
C. muscle tissue
D. the stomach, via a special type of needle
117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?
A. adverse effects
B. mechanism of action
C. pharmacokinetics
D. the proprietary name and the established name
118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?
A. pharmacodynamics
B. pharmacogenetics
C. pharmacogenomics
D. pharmacokinetics
119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the
A. closing of the sale
B. first time advantage
C. likeability factor
D. power of knowledge
120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?
A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.
B It inhibits the production of viruses.
C. It prevents proper DNA replication.
D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells
121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?
A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.
B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.
C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.
D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.
122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?
A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.
B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.
C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.
D. all of these
123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?
A. decrease risk of infection
B. increase risk of infection
C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies
D. treat psoriasis
124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?
A. antineoplastics
B. cardiovascular agents
C. CNS agents
D. mitotic inhibitors
125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?
A. en vivo
B. ex vitro
C. ex vivo
D. intra vivo
126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?
A. $5-10 billion
B. $40-50 billion
C. $800-900 billion
D.$ 2-5 trillion
128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?
A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.
B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.
C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.
D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.
129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?
A. cell tolerance
B. cross-tolerance
C. indicated tolerance
D. minimized tolerance
130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.
A. ten
B. fifteen
C. twenty
D. thirty
131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?
A. only under the branded generic name
B. only under the generic name
C. only under the original trade name
D. under the original trade name or a generic name
132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?
A. It causes no serious adverse effects.
B. It causes no side effects.
C. It has an active placebo.
D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.
133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?
A. doctors
B. lawyers and office managers
C. pharmaceutical companies
D. sales representatives
134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is
A. alternative licensure
B. equivalence practice
C. necessitated substitution
D. pharmaceutical substitution
135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?
A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.
B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.
C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?
A. DE
B. ED
C. EFD
D. eff D
137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?
A. to assess patients’ expectations
B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness
C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff
D. to assess the subjects’ demographics
138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?
A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.
B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.
C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.
D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.
140. Where are most drugs metabolized?
A. interstitial spaces
B. liver
C. stomach
D . the bloodstream
141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?
A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.
B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.
C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.
D. all of these
142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?
A. Dear Personnel Department.
B. Dear Sir or Madam,
C. Dear Sir
D.To Whom It May Concern.
143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. asking for feedback
B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products
C. keeping your market share goals the same each term
D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals
144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?
A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat
B. the drug’s active metabolites
C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage
D. the drug’s usual dosage range
145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?
A. conditioning
B. deciling
C. detailing
D. private labeling
146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?
A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.
B. It is a new drug.
C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.
D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.
147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient.
A. binders
B. disintegrants
C. dispersing agents
D. lubricants
148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do?
A. It educates patients on their treatment options.
B. It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.
C. It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in doctors’ offices.
D. It limits sales representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.
149. What are the components of the central nervous system?
A. the brain and sense organs
B. the brain and spinal cord
C. the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system
D. the spinal cord and sense organs
150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition?
A. cytology
B. discovery
C. etiology
D. pathology
151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes…
A. …do not produce enough insulin because they do not have enough B cells.
B. …have an autoimmune disease.
C. …produce enough insulin. but it is not as effective.
D. …rely on insulin from porcine sources.
152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?
A. disease state ads
B. branded billboards and disease state ads
C. branded highway billboards
D. branded radio ads
153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?
A. Psychologists are more concerned with subconscious memories than conscious ones.
B. Psychologists deal more with emotional than physical issues.
C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues than emotional ones.
D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.
154. What are PBMs?
A. governmental organizations that provide healthcare
B. organizations that design marketing campaigns
C. organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers
D. organizations that write FDA new drug applications
155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?
A. by limiting the competition
B. by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market
C. by providing a 30-month cooling off period
D. by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an ANDA
156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while minimizing adverse or side effects?
A.homeostatic maximization
B.steady state administration
C.Sustained release
D.Titration
157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?
A. absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion
B. dose-response effects
C. the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction
D. the way the human body deals with a drug after it has been administered
158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers?
A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the liver.
C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.
D. Substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
159. What is a behind-the-counter drug?
A. an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist
B. another term for a generic prescription drug
C. another term for a prescription drug
D. another term for an OTC drug
160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians?
A. at nearly any stage of the product’s life cycle
B. only after the district’s sales representatives
C. only prior to launch
D. MSLs do not meet with physicians.
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
a. K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
a. Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
a. Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
A. Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
a. Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
a. The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
a. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
a. 1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
a. Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
a. Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
a. United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
a. Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
a. Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
a. Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
a. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
a. Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes.Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:
a. Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
a. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
a. Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
a. Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
a. Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
a. Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
a. Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
a. Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
a. Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
a. Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
a. Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
a. Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
Question 1
1. A process-oriented definition of “democracy” emphasizes
equality of result.
the ways in which government works,
that everyone is equal.
the ambiguity of the term “democracy.”
1 points
Question 2
1. Benchmarking performance improvement programs means
targeted specific programs or functions.
achieved some dramatic results.
attempted to combine reduction of costs with increases in quality and timeliness.
using standards and points of comparisons
1 points
Question 3
1. The idea of equality in American democratic thought generally refers to
equality of talent and ability.
equality of material possessions as an ideal.
an equal claim to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
the idea that the integrity of the individual is of supreme importance.
1 points
Question 4
1. The unusual visibility of the public administrator
is rooted in the public purposes that are pursued.
is rooted in the tendency toward corruption.
is similar to the business administrator’s visibility.
does not affect efficiency and responsiveness issues.
1 points
Question 5
1. Which of the following is NOT a principle of New Public Management?
organizations need to be mission-driven
organizations need to be incentive-based.
organizations need to be centralized.
organizations need to be responsive inter-organizational networks
1 points
Question 6
1. In a democratic society, which is NOT a characteristic of pluralistic decision making?
is a common feature of government.
involves the participation by many groups and officials in governmental decisions.
is a distinguishing feature that differentiates public and business administration.
reduces the accountability of public officials
1 points
Question 7
1. The Office of Management and Budget is
a feature of each state’s budget-making apparatus.
concerned solely with evaluation of the fiscal efficiency of management practices.
located in the Congress as an advisory body.
the White House office charged with the actual preparation of the executive budget proposal that is conveyed to Congress.
1 points
Question 8
1. An example of “clientele support” is
the American Association of Retired Persons’ lobbying of Congress in support of Social Security Administration budgets.
when the supervisors of the budget officer support that person.
the National Rifle Association’s lobbying of Congress in support of better urban transportation systems.
When the budget officer enjoys the support of the chief executive.
1 points
Question 9
1. As a management tool, the budget steps include
proposal, amendment, passage.
incremental, rational, bargained agreements.
budget formation, approval, execution, and audit.
committee hearings, mark-up, and report of budgets.
1 points
Question 10
1. Fiscal policy is concerned principally with
the amount of money in circulation in the economy.
funding of government programs.
the impact of government taxation and expenditures of the economy.
the business cycle.
1 points
Question 11
1. A grant by the federal government to a state or locality may be in the form of a block grant, which is
funding provided for a specific purpose or project.
for any purpose officials may select (within the law).
funding provided for a general program or functional area.
funding for a specific city block or neighborhood.
1 points
Question 12
1. About half of all local government revenue is obtained from the ______.
property tax
income tax
sales tax
payroll tax
1 points
Question 13
1. Internal sources of bureaucratic power include
clientele groups.
information and expertise.
vague legislative enactments.
power-hungry administrators.
1 points
Question 14
1. The writing of vague policy and law by the Congress implies what for government agencies?
Highly restricted agency action.
The lack of administrative discretion.
A highly accountable government agency.
An opportunity for government agencies to shape policy through implementation.
1 points
Question 15
1. The strong mayor system of city government
is rarely used in larger American cities.
provides for the mayor to have a great deal of administrative and budgetary authority.
is most common in small mid-western towns.
does not give city councils policymaking authority
1 points
Question 16
1. Inputs into the systems model of politics and policy include
Laws, regulations, and decisions.
Election results, public opinion, communication to elected officials, and personal experiences of decision makers.
Rules developed by administrative agencies.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 17
1. Any issue, problem or idea that could be considered in the policy process that does not fall outside various social and political norms in a particular society is found on the
agenda universe.
systemic agenda.
institutional agenda.
decision agenda.
1 points
Question 18
1. Public agencies
write public policy proposals.
do not provide testimony in support of policy proposals.
have no role in formulating public policy.
are not involved in the policy process
1 points
Question 19
1. Public policies are
the laws.
made only in Congress.
never made by public administrators.
authoritative statements by legitimate governmental actors about public problems.
1 points
Question 20
1. Viewing public service in an ethical dimension involves recognition that actions taken by public administrators to carry out public policy
include an effort to discover or clarify the public interest.
are always subject to examination by legislators.
will always involve moral dilemmas.
are amoral, since they involve power.
1 points
Question 21
1. The Pendleton Act of 1883 prohibited
active participation in political campaigns by federal employees.
political contributions by any federal employee.
state employees from engaging in election campaign work.
federal employees from serving as delegates to a party convention.
1 points
Question 22
1. The tension between efficiency and responsiveness is rooted in
issues of effectiveness versus equity.
issues of bureaucracy versus democracy.
responsibility and irresponsibility.
federalism
1 points
Question 23
1. The idea that a bureaucracy of professionals, who follow the mandates of a legislature, can meet the administrative requirements of a democracy is called the doctrine of
hierarchical organization.
the spoils system.
neutral competency.
the iron law of oligarchy.
1 points
Question 24
1. When the administrator attempts to make a judgment concerning the desires of the public with respect to his/her tasks, this is an example of_____.
objective responsibility
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 25
1. A way of insuring administrative responsiveness that focuses on strict legislative supervision and tightly drawn statutes is ______.
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
objective responsibility
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 26
1. The cost-effectiveness approach involves
a focus on identifying the impacts of alternative proposals.
translating “effective” approaches into their dollar values.
avoiding the use of dollar values in assessing either the effectiveness or costs associated with a proposal.
identifying the critical path in a project.
1 points
Question 27
1. A common limitation of quantitative techniques for selecting a policy alternative is
the difficulty of assigning dollar value to such variables as pain, suffering, and lives saved.
the inability to take account of the effects of inflation.
lack of access to computers.
the lack of quantitative methods
1 points
Question 28
1. In the effort to contract out governmental activities
non-governmental organizations have taken on governmental roles.
no new ethical questions concerning the motives of service-providers are raised.
existing mechanisms for control and accountability will continue to work well.
little challenge to issues of democratic values is involved.
1 points
Question 29
1. Which of the following is NOT a problem faced by researchers involved in the conduct of a true experiment in a social program?
identifying the treatment or intervention
difficulty in establishing two comparable groups, one experimental, the other a control group.
ethical concern for the fate of participants in the experimental group.
establishing randomness in assignment of persons to the experimental or control group.
1 points
Question 30
1. In an experiment, the control group is
the recipient of intervention or treatment.
unnecessary.
unknown to the experimenter.
not the recipient of intervention or treatment.
1 points
Question 31
1. Someone studying the number of lives saved as a result of the national government’s automobile safety regulations would conduct
an outcomes evaluation.
a process evaluation.
an experiment.
intensive interviews.
1 points
Question 32
1. The compilation of all federal rules currently in effect is:
Code of Federal Regulations
U.S. Code
Federal Register
U.S. Code Annotated
1 points
Question 33
1. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that local zoning regulations are constitutional if:
They bear a rational relation to the health and safety of the community
They are uniformly applied throughout the state
They do not restrict commercial development
Owners are paid fair market value compensation if the uses of their property are restricted
1 points
Question 34
1. Which of the following most accurately describes how to read a statute:
All relevant statutory provisions will be collected into a single section
Although there may be multiple publications containing statutes only the official publication will always be up to date
Internet versions are always more reliable than the print versions
Both print and Internet versions should be checked for later changes
1 points
Question 35
1. On what basis did the U.S. Supreme Court find that the Equal Protection Clause applied to the federal government?
The express terms of the Constitution
Combined with due process it is part of basic fairness
The Ninth Amendment
The Sixth Amendment
1 points
Question 36
1. To what extent must criminal trials be open to the public?
They may be closed only to protect a compelling governmental interest in a manner narrowly tailored to that purpose
They may never be closed
They may be closed at the judge’s discretion
They may be closed except for a right of press access
1 points
Question 37
1. Corpus Juris Secundum is:
A legal encyclopedia with broad coverage of most legal subjects
An Internet update service
The principle that an opinion should be followed unless the law has changed
The principle that statutes should always be double-checked
1 points
Question 38
1. An agency rule that explains an agency’s understanding of the law or its regulations is known as:
Substantive
Interpretive
Procedural
Appellate
1 points
Question 39
1. POSDCORB
is an acronym developed by Woodrow Wilson
refers to the functions of public management.
refers to the functions of the post office.
is a type of organizational structure
1 points
Question 40
1. Arbitration in labor-management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 41
1. Mediation in labor management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 42
1. In recent years state and local merit systems in the personnel function
have contracted as a result of due process requirements based on court decisions.
have become weaker as a result of pressure from the federal government.
have been strengthened as a result of expanding public employee due process protection provided by courts.
have been dominated by political party machines.
1 points
Question 43
1. The Pendleton Act provided for
establishment of a Human Rights Commission.
mandated federal employee contributions to election campaigns.
merit-based selection of government employees.
the spoils system
1 points
Question 44
1. Employers are responsible for the acts of their employees’ negligence:
Only if the employee’s act was intentional
Only if the employer failed to give warnings of foreseeable harm
If the negligent act was within the scope of authority associated with the work
Only if the negligent act was not within the scope of authority associated with the work
1 points
Question 45
1. One of the main criticisms of globalization is that it
makes the powerful more powerful and wealthy.
actually makes everyone less well off.
outsources jobs from developing to developed countries.
prevents poorer countries from expanding their economies.
1 points
Question 46
1. Democratic peace theory asserts that
there is a connection between regime type and war.
the balance of power in the international system is predictive of conflict.
countries with stagnant economies are more likely to engage in war.
religious fundamentalism is an important factor behind conflict.
1 points
Question 47
1. A primary objective for both insurgency and guerilla warfare is to
defeat the enemy on the field of battle.
raise the costs of conflict as higher than any benefit to the attacker.
force the intervention of the UN to end the conflict.
use high-tech weapons against the attacker.
1 points
Question 48
1. International politics is an area in which vital decisions are made based on
understandings of cause and effect.
fear and misunderstanding.
political will.
moral guidance.
1 points
Question 49
1. The U.S. government wants China to allow its currency to increase in value in order to
raise the value of the U.S. dollar.
help moderate the American trade deficit with China.
lower American interest rates.
create competitive devaluation.
1 points
Question 50
1. The evolution of today’s international system has been dominated by
the expansion of colonialism.
the development of a system of sovereign states in Europe and its spread to the rest of the world.
the establishment of the United Nations and its growing influence.
the development of the Cold War in the twentieth century.
Walden NURS6501 Week 8
Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest
Question 1
A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as:
a. Visceral
b. Somatic
c. Parietal
d. Referred
Question 2
An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected?
a. Insufficient bile production
b. Gastric atrophy
c. Hypersecretion of stomach acid
d. Nutrient malabsorption
Question 3
In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:
a. acetaldehyde accumulation.
b. bile toxicity.
c. acidosis.
d. fatty infiltrations.
Question 4
Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?
a. Sinusoids
b. Bile ducts
c. Hepatic portal vein
d. Hepatic artery
Question 5
Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:
a. fat-soluble vitamins.
b. carbohydrates.
c. protein.
d. calcium and magnesium.
Question 6
A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding, hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Question 7
Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:
a. children have lower adipose reserves.
b. fluid reserves are lower in children.
c. children have a lower metabolic rate.
d. children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.
Question 8
A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:
a. Intussusception
b. A volvulus
c. A hernia
d. Adhesions
Question 9
A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:
a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells
c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis
d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow
Question 10
Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?
a. Right lower quadrant
b. Right upper quadrant
c. Epigastric
d. Suprapubic
Question 11
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Intestinal parasites
c. Ingestion of salty foods
d. Frequent use of antacids
Question 12
The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?
a. Fecal impaction
b. Pancreatic insufficiency
c. Hyperactive peristalsis
d. Ileal atresia
Question 13
The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:
a. Anemia
b. Aneurysm
c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen
d. Atherosclerosis
Question 14
The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.
a. rectal
b. duodenal
c. esophageal
d. intestinal
Question 15
A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:
a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux
Question 16
The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:
a. Constipation
b. Diarrhea
c. Vomiting
d. Heartburn
Question 17
A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his condition is:
a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Alcoholism
d. Drug overdose
Question 18
Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:
a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
c. impaired ammonia metabolism.
d. decreased cerebral blood flow.
Question 19
The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:
a. diverticulosis.
b. hemorrhoids.
c. esophageal varices.
d. cancer.
Question 20
A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:
a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility
b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea
c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility
d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility
Question 21
A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:
a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi
b. Gallbladder
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct
Question 22
A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:
a. Infective enteropathy
b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
c. Mucoviscidosis
d. Ileus
Question 23
For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?
a. Pyloric
b. Lower esophageal
c. Upper esophageal
d. Gastric
Question 24
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:
a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.
c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d. viral infection of the gallbladder.
Question 25
A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:
a. Prolapse
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusception
d. Imperforation
Question 26
A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.
a. Infectious
b. Cushing
c. Ischemic
d. Curling
Question 27
Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:
a. severity.
b. location of lesions.
c. patient’s age.
d. signs and symptoms.
Question 28
Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):
a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
c. Congenital anomaly
d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia
Question 29
The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:
a. Vomiting and distention
b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst
c. Dehydration and epigastric pain
d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding
Question 30
The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?
a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypobilirubinemia
d. Ascites
Question 31
A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.
a. Motility
b. Hypotonic
c. Secretory
d. Osmotic
Question 32
Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?
a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations
b. Abdominal pain
c. Malabsorption
d. Diarrhea
Question 33
A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:
a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastric cancer
d. Achalasia
Question 34
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:
a. alpha cells.
b. beta cells.
c. acinar cells.
d. islets of Langerhans.
Question 35
Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
a. K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
a. Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
a. Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
A. Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
a. Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
a. The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
a. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
a. 1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
a. Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
a. Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
a. United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
a. Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
a. Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
a. Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
a. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
a. Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes. Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender b
because:
Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes.Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:
Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
Question 1
1. A process-oriented definition of “democracy” emphasizes
equality of result.
the ways in which government works,
that everyone is equal.
the ambiguity of the term “democracy.”
1 points
Question 2
1. Benchmarking performance improvement programs means
targeted specific programs or functions.
achieved some dramatic results.
attempted to combine reduction of costs with increases in quality and timeliness.
using standards and points of comparisons
1 points
Question 3
1. The idea of equality in American democratic thought generally refers to
equality of talent and ability.
equality of material possessions as an ideal.
an equal claim to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
the idea that the integrity of the individual is of supreme importance.
1 points
Question 4
1. The unusual visibility of the public administrator
is rooted in the public purposes that are pursued.
is rooted in the tendency toward corruption.
is similar to the business administrator’s visibility.
does not affect efficiency and responsiveness issues.
1 points
Question 5
1. Which of the following is NOT a principle of New Public Management?
organizations need to be mission-driven
organizations need to be incentive-based.
organizations need to be centralized.
organizations need to be responsive inter-organizational networks
1 points
Question 6
1. In a democratic society, which is NOT a characteristic of pluralistic decision making?
is a common feature of government.
involves the participation by many groups and officials in governmental decisions.
is a distinguishing feature that differentiates public and business administration.
reduces the accountability of public officials
1 points
Question 7
1. The Office of Management and Budget is
a feature of each state’s budget-making apparatus.
concerned solely with evaluation of the fiscal efficiency of management practices.
located in the Congress as an advisory body.
the White House office charged with the actual preparation of the executive budget proposal that is conveyed to Congress.
1 points
Question 8
1. An example of “clientele support” is
the American Association of Retired Persons’ lobbying of Congress in support of Social Security Administration budgets.
when the supervisors of the budget officer support that person.
the National Rifle Association’s lobbying of Congress in support of better urban transportation systems.
When the budget officer enjoys the support of the chief executive.
1 points
Question 9
1. As a management tool, the budget steps include
proposal, amendment, passage.
incremental, rational, bargained agreements.
budget formation, approval, execution, and audit.
committee hearings, mark-up, and report of budgets.
1 points
Question 10
1. Fiscal policy is concerned principally with
the amount of money in circulation in the economy.
funding of government programs.
the impact of government taxation and expenditures of the economy.
the business cycle.
1 points
Question 11
1. A grant by the federal government to a state or locality may be in the form of a block grant, which is
funding provided for a specific purpose or project.
for any purpose officials may select (within the law).
funding provided for a general program or functional area.
funding for a specific city block or neighborhood.
1 points
Question 12
1. About half of all local government revenue is obtained from the ______.
property tax
income tax
sales tax
payroll tax
1 points
Question 13
1. Internal sources of bureaucratic power include
clientele groups.
information and expertise.
vague legislative enactments.
power-hungry administrators.
1 points
Question 14
1. The writing of vague policy and law by the Congress implies what for government agencies?
Highly restricted agency action.
The lack of administrative discretion.
A highly accountable government agency.
An opportunity for government agencies to shape policy through implementation.
1 points
Question 15
1. The strong mayor system of city government
is rarely used in larger American cities.
provides for the mayor to have a great deal of administrative and budgetary authority.
is most common in small mid-western towns.
does not give city councils policymaking authority
1 points
Question 16
1. Inputs into the systems model of politics and policy include
Laws, regulations, and decisions.
Election results, public opinion, communication to elected officials, and personal experiences of decision makers.
Rules developed by administrative agencies.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 17
1. Any issue, problem or idea that could be considered in the policy process that does not fall outside various social and political norms in a particular society is found on the
agenda universe.
systemic agenda.
institutional agenda.
decision agenda.
1 points
Question 18
1. Public agencies
write public policy proposals.
do not provide testimony in support of policy proposals.
have no role in formulating public policy.
are not involved in the policy process
1 points
Question 19
1. Public policies are
the laws.
made only in Congress.
never made by public administrators.
authoritative statements by legitimate governmental actors about public problems.
1 points
Question 20
1. Viewing public service in an ethical dimension involves recognition that actions taken by public administrators to carry out public policy
include an effort to discover or clarify the public interest.
are always subject to examination by legislators.
will always involve moral dilemmas.
are amoral, since they involve power.
1 points
Question 21
1. The Pendleton Act of 1883 prohibited
active participation in political campaigns by federal employees.
political contributions by any federal employee.
state employees from engaging in election campaign work.
federal employees from serving as delegates to a party convention.
1 points
Question 22
1. The tension between efficiency and responsiveness is rooted in
issues of effectiveness versus equity.
issues of bureaucracy versus democracy.
responsibility and irresponsibility.
federalism
1 points
Question 23
1. The idea that a bureaucracy of professionals, who follow the mandates of a legislature, can meet the administrative requirements of a democracy is called the doctrine of
hierarchical organization.
the spoils system.
neutral competency.
the iron law of oligarchy.
1 points
Question 24
1. When the administrator attempts to make a judgment concerning the desires of the public with respect to his/her tasks, this is an example of_____.
objective responsibility
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 25
1. A way of insuring administrative responsiveness that focuses on strict legislative supervision and tightly drawn statutes is ______.
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
objective responsibility
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 26
1. The cost-effectiveness approach involves
a focus on identifying the impacts of alternative proposals.
translating “effective” approaches into their dollar values.
avoiding the use of dollar values in assessing either the effectiveness or costs associated with a proposal.
identifying the critical path in a project.
1 points
Question 27
1. A common limitation of quantitative techniques for selecting a policy alternative is
the difficulty of assigning dollar value to such variables as pain, suffering, and lives saved.
the inability to take account of the effects of inflation.
lack of access to computers.
the lack of quantitative methods
1 points
Question 28
1. In the effort to contract out governmental activities
non-governmental organizations have taken on governmental roles.
no new ethical questions concerning the motives of service-providers are raised.
existing mechanisms for control and accountability will continue to work well.
little challenge to issues of democratic values is involved.
1 points
Question 29
1. Which of the following is NOT a problem faced by researchers involved in the conduct of a true experiment in a social program?
identifying the treatment or intervention
difficulty in establishing two comparable groups, one experimental, the other a control group.
ethical concern for the fate of participants in the experimental group.
establishing randomness in assignment of persons to the experimental or control group.
1 points
Question 30
1. In an experiment, the control group is
the recipient of intervention or treatment.
unnecessary.
unknown to the experimenter.
not the recipient of intervention or treatment.
1 points
Question 31
1. Someone studying the number of lives saved as a result of the national government’s automobile safety regulations would conduct
an outcomes evaluation.
a process evaluation.
an experiment.
intensive interviews.
1 points
Question 32
1. The compilation of all federal rules currently in effect is:
Code of Federal Regulations
U.S. Code
Federal Register
U.S. Code Annotated
1 points
Question 33
1. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that local zoning regulations are constitutional if:
They bear a rational relation to the health and safety of the community
They are uniformly applied throughout the state
They do not restrict commercial development
Owners are paid fair market value compensation if the uses of their property are restricted
1 points
Question 34
1. Which of the following most accurately describes how to read a statute:
All relevant statutory provisions will be collected into a single section
Although there may be multiple publications containing statutes only the official publication will always be up to date
Internet versions are always more reliable than the print versions
Both print and Internet versions should be checked for later changes
1 points
Question 35
1. On what basis did the U.S. Supreme Court find that the Equal Protection Clause applied to the federal government?
The express terms of the Constitution
Combined with due process it is part of basic fairness
The Ninth Amendment
The Sixth Amendment
1 points
Question 36
1. To what extent must criminal trials be open to the public?
They may be closed only to protect a compelling governmental interest in a manner narrowly tailored to that purpose
They may never be closed
They may be closed at the judge’s discretion
They may be closed except for a right of press access
1 points
Question 37
1. Corpus Juris Secundum is:
A legal encyclopedia with broad coverage of most legal subjects
An Internet update service
The principle that an opinion should be followed unless the law has changed
The principle that statutes should always be double-checked
1 points
Question 38
1. An agency rule that explains an agency’s understanding of the law or its regulations is known as:
Substantive
Interpretive
Procedural
Appellate
1 points
Question 39
1. POSDCORB
is an acronym developed by Woodrow Wilson
refers to the functions of public management.
refers to the functions of the post office.
is a type of organizational structure
1 points
Question 40
1. Arbitration in labor-management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 41
1. Mediation in labor management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 42
1. In recent years state and local merit systems in the personnel function
have contracted as a result of due process requirements based on court decisions.
have become weaker as a result of pressure from the federal government.
have been strengthened as a result of expanding public employee due process protection provided by courts.
have been dominated by political party machines.
1 points
Question 43
1. The Pendleton Act provided for
establishment of a Human Rights Commission.
mandated federal employee contributions to election campaigns.
merit-based selection of government employees.
the spoils system
1 points
Question 44
1. Employers are responsible for the acts of their employees’ negligence:
Only if the employee’s act was intentional
Only if the employer failed to give warnings of foreseeable harm
If the negligent act was within the scope of authority associated with the work
Only if the negligent act was not within the scope of authority associated with the work
1 points
Question 45
1. One of the main criticisms of globalization is that it
makes the powerful more powerful and wealthy.
actually makes everyone less well off.
outsources jobs from developing to developed countries.
prevents poorer countries from expanding their economies.
1 points
Question 46
1. Democratic peace theory asserts that
there is a connection between regime type and war.
the balance of power in the international system is predictive of conflict.
countries with stagnant economies are more likely to engage in war.
religious fundamentalism is an important factor behind conflict.
1 points
Question 47
1. A primary objective for both insurgency and guerilla warfare is to
defeat the enemy on the field of battle.
raise the costs of conflict as higher than any benefit to the attacker.
force the intervention of the UN to end the conflict.
use high-tech weapons against the attacker.
1 points
Question 48
1. International politics is an area in which vital decisions are made based on
understandings of cause and effect.
fear and misunderstanding.
political will.
moral guidance.
1 points
Question 49
1. The U.S. government wants China to allow its currency to increase in value in order to
raise the value of the U.S. dollar.
help moderate the American trade deficit with China.
lower American interest rates.
create competitive devaluation.
1 points
Question 50
1. The evolution of today’s international system has been dominated by
the expansion of colonialism.
the development of a system of sovereign states in Europe and its spread to the rest of the world.
the establishment of the United Nations and its growing influence.
the development of the Cold War in the twentieth century.
NURS6521 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
NURS6521 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1 A patient has been prescribed a Scheduled 5 drug, an example of this drug is A.Antianxiety
B.Narcotic Analgesics
C.Barbituates
D.Antitussives
Question 2 A nurse has just completed a medication history on a newly admitted patient. In order to complete medication reconciliation for this patient the nurse will
A.Provide instructions pertaining to each medication the patient is currently taking and thenadd the medications ordered during the hospitalization.
B.compare the medications ordered by the health care provider with the list of medicationsobtained from the patient and communicate discrepancies to the health care provider.
C.explain to the patient the pharmacokinetics of each drug he will be taking in the hospital. D.determine the best pharmacy for the patient to buy his medications
Question 3 A physician has ordered subcutaneous injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug and that it is categorized as a
C-I drug.
C-II drug.
C-III drug.
C-IV drug
Question 4 A nurse works in a private hospital and needs to administer some narcotic drugs to one of her patients. Which of the following should the nurse consider when administering narcotics to patients in a hospital setting?
Narcotics are banned in private settings and cannot be used.
Narcotics can be used in the hospital after obtaining written approval from the Joint Commission for Accreditation of Hospitals and Healthcare Organizations(JCAHO).
Narcotics to be used in the hospital are dispensed only with a written prescription.
Narcotics can be used in the hospital according to patient preferences
Question 5 Drugs have a valid medical use but a high potential for abuse, both psychological and physiologic. In an emergency, a Schedule 2 drug may be prescribed by telephone if a written prescription cannot be provided at the time. However, a written prescription must be provided within 72 hours with the words authorization for emergency dispensing written on the prescription. These prescriptions cannot be refilled. A new prescription must be written each time. Examples include certain amphetamines and barbiturates. This is scheduled drug
A.Schedule 1
B.Schedule 2
C.Schedule 3
D.Schedule 4
Question 6 A nurse receives an order to administer a critically ill patient two drugs immediately (stat). The nurse begins the process by
A.washing his or her hands before handling the medications.
B.consulting a drug guide for compatibility.
C.identifying the patient by checking the armband and asking the patient to state his name.
D.questioning the patient concerning allergies.
Question 7 A nurse working for a drug company is involved in phase III drug evaluation studies. Which of the following might the nurse be responsible for during this stage of drug development?
Working with animals who are given experimental drugs
Monitoring drug effects in patients who are selected to participate in a study, whohave the disease that the drug is meant to treat
Administering investigational drugs to patients
Informing healthy, young volunteer participants of possible risks that could occurfrom taking an experimental drug
Question 8 Federal legislation dictates a lengthy and rigorous process of testing for new drugs. What is the primary purpose of this testing process?
To protect state and federal departments from legal liability
To maximize autonomy and treatment options for citizens
To facilitate the efficiency of health care delivery
To ensure the safety of the public
Question 9 These drugs have a potential for abuse, but the potential is lower than for drugs on Schedule 2. These drugs contain a combination of controlled and noncontrolled substances. Use of these drugs can cause a moderate to low physiologic dependence and a higher psychological dependence. A verbal order can be given to the pharmacy and the prescription can be refilled up to five times within 6 months. Examples include certain narcotics (codeine) and nonbarbiturate sedatives. This is scheduled drug
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 5
Schedule 2
Question 10 Which of the following patients should be advised by the nurse to avoid over-the-counter cold and allergy preparations that contain phenylephrine?
A 47-year-old female with hypertension
A 52-year-old male with adult-onset diabetes
A 17-year-old female with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection
A 62-year-old male with gout
Question 11 Drugs have a high potential for abuse. There is no routine therapeutic use for these drugs and they are not available for regular use.They may be obtained for “investigational use only” by applying to the U.S. Drug Enforcement Agency. Examples include heroin and LSD. Which scheduled drug is this?
Schedule 1
Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Question 12 A patient has taken an overdose of a vitamin/mineral supplement containing magnesium. The nurse will be sure to assess
blood pressure.
body temperature.
fluid intake.
skin changes
Question 13 A nurse practitioner understands when prescribing a medication that there are certain questions to address. Check all that apply.
A.Is there a need for the drug in treating the presenting problem?
B.Is this the best drug for the presenting problem?
C.Can the patient take the prescribed drug?
None of the above
Question 14 A nurse is caring for a 46-year-old patient of Chinese origin who has bipolar disorder. The physician has prescribed lithium carbonate (Eskalith) to treat the disorder. The nurse is aware that the lithium dose will likely be given in a
higher-than-normal dose.
weight-based protocol dose.
lower-than-normal dose.
child’s dose
Question 15 The nurse practitioner orders Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 ml tid for 10 days? The nurse practitioner would expect the pharmacist to fill the prescription bottle with how many ml?
50 ml
100 ml
120 ml
150 ml
Question 16 A patient will begin three new medications as part of her treatment plan. The nurse practitioner understands that proper disposal of medications is key when the nurse practitioner states
Many medications can be potentially harmful if taken by someone other than the person the medication was prescribed.
Consult with several pharmacists to determine the cost of each drug.
educate the patient to discard syringes in recycle bin
consult with the physician concerning choice of medications for the patient.
Question 17 A nurse is providing a patient with a list of drugs as a part of the patient’s plan of care. Which of the following drug nomenclatures should the nurse use to list the drugs?
The drugs’ chemical names
The drugs’ generic names
The drugs’ trade names
The drugs’ biologic names
Question 18 A nurse is providing care for a 71-year-old woman who was sponsored to emigrate from Mexico to the United States 6 months ago. Earlier this week, the woman slipped while getting off a bus and fractured her hip. How should the woman’s nurse best exemplify cultural competence in the care of this patient?
Ensure that the woman receives care solely from Spanish-speaking caregivers.
Consider dimensions of the woman’s cultural background when planning care.
Integrate teaching about American culture when interacting with the patient.
Address the woman’s children first when explaining her care and changes in her health status.
Question 19 Which of the following serves to protect the public by ensuring the purity of a drug and its contents?
American Pharmaceutical Association
United States Adopted Names Council
Nursing drug guides
Federal legislation
Question 20 A nurse is admitting a Mexican woman to the hospital who cannot speak or understand English. The patient is alone, and there is no interpreter available. When trying to communicate with the patient the nurse will
Speak loudly
Exaggerate her mouth movements
Use nonverbal language
Speak fast
Question 21 A patient comes to primary clinic for strep throat. A throat swab culture is sent to lab. What information is required for the nurse practitioner to disclose on lab transmittal?
National Provider Identification (NPI)
B.Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
C.Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA)
D.None of the above
Question 22 A Native American man who lives a traditional lifestyle is scheduled to have heart surgery. The tribal chief has requested that the tribe’s medicine man perform a ritual before the patient goes to surgery. The nurse’s response to this request should be
“I’m sorry, but that will not be possible.”
“I will need to inform the doctor and see if he will allow this.”
“As long as the ritual does not interfere with the patient’s preoperative care, it will be okay.”
“I don’t think that will help, but you have the right to perform the ritual.”
Question 23 A patient with seasonal allergies is exasperated by her recent nasal congestion and has expressed her desire to treat it by using pseudoephedrine. The nurse should inform the patient that
under the Combat Methamphetamine Abuse Act, pseudoephedrine now requires a prescription.
drugs containing pseudoephedrine are available without a prescription but are kept off pharmacy shelves.
she must be prepared to show identification when buying a drug that contains pseudoephedrine.
pseudoephedrine is being phased out of the marketplace in order to combat illegal use.
Question 24 A 46-year-old white American has been prescribed a drug that binds to acid glycoproteins. The nurse understands that white Americans usually receive
a higher-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
a lower-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
the recommended normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
one half the recommended dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
Question 25 A nurse is a member of a research team that is exploring unique differences in responses to drugs that each individual possesses, based on genetic make-up. This area of study is called
pharmacotherapeutics.
pharmacodynamics.
pharmacoeconomics.
pharmacogenomics
NUR6550 Final Exam
NUR6550 Final Exam
The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?
Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?
Nephrotic syndrome
Decompensated congestive heart failure
Cirrhosis
Renal failure
Deep venous thrombosis
Late-stage pregnancy
All of the above
Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.
Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?
A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border
A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border
A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line
The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI.
True
False
Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:
Na 126 mEq/L
K 4.0 mEq/L
Cl 93 mEq/L
CO2 28 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Cr 1.3 mg/dL
Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
Symbol Unclassified
All of the above
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
Myocardial infarction
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Supraventricular tachycardia
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.)
ACE inhibitors
Induction if stable
Emergent cesarean section if unstable
Digoxin
Nitroglycerin
What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?
Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi
Acute pulmonary edema
Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.
True
False
A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?
Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)
Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )
Almotriptan (Axert ® )
Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )
You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:
Drug-related reaction.
Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.
Early sign of dementia.
Normal age-related change in hearing
While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism?
Nitrites
30 mg/dL protein
Epithelial cells
pH>8
All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:
Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.
Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.
Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.
Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.
A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?
Usually obliterates S2.
Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.
Occurs late in systole.
Has localized area of auscultation
You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
Pressure ulcer
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Venous ulcer
Arterial ulcer
You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:
Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.
Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.
Checking her blood pressure.
Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.
A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:
Migraine with aura.
Cluster headache.
Transient ischemic attack.
Tension-type headache.
You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:
Early systole.
Late systole.
Early diastole.
Late diastole.
32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:
Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel
When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:
The likelihood of polypharmacy.
Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.
An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.
Presence of comorbid conditions.
When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.
A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.
A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.
A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.
A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.
The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:
Duty of care.
Non-malfeasance.
Autonomy.
Scope of practice.
When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection?
A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI).
A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months.
A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.
A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.
The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary syphilis.
Secondary syphilis.
Genital herpes.
Gonorrhea.
A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:
Testicular torsion.
Syphilis.
Varicocele.
Testicular cancer.
An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):
Continuous pulse oximetry reading
Peak expiratory flow reading
Chest X-ray
Arterial Blood Gas
A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?
T wave inversion.
Pathologic Q wave.
ST segment elevation.
Tall R wave.
A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?
Sotalol (Betapace ® )
Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )
Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )
Enalapri
A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?
Occurs late in systole.
Widely split S?.
Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.
Murmur follows mid-systolic click.
You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Impetigo.
Herpes zoster.
Drug-related adverse reaction.
Viral exanthem.
An NP’s duty of care can be established:
Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).
When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.
Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.
Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.
In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?
Warfarin (Coumadin®)
Clopidogrel (Plavix®)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)
Unfractionated heparin
An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:
2 sets of blood cultures.
Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.
Urinalysis.
Lumbar puncture.
A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Neutrophilia with reactive forms.
Thrombocytosis.
Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.
Diminished ALT/AST levels.
“Incident-to” services are defined as those which are “an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness”. As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:
Office visits.
Hospital.
Nursing home.
Home visits.
A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?
≤ 6.5%
≤ 7.0%
≤ 8.0%
≤ 9.0%
You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:
Dementia.
Depression.
Delirium.
Drug interaction.
You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Alpha-adrenergic antagonist
Angiotensin receptor blocker
Beta-adrenergic antagonist
A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:
Parkinson’s disease.
Delirium.
Dementia.
Early stage of congestive heart failure.
Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:
1
2
3
4
Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?
A randomized controlled trial.
Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.
Observational study.
Cohort study.
A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:
-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL
-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)
-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL
-Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%)
These findings are most consistent with:
Iron deficiency anemia.
Anemia of chronic disease.
Folate deficiency anemia.
Thalassemia trait.
You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications?
Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )
Citalopram (Celexa ® )
Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )
Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )
All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:
A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.
A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.
A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident.
A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?
Sodium
Calcium
Potassium
Chloride
When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:
Testimony from a family member or close friend
A living will.
A “do not resuscitate” order.
A durable power of attorney for healthcare.
Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?
Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.
Non-randomized controlled study.
Observational study.
Case-control study.
Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium
Pathologic Q wave
Tall R wave
T wave inversion
ST segment elevation
Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?
A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions.
A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.
Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.
Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.
The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?
Oxygen therapy.
Beta-adrenergic blockade.
Tricyclic antidepressant.
Dietary reduction of amines.
All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:
The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.
The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.
Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.
A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
Medium-dose ICS
Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)
High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )
A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:
Serum uric acid.
Joint X-ray.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?
Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).
Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).
Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® )
Community Health Project
Review your state public health department and environmental quality departments online to identify vector-related diseases affecting your community.
In a report format of 1,250-1,500 words, address the following:
Describe the health concerns of the community.
Identify current environmental risk assessment methods which apply to public health issues.
Suggest a modifier or new prevention or intervention program based on your research.
Create a sample program budget.
Complete a SWOT analysis of the proposed program.
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
Community Health Project
Review your state public health department and environmental quality departments online to identify vector-related diseases affecting your community.
In a report format of 1,250-1,500 words, address the following:
Describe the health concerns of the community.
Identify current environmental risk assessment methods which apply to public health issues.
Suggest a modifier or new prevention or intervention program based on your research.
Create a sample program budget.
Complete a SWOT analysis of the proposed program.
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
NUR6550 Final Exam
NUR6550 Final Exam
The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?
Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?
Nephrotic syndrome
Decompensated congestive heart failure
Cirrhosis
Renal failure
Deep venous thrombosis
Late-stage pregnancy
All of the above
Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.
Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?
A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border
A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border
A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line
The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI.
True
False
Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:
Na 126 mEq/L
K 4.0 mEq/L
Cl 93 mEq/L
CO2 28 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Cr 1.3 mg/dL
Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
Symbol Unclassified
All of the above
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
Myocardial infarction
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Supraventricular tachycardia
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.)
ACE inhibitors
Induction if stable
Emergent cesarean section if unstable
Digoxin
Nitroglycerin
What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?
Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi
Acute pulmonary edema
Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.
True
False
A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?
Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)
Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )
Almotriptan (Axert ® )
Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )
You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:
Drug-related reaction.
Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.
Early sign of dementia.
Normal age-related change in hearing
While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism?
Nitrites
30 mg/dL protein
Epithelial cells
pH>8
All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:
Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.
Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.
Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.
Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.
A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?
Usually obliterates S2.
Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.
Occurs late in systole.
Has localized area of auscultation
You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
Pressure ulcer
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Venous ulcer
Arterial ulcer
You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:
Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.
Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.
Checking her blood pressure.
Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.
A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:
Migraine with aura.
Cluster headache.
Transient ischemic attack.
Tension-type headache.
You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:
Early systole.
Late systole.
Early diastole.
Late diastole.
32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:
Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel
When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:
The likelihood of polypharmacy.
Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.
An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.
Presence of comorbid conditions.
When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.
A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.
A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.
A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.
A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.
The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:
Duty of care.
Non-malfeasance.
Autonomy.
Scope of practice.
When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection?
A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI).
A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months.
A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.
A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.
The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary syphilis.
Secondary syphilis.
Genital herpes.
Gonorrhea.
A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:
Testicular torsion.
Syphilis.
Varicocele.
Testicular cancer.
An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):
Continuous pulse oximetry reading
Peak expiratory flow reading
Chest X-ray
Arterial Blood Gas
A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?
T wave inversion.
Pathologic Q wave.
ST segment elevation.
Tall R wave.
A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?
Sotalol (Betapace ® )
Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )
Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )
Enalapri
A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?
Occurs late in systole.
Widely split S?.
Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.
Murmur follows mid-systolic click.
You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Impetigo.
Herpes zoster.
Drug-related adverse reaction.
Viral exanthem.
An NP’s duty of care can be established:
Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).
When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.
Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.
Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.
In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?
Warfarin (Coumadin®)
Clopidogrel (Plavix®)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)
Unfractionated heparin
An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:
2 sets of blood cultures.
Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.
Urinalysis.
Lumbar puncture.
A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Neutrophilia with reactive forms.
Thrombocytosis.
Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.
Diminished ALT/AST levels.
“Incident-to” services are defined as those which are “an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness”. As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:
Office visits.
Hospital.
Nursing home.
Home visits.
A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?
≤ 6.5%
≤ 7.0%
≤ 8.0%
≤ 9.0%
You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:
Dementia.
Depression.
Delirium.
Drug interaction.
You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Alpha-adrenergic antagonist
Angiotensin receptor blocker
Beta-adrenergic antagonist
A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:
Parkinson’s disease.
Delirium.
Dementia.
Early stage of congestive heart failure.
Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:
1
2
3
4
Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?
A randomized controlled trial.
Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.
Observational study.
Cohort study.
A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:
-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL
-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)
-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL
-Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%)
These findings are most consistent with:
Iron deficiency anemia.
Anemia of chronic disease.
Folate deficiency anemia.
Thalassemia trait.
You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications?
Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )
Citalopram (Celexa ® )
Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )
Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )
All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:
A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.
A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.
A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident.
A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?
Sodium
Calcium
Potassium
Chloride
When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:
Testimony from a family member or close friend
A living will.
A “do not resuscitate” order.
A durable power of attorney for healthcare.
Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?
Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.
Non-randomized controlled study.
Observational study.
Case-control study.
Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium
Pathologic Q wave
Tall R wave
T wave inversion
ST segment elevation
Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?
A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions.
A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.
Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.
Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.
The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?
Oxygen therapy.
Beta-adrenergic blockade.
Tricyclic antidepressant.
Dietary reduction of amines.
All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:
The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.
The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.
Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.
A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
Medium-dose ICS
Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)
High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )
A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:
Serum uric acid.
Joint X-ray.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?
Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).
Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).
Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® )
NSG6420 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2017
NSG6420 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1. Which of the following best describes the pain associated with osteoarthritis?
Constant, burning, and throbbing with an acute onset
Dull and primarily affected by exposure to cold and barometric pressure
Begins upon arising and after prolonged weight bearing and/or use of the joint
Begins in the morning and limits continued ambulation
Question 2. Your 63-year-old Caucasian woman with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) will begin treatment with corticosteroids until the condition has resolved. You look over her records and it has been 2 years since her last physical examination and any laboratory or diagnostic tests as she relocated and had not yet identified a health-care provider. In prioritizing your management plan, your first orders should include:
Recommending she increase her dietary intake of Calcium and Vitamin D
Ordering once a year bisphosphonate and a proton pump inhibitor
Participate in a fall prevention program
Dual-energy X-ray (DEXA) scan and updating immunizations
Question 3. In providing health teaching related to dietary restrictions, the nurse practitioner should advise a patient with gout to avoid which of the following dietary items:
Green leafy vegetables
Beer, sausage, fried seafood
Sugar
Gluten and bread items
Question 4. A 33-year-old female reports general malaise, fatigue, stiffness, and pain in multiple joints of the body. There is no history of systemic disease and no history of trauma. On physical examination, the patient has no swelling or decreased range of motion in any of the joints. She indicates specific points on the neck and shoulders that are particularly affected. She complains of tenderness upon palpation of the neck, both shoulders, hips, and medial regions of the knees. The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential diagnoses:
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Fibromyalgia
Polymyalgia rheumatica
Question 5. A 46-year-old female complains of fatigue, general malaise, and pain and swelling in her hands that has gradually worsened over the last few weeks. She reports that pain, stiffness, and swelling of her hands are most severe in the morning. On physical examination, you note swelling of the metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally. These are common signs of:
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Scleroderma
Sarcoidosis
Question 6. Which of the following statements about osteoarthritis is true?
It affects primarily weight-bearing joints
It is a systemic inflammatory illness
The metacarpal phalangeal joints are commonly involved
Prolonged morning stiffness is common
Question 7. The most appropriate first-line treatment for an acute gout flare is (assuming no kidney disease or elevated bleeding risk):
Indomethacin 50 mg thrice daily for 2 days; then 25 mg thrice daily for 3 days
Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 5 days
Prednisolone 35 mg four times a day for 5 days
Ice therapy
Question 8. A 34-year-old female presents with fever, general malaise, fatigue, arthralgias and rash for the last 2 weeks. On physical examination, you note facial erythema across the nose and cheeks. Serum diagnostic tests reveal positive antinuclear antibodies, anti-DNA antibodies, elevated C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential problems:
Fibromyalgia
Sarcoidosis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Rheumatoid arthritis
Question 9. Your 66-year-old male patient has recently started treatment for metabolic syndrome and is currently taking the following medications: an ACE inhibitor and beta blocker for treatment of hypertension. He is also taking a statin medication, simvastatin for hyperlipidemia, and a biguanide, metformin, for type 2 diabetes. The patient complains of myalgias of the legs bilaterally and blood work shows elevated serum creatine kinase. Which of the medications can cause such a side effect?
Beta blocker
ACE inhibitor
Statin medication
Metformin
Question 10. A 20-year-old male construction worker is experiencing new onset of knee pain. He complains of right knee pain when kneeling, squatting, or walking up and down stairs. On physical examination, there is swelling and crepitus of the right knee and obvious pain with resisted range of motion of the knee. He is unable to squat due to pain. Which of the following disorders should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
Joint infection
Chondromalacia patella
Prepatellar bursitis
All of the above
Question 11. A 17-year-old male complains of severe right knee pain. He was playing football when he heard a “pop” at the moment of being tackled and his knee “gave away” from under him. On physical examination, there is right knee swelling and decreased range of motion. There is a positive anterior drawer sign. These findings indicate:
Knee ligament injury
Osgood-Schlatter disease
Prepatellar bursitis
Chondromalacia patella
Question 12. A 55-year-old patient complains of lower back pain due to heavy lifting at work yesterday. He reports weakness of the left leg and paresthesias in the left foot. On physical examination, the patient has diminished ability to dorsiflex the left ankle. Which of the following symptoms should prompt the clinician to make immediate referral to a neurosurgeon?
Straight leg raising sign
Lumbar herniated disc on X-ray
Loss of left sided patellar reflex
Urinary incontinence
Question 13. Your patient is a 43-year-old female golfer who complains of arm pain. On physical examination, there is point tenderness on the elbow and pain when the patient is asked to flex the wrist against the clinician’s resistance. These are typical signs of:
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Osteoarthritis of the wrist
Epicondylitis
Cervical osteoarthritis
Question 14. Which of the following describes the pathology of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?
Irritation of a tendon located on the radial side of the wrist, near the thumb
Impingement of the median nerve, causing pain in the palm and fingers
Fluid-filled cyst that typically develops adjacent to a tendon sheath in the wrist
Ulnar nerve compression at the olecranon process
Question 15. What is the most common cause of hip pain in older adults?
Osteoporosis
Osteoarthritis
Trauma due to fall
Trochanteric bursitis
Question 16. A 43-year-old female was in a bicycling accident and complains of severe pain of the right foot. The patient limps into the emergency room. On physical examination, there is no point tenderness over the medial or lateral ankle malleolus. There is no foot tenderness except at the base of the fifth metatarsal bone. According to the Ottawa foot rules, should an X-ray of the feet be ordered?
Yes, there is tenderness over the fifth metatarsal
No, there is not tenderness over the navicular bone
Yes, the patient cannot bear weight on the foot
A and C
Question 17. 38-year-old Asian male, Mr. Chen, with past medical history significant for prehypertension who has recently taken up softball presents with three to five weeks of shoulder pain when throwing overhead. Ice minimally alleviates pain. Medications: Naproxen minimally alleviates shoulder pain. Allergies: Penicillin-associated rash. Family history: Brother has rheumatoid arthritis.
Which of the following musculoskeletal causes of shoulder pain would merit urgent diagnosis and management?
Adhesive capsulitis
Septic subacromial bursitis
Impingement of the supraspinatus tendon
Calcific tendinopathy
Question 18. If Mr. Chen had restricted passive as well as active ROM of the shoulder, what problems involving the shoulder might you consider?
Adhesive capsulitis
Rotator cuff tear
Tendinopathy of the long head of the biceps
Rotator cuff impingment
Question 19. What is the essential dynamic stabilizer of the shoulder joint?
Labrum
Rotator muscle group
Glenohumeral ligaments
Teres major muscle
Question 20. Given Mr. Chen’s repetitive overhead activities, some injury to his rotator cuff muscle group is most likely. Of the following exam findings, which one would not support the diagnosis of rotator cuff tendinopathy?
Positive Apley’s Scratch test
Weakness and pain with empty can testing
Limited active ROM
Inability to raise arm above his head
NSG6420 Week 7 Quiz
NSG6420 Week 7 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1.When a patient presents with a skin-related complaint, it is important to first:
Fully inspect all skin lesions before asking the patient how the lesion in question developed
Obtain a full history about the development of the skin lesion prior to the physical examination
Complete a full physical examination of the body prior to inspecting the skin lesion
Examine the skin lesion without hearing a health history in order to not prejudice the diagnosis
Question 2. Which of the following dermatological conditions results from reactivation of the dormant varicella virus?
Tinea versicolor
Seborrheic keratosis
Verruca
Herpes zoster
Question 3. An older adult male presents with pain in his right chest wall for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, the nurse practitioner notices a vesicular eruption along the dermatome and identifies this as herpes zoster. The NP informs the gentleman that:
All symptoms should disappear within three days
Oral medications can dramatically reduce the duration and intensity of his symptoms
He has chickenpox and can be contagious to his grandchildren
He has a sexually transmitted disease
Question 4. A 70-year-old white male comes to the clinic with a slightly raised, scaly, pink, and irregular lesion on his scalp. He is a farmer and works outside all day. You suspect actinic keratosis, but cannot rule out other lesions. What recommendation would you give him?
Ignore the lesion, as it is associated with aging.
Instruct him to use a nonprescription hydrocortisone cream to dry up the lesion.
Perform a biopsy or refer to a dermatologist.
Advise him to use a dandruff shampoo and return in one month if the lesion has not gone away.
Question 5. The appearance of a 2-10 cm. herald patch with subsequent development of parallel oval lesions on the trunk in a christmas tree distribution involving the upper arms and upper legs are common in:
Pityriasis Rosea
Shingles
Psoriasis
Lymes Disease
Question 6. Mr. Fitzgerald is a 68-year-old previously healthy man with a history of significant sun exposure who presents with a progressively enlarging 18 x 16 mm erythematous pruritic oval patch on his left forearm that has been present for three to four years. Your differential would include all of the following EXCEPT:
Fungal skin infection
Eczema
Seborrheic Keratosis
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
Question 7. What kind of lesions are caused by the herpes simplex virus?
Scales
Vesicles
Plaques
Urticaria
Question 8. Among the following conditions, which needs to be treated with systemic antifungal agents?
Tinea pedis/tinea magnum
Tinea corporis/tinea cruris
Tinea capitis/Tinea unguium (onychomycosis)
Tinea pedis /tinea faciale
Question 9. Which lesions are typically located along the distribution of dermatome?
Scabies
Herpes zoster
Tinea
Dyshidrosis
Question 10. A smooth round nodule with a pearly gray border and central induration best describes which skin lesion?
Seborrheic keratosis
Malignant melanoma
Herpes zoster
Basal cell carcinoma
Question 11. Cellulitis is a deep skin infection involving the dermis and subcutaneous tissues. The nurse practitioner suspects cellulitis in a 70-year-old Asian diabetic male presenting with reddened edematous skin around his nares. Which statement below will the nurse practitioner use in her decision-making process for the differential diagnosis pertaining to reddened edematous skin?
Cellulitis is two times more common in women
Facial cellulitis is more common in people >55
There is low incidence of cellulitis in patients with diabetes
Cellulitis is only a disease of the lower extremities of patients with known arterial insufficiency
Question 12. Folliculitis is most commonly due to:
Contact dermatitis
Varicella zoster
Dermatophytes
Staphylococcal infection
Question 13. The anti-inflammatory properties of topical corticosteroids result in part from their ability to induce vasoconstriction to the small blood vessels in the upper dermis. Of the following, which is the most potent topical corticosteroid?
Hydrocortisone 2.5%
Triamcinolone acetonide 0.1%
Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05%
Alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%
Question 14. Which of the following descriptions accurately documents cellulitis?
Cool, erythematous, shiny hairless extremity with decreased pulse
Scattered, erythematous ring-like lesions with clear centers
Clearly demarcated, raised erythematous area of face
Diffusely inflamed skin that is warm and tender to palpation
Question 15. Asymmetrical bi-color lesion with irregular border measuring 8 mm is found on the right lower arm of an adult patient. This assessment finding is consistent with:
Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Leukoplakia
Senile lentigines
Question 16. Which of the following descriptions best illustrates assessment findings consistent with tinea capitis?
Circular erythematous patches with papular, scaly annular borders and clear discharge
Inflamed scaly dry patches with broken hairs
Web lesions with erythema and scaling borders
Scaly pruritic erythematous lesions on inguinal creases
Question 17. A patient has a tender, firm, nodular cystic lesion on his scalp that produces cheesy discharge with foul odor. This is most likely a:
Bacterial folliculitis
Basal cell carcinoma
Bullous impetigo
Epidermoid cyst
Question 18. Patient presents with complaint of a “swollen node” under his arm. The area is tender and the node has progressed in size over the past few days. Which of the following should be included in your differential diagnosis?
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Epidermoid cyst
Furuncle
Both A and C
Question 19. A patient suffered a laceration of the shin three days ago, and today presents with a painful, warm, red swollen region around the area. The laceration has a purulent exudate. The clinician should recognize that the infected region is called:
Contact dermatitis
Folliculitis
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Cellulitis
Question 20. A woman complains of malaise and arthralgias. You note a butterfly-shaped, macular, erythematous rash across her cheeks and nose. These conditions are common in:
Psoriasis
Lichen planus
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Erythema nodosum
NSG6420 Week 6 Quiz
NSG6420 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1.Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of prostate cancer?
Asians
Hispanics
African Americans
American Indians
Question 2.Men with an initial PSA level below 2.5 ng/ml can reduce their screening frequency to what intervals?
Every 6 months
Yearly
Every 2 years
Every 2 to 4 years
Question 3. Your 55-year-old male patient presents to your office with complaints of sudden development of severe right-sided, colicky lower abdominal pain. He cannot sit still on the examining table. The patient has previously been in good health. On physical examination, there are no signs of peritoneal inflammation. A urine sample reveals hematuria and crystalluria. Which is the next diagnostic test that should be done immediately?
Ultrasound of the abdomen
Abdominal X-ray
Digital rectal examination
Spiral CT scan
Question 4. The most common complication of an untreated urinary obstruction due to a ureteral calculus is:
Ureteral rupture
Hydronephrosis
Kidney mass
Renal artery stenosis
Question 5. A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:
Lower urinary tract infection
Nephrolithiasis
Hydronephrosis
Pyelonephritis
Question 6. On a physical examination for employment, a 45-year-old male shows no significant findings and takes no medications. Past medical history and surgery are unremarkable. On urinalysis, hematuria is present. The urinalysis is repeated on another day and still reveals microscopic hematuria. It is important to recognize that painless hematuria can be diagnostic of:
Urinary tract infection
Bladder cancer
Nephrolithiasis
Pyelonephritis
Question 7. On DRE, you note that a 45-year-old patient has a firm, smooth, non-tender but asymmetrically shaped prostate. The patient has no symptoms and has a normal urinalysis. The patient’s PSA is within normal limits for the patient’s age. The clinician should:
Refer the patient for transrectal ultrasound guided prostate biopsy
Obtain an abdominal X-ray of kidneys, ureter, and bladder
Recognize this as a normal finding that requires periodic follow up
Obtain urine culture and sensitivity for prostatitis
Question 8. Age-related changes in the bladder, urethra, and ureters include all of the following in older women except:
Increased estrogen production’s influence on the bladder and ureter
Decline in bladder outlet function
Decline in ureteral resistance pressure
Laxity of the pelvic muscle
Question 9. Mr. Jones is a 68-year-old retired Air Force pilot that has been diagnosed with prostate cancer in the past week. He has never had a surgical procedure in his life and seeks clarification on the availability of treatments for prostate cancer. He asks the nurse practitioner to tell him the side effects of a radical prostatectomy. Which of the following is not a potential side effect of this procedure?
Urinary incontinence
Impotence
Dribbling urine
Selected low back pain
Question 10. Your 77-year-old patient complains of frequent urination, hesitation in getting the stream started, and nocturnal frequency of urination that is bothersome. On DRE, there is an enlarged, firm, non-tender, smooth prostate. The clinician should recognize these as symptoms of:
Urethritis
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Prostatitis
Prostate cancer
Question 11. Your 24-year-old female patient complains of dysuria as well as frequency and urgency of urination that develops the day after she uses her diaphragm. Urine culture reveals a bacterial count of 100 CFU/mL. These signs and symptoms indicate:
Upper urinary tract infection
Normal bacteriuria
Lower urinary tract infection
Urethritis
Question 12. A 79-year-old man is being evaluated for frequent urinary dribbling without burning. Physical examination reveals a smooth but slightly enlarged prostate gland. His PSA level is 3.3 ng/ml. The patient undergoes formal urodynamic studies, and findings are as follows: a decreased bladder capacity of 370 ml; a few involuntary detrusor contractions at a low bladder volume of 246 mL; an increased postvoid residual urine volume of 225 ml; and a slightly decreased urinary flow rate. Which of the following is not consistent with a normal age-associated change?
PSA level of 3.3 ng/ml
Decreased bladder capacity
Involuntary detrusor contradictions
Increased postvoid residual urine volume
Question 13. Mrs. L. Billings is a 77-year-old Caucasian female who has a history of breast cancer. She has been in remission for 6 years. As her primary care provider, you are seeing her for follow-up of her recent complaint of intermittent abdominal pain of a 3-month duration and some general malaise. Given the brief history above, what will you direct your assessment at during physical examination?
Examination of her thyroid to rule out thyroid nodules that may contribute to her feeling fatigued.
Auscultation of her abdomen for abnormal bowel sounds to rule out peritonitis.
Thorough abdominal and gynecological exam to rule out masses and identify any tenderness.
A rectal examination to rule out colon cancer as a secondary site for breast cancer.
Question 14. A 27-year-old male comes in to the clinic for symptoms of dysuria, urinary frequency, as well as urgency and perineal pain. Transrectal palpation of the prostate reveals a very tender, boggy, swollen prostate. The clinician should recognize these as signs of:
Prostatitis
Prostate cancer
Urethritis
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Question 15. Which of the following males would be at greatest risk for testicular cancer?
John, a 52-year-old, married African American Attorney who lives in Detroit, MI
Jacob, a 22-year-old, homosexual male, who works as an accountant, resides in Cumming GA, and has a history of cryptorchidism
Andy, a 27-year-old, Caucasian, single male who resides in Waukesha, WI and works as a maintenance mechanic
Ryan, a 34-year-old healthy, married man from Sweden, who works as a Registered Nurse in Boston, MA
Question 16. A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:
Lower urinary tract infection
Pyelonephritis
Nephrolithiasis
Hydonephrosis
Question 17. Which of the following disorders can cause urinary incontinence?
Cystocele
Overactive bladder
Uterine prolapse
All of the above
Question 18. Your 18 year old sexually active patient presents with sudden right sided groin pain that is sharp and constant. Inspection of his genitals reveals a swollen and erythematous right scrotum. His right testicle is exquisitely tender, swollen and has no palpable masses. Elevation of the testis results in no reduction in pain. The left scrotum and the testicle are normal. Epididymis and other scrotal contents were within normal limits. The scrotum does not transilluminate. Cremasteric reflex is present on the left side but absent on the right. There is no penile discharge, inguinal lymphadenopathy, or hernias.
Based on the history and physical exam your immediate concern is for:
Torsion
Infection
Cancer
Rupture
Question 19. The Prehn sign is utilized to distinguish epididymitis from testicular torsion. Epididymitis is considered when the Prehn sign is positive. When is the Prehn sign determined to be positive?
Pain is relieved by lifting of the testicle.
Tenderness is limited to the upper pole of the testis.
Lightly stroking or pinching the superior medial aspect of the thigh causes testicular retraction.
A small bluish discoloration is visible through the skin in the upper pole.
Question 20. Which of the following exam findings makes the diagnosis of testicular tumor more likely?
A scrotal mass that is accompanied by exquisite tenderness.
Testicular swelling is mostly fluid and transilluminates easily
A testicular mass that is non-tender to palpation
Dilated and tortuous veins in the pampiniform plexus
NSG6420 Week 5 Midterm Quiz
NSG6420 Week 5 Midterm Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1: Which of the following symptoms is common with acute otitis media?
Bulging tympanic membrane
Bright light reflex of tympanic membrane
Increased tympanic membrane mobility
All of the above
Question 2. The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:
Inhibited by drugs
Induced by drugs
Inhibited or induced by drugs
Associated with decreased liver perfusion
Question 3. In AR disorders, carriers have:
Two mutated genes; one from each parent that cause disease
A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease
A single gene mutation that causes the disease
One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease
Question 4. A 56-year-old male complains of anorexia, changes in bowel habits, extreme fatigue, and unintentional weight loss. At times he is constipated and other times he has episodes of diarrhea. His physical examination is unremarkable. It is important for the clinician to recognize the importance of:
CBC with differential
Stool culture and sensitivity
Abdominal X-ray
Colonoscopy
Question 5. Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?
History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision
History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision
History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush
All of the above
Question 6. In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of:
Bacterial sinusitis
Allergic rhinitis
Drug abuse
Skull fracture
Question 7. An 82-year-old female presents to the emergency department with epigastric pain and weakness. She admits to having dark, tarry stools for the last few days. She reports a long history of pain due to osteoarthritis. She self-medicates daily with ibuprofen, naprosyn, and aspirin for joint pain. On physical examination, she has orthostatic hypotension and pallor. Fecal occult blood test is positive. A likely etiology of the patient’s problem is:
Mallory-Weiss tear
Esophageal varices
Gastric ulcer
Question 1. Susan P., a 60-year-old woman with a 30 pack year history, presents to your primary care practice for evaluation of a persistent, daily cough with increased sputum production, worse in the morning, occurring over the past three months. She tells you, “I have the same thing, year after year.” Which of the following choices would you consider strongly in your critical thinking process?
Seasonal allergies
Acute bronchitis
Bronchial asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Question 2. A patient presents complaining of a 5 day history of upper respiratory symptoms including nasal congestion and drainage. On the day the symptoms began he had a low-grade fever that has now resolved. His nasal congestion persisted and he has had yellow nasal drainage for three days associated with mild headaches. On exam he is afebrile and in no distress. Examination of his tympanic membranes and throat are normal. Examination of his nose is unremarkable although a slight yellowish-clear drainage is noted. There is tenderness when you lightly percuss his maxillary sinus. What would your treatment plan for this patient be?
Observation and reassurance
Treatment with an antibiotic such as amoxicillin
Treatment with an antibiotic such as a fluoroquinoline or amoxicillin-clavulanate
Combination of a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and a long acting beta2 agonist inhaler.
Question 3.Emphysematous changes in the lungs produce the following characteristic in COPD patients?
Asymmetric chest expansion
Increased lateral diameter
Increased anterior-posterior diameter
Pectus excavatum
Question 4. When palpating the posterior chest, the clinician notes increased tactile fremitus over the left lower lobe. This can be indicative of pneumonia. Areas of increased fremitus should raise the suspicion of conditions resulting in increased solidity or consolidation in the underlying lung tissue, such as in pneumonia, tumor, or pulmonary fibrosis. In the instance of an extensive bronchial obstruction:
No palpable vibration is felt
Decreased fremitus is felt
Increased fremitus is felt
Vibration is referred to the non-obstructed lobe
Question 5. Your patient presents with complaint of persistent cough. After you have finished obtaining the History of Present Illness, you realize that the patient may be having episodes of wheezing, in addition to his cough. The most common cause of cough with wheezing is asthma. What of the following physical exam findings will support your tentative diagnosis of asthma?
Clear, watery nasal drainage with nasal turbinate swelling
Pharyngeal exudate and lymphadenopathy
Clubbing, cyanosis and edema.
Diminished lung sounds with rales in both bases
Question 6.Which of the following imaging studies should be considered if a pulmonary malignancy is suspected?
Computed tomography (CT) scan
Chest X-ray with PA, lateral, and lordotic views
Ultrasound
Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
Question 7. A 26-year-old, non-smoker, male presented to your clinic with SOB with exertion. This could be due to:
Exercise-induced cough
Bronchiectasis
Alpha-1 deficiency
Pericarditis
Question 8. Upon assessment of respiratory excursion, the clinician notes asymmetric expansion of the chest. One side expands greater than the other. This could be due to:
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusion
Pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism
Question 9. A 72-year-old woman and her husband are on a cross-country driving vacation. After a long day of driving, they stop for dinner.Midway through the meal, the woman becomes very short of breath, with chest pain and a feeling of panic. Which of the following problems is most likely?
Pulmonary edema
Heart failure
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia
Question 10. A cough is described as chronic if it has been present for:
2 weeks or more
8 weeks or more
3 months or more
6 months or more
Question 11. Testing is necessary for the diagnosis of asthma because history and physical are not reliable means of excluding other diagnoses or determining the extent of lung impairment. What is the study that is used to evaluate upper respiratory symptoms with new onset wheeze?
Chest X-ray
Methacholine challenge test
Spirometry, both with and without bronchodilation
Ventilation/perfusion scan
Question 12. In classifying the severity of your patient presenting with an acute exacerbation of asthma. You determine that they have moderate persistent symptoms based on the report of symptoms and spirometry readings of the last 3 weeks. The findings that support moderate persistent symptoms include:
Symptoms daily with nighttime awakening more than 1 time a week. FEV1 >60%, but predicted <80%. FEV1/FVC reduced 5%
Symptoms less than twice a week and less than twice a week nighttime awakening. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal
Symptoms more than 2 days a week, but not daily. Nighttime awakenings 3-4 times a month. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal
Symptoms throughout the day with nighttime awakenings every night. FEV1< 60% predicted. FEV1/FVC reduced >5%
Question 13. The following criterion is considered a positive finding when determining whether a patient with asthma can be safely monitored and treated at home:
Age over 40
Fever greater than 101
Tachypnea greater than 30 breaths/minute
Productive cough
Question 14. Medications are chosen based on the severity of asthma. Considering the patient that is diagnosed with moderate persistent asthma, the preferred option for maintenance medication is:
High-dose inhaled corticosteroid and leukotriene receptor antagonist
Oral corticosteroid—high and low dose as appropriate
Short acting beta2 agonist inhaler and theophylline
Low dose inhaled corticosteroid and long acting beta2 agonist inhaler
Question 15. A 75-year-old patient with community-acquired pneumonia presents with chills, productive cough, temperature of 102.1, pulse 100, respiration 18, BP 90/52, WBC 12,000, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22 mg/dl. He has a history of mild dementia and his mental status is unchanged from his last visit. These findings indicate that the patient:
Can be treated as an outpatient
Requires hospitalization for treatment
Requires a high dose of parenteral antibiotic
Can be treated with oral antibiotics
Question 16. Which of the following is considered a “red flag” when diagnosing a patient with pneumonia?
Fever of 102
Infiltrates on chest X-ray
Pleural effusion on chest X-ray
Elevated white blood cell count
Question 17. A 23-year-old patient who has had bronchiectasis since childhood is likely to have which of the following:
Barrel-shaped chest
Clubbing
Pectus excavatum
Prolonged capillary refill
Question 18. Your patient has just returned from a 6-month missionary trip to Southeast Asia. He reports unremitting cough, hemoptysis, and an unintentional weight loss of 10 pounds over the last month. These symptoms should prompt the clinician to suspect:
Legionnaires’ disease
Malaria
Tuberculosis
Pneumonia
Question 19. A 76-year-old patient with a 200-pack year smoking history presents with complaints of chronic cough, dyspnea, fatigue, hemoptysis, and weight loss over the past 2 months. The physical exam reveals decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the left lower lung field. The chest X-ray demonstrates shift of the mediastinum and trachea to the left. These are classic signs of:
Lung cancer
Tuberculosis
Pneumonia
COPD
Question 20. A 24-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after sustaining multiple traumatic injuries after a motorcycle accident.Upon examination, you note tachypnea, use of intercostal muscles to breathe, asymmetric chest expansion, and no breath sounds over the left lower lobe. It is most important to suspect:
Pulmonary embolism
Pleural effusion
Pneumothorax
Fracture of ribs
NSG6420 Week 2
NSG6420 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1. An 86-year-old patient who wears a hearing aid complains of poor hearing in the affected ear. In addition to possible hearing aid malfunction, this condition is often due to:
Acoustic neuroma
Cerumen impaction
Otitis media
Ménière’s disease
Question 2. In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of:
Bacterial sinusitis
Allergic rhinitis
Drug abuse
Skull fractur
Question 3. A 45 year old patient presents with ‘sore throat’ and fever for one week. After a quick strep screen you determine the patient has Strep throat. You know that streptococcal pharyngitis should be treated with antibiotics to prevent complications and to shorten the course of disease. Which of the following antibiotics should be considered when a patient is allergic to Penicillin?
Amoxicillin
EES (erythromycin)
Bicillin L-A
Dicloxacillin
Question 4. Presbycusis is the hearing impairment that is associated with:
Physiologic aging
Ménière’s disease
Cerumen impaction
Herpes zoster
Question 5. Epistaxis can be a symptom of:
Over-anticoagulation
Hematologic malignancy
Cocaine abuse
All of the above
Question 6. Your patient has been using chewing tobacco for 10 years. On physical examination, you observe a white ulceration surrounded by erythematous base on the side of his tongue. The clinician should recognize that very often this is:
Malignant melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Aphthous ulceration
Behcet’s syndrome
Question 7. A 26 year old patient presents with cough and general malaise for 3 days. They note that their eyes have been watering clear fluid and a ‘runny nose’ since yesterday. They note they ‘feel miserable’ and demand something to make them feel better. What would be the best first plan of treatment?
Saline nasal spray for congestion and acetaminophen as needed for pain.
Z-pack (azithromycin) for infection and Cromolyn nasal for congestion
Hydrococone/acetaminophen as needed for pain and Guaifensin for congestion
Cephalexin for infection and Cromolyn ophthalmic for congestion
Question 8. Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?
History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision
History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision
History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush
All of the above
Question 9. Dizziness that is described as “lightheaded” or, “like I’m going to faint,” is usually caused by inadequate cerebral perfusion and is classified as?
Presyncope
Disequilibrium
Vertigo
Syncope
Question 10. It is important to not dilate the eye if ____ is suspected.
Cataract
Macular degeneration
Acute closed-angle glaucoma
Chronic open-angle glaucoma
Question 11. Mr. GC presents to the clinic with nausea and vomiting for 2 days, prior to that time he reports occasional ‘dizziness’ that got better with change in position. He denies a recent history of URI or any history of headaches or migraines. What would the most likely diagnosis be?
Vestibular neruitis
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Vestibular migraine
Benign hypertensive central vertigo
Question 12. Which of the following patients with vertigo would require neurologic imaging?
A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and sudden acute onset constant vertigo. She has right nystagmus that changes direction with gaze and that does not disappear when she focuses.
A 45-year-old man with recurrent episodes of brief intense vertigo every time he turns his head rapidly. He has no other neurologic signs or symptoms. He has a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver.
A 66-year-old man with recurrent episodes of vertigo associated with tinnitus and hearing loss. His head thrust test is positive.
A 28-year-old otherwise well woman with new onset constant vertigo with no other neurologic symptoms. On physical exam, she has unidirectional nystagmus that disappears when her gaze is fixed.
Question 13.A patient presents with eye redness, scant discharge, and a gritty sensation. Your examination reveals the palpable preauricular nodes, which are most likely with:
Bacterial conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis
Chemical conjunctivitis
Viral conjunctivitis
Question 14. In assessing the eyes, which of the following is considered a “red flag” finding when associated with eye redness?
History of prior red-eye episodes
Grossly visible corneal defect
Exophthalmos
Photophobia
Question 15. A 64-year-old male presents with erythema of the sclera, tearing, and bilateral pruritus of the eyes. The symptoms occur intermittently throughout the year and he has associated clear nasal discharge. Which of the following is most likely because of the inflammation?
Bacterium
Allergen
Virus
Fungi
Question 16. Patients that have atopic disorders are mediated by the production of Immunoglobulin E (IgE) will have histamine stimulated as an immediate phase response. This release of histamine results in which of the following?
Sinus pain, increased vascular permeability, and bronchodilation
Bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and vasodilatation
Contraction of smooth muscle, decreased vascular permeability, and vasoconstriction
Vasodilatation, bronchodilation, and increased vascular permeability
Question 17. You have a patient complaining of vertigo and want to know what could be the cause. Knowing there are many causes for vertigo, you question the length of time the sensation lasts. She tells you several hours to days and is accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss. You suspect which of the following conditions?
Ménière’s disease
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
Migraine
Question 18. In examining the mouth of an older adult with a history of smoking, the nurse practitioner finds a suspicious oral lesion. The patient has been referred for a biopsy to be sent for pathology. Which is the most common oral precancerous lesion?
Fictional keratosis
Keratoacanthoma
Lichen planus
Leukoplakia
Question 19. Rheumatic heart disease is a complication that can arise from which type of infection?
Epstein-Barr virus
Diphtheria
Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Question 20. A patient complains of fever, fatigue, and pharyngitis. On physical examination there is pronounced cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following diagnostic tests should be considered?
Mono spot
Strep test
Throat culture
All of the above
NSG6420 Week 1
NSG6420 Week 1 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1. The major impact of the physiological changes that occur with aging is:
Reduced physiological reserve
Reduced homeostatic mechanisms
Impaired immunological response
All of the above
Question 2. Men have faster and more efficient biotransformation of drugs and this is thought to be due to:
Less obesity rates than women
Prostate enlargement
Testosterone
Less estrogen than women
Question 3. The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:
Inhibited by drugs
Induced by drugs
Inhibited or induced by drugs
Associated with decreased liver perfusion
Question 4. Functional abilities are best assessed by:
Self-report of function
Observed assessment of function
A comprehensive head-to-toe examination
Family report of function
Question 5. Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) is classified as a microcytic, hypochromic anemia. This classification refers to which of the following laboratory data?
Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) and Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)
Serum ferritin and serum iron
Total iron binding capacity and transferrin saturation
Question 6. When interpreting laboratory data, you would expect to see the following in a patient with Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD):
Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH decreased
Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV increased, MCH increased
Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV normal, MCH normal
Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH increased
Question 7. The pathophysiological hallmark of ACD is:
Depleted iron stores
Impaired ability to use iron stores
Chronic unable bleeding
Reduced intestinal absorption of iron
Question 8. The main focus of treatment of patients with ACD is:
Replenishing iron stores
Providing for adequate nutrition high in iron
Management of the underlying disorder
Administration of monthly vitamin B12 injections
Question 9. In addition to the complete blood count (CBC) with differential, which of the following laboratory tests is considered to be most useful in diagnosing ACD and IDA?
Serum iron
Total iron binding capacity
Transferrin saturation
Serum ferritin
Question 10. Symptoms in the initial human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection include all of the following except:
Sore throat
Fever
Weight loss
Headache
Question 11. Essential parts of a health history include all of the following except:
Chief complaint
History of the present illness
Current vital signs
All of the above are essential history components
Question 12.Which of the following clinical reasoning tools is defined as evidence-based resource based on mathematical modeling to express the likelihood of a condition in select situations, settings, and/or patients?
Clinical practice guideline
Clinical decision rule
Clinical algorithm
Clinical recommendation
Question 13. The first step in the genomic assessment of a patient is obtaining information regarding:
Only one mutated gene on the sex chromosomes to acquire the disease
Only one mutated gene to acquire the disease
Two mutated genes to acquire the disease
Two mutated genes to become carriers
Question 15. In AR disorders, carriers have:
Two mutated genes; two from one parent that cause disease
A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease
A single gene mutation that causes the disease
One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease
Question 16. A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder will:
Not be affected by the disorder herself
Transmit the disorder to 50% of her offspring (male or female)
Not transmit the disorder to her daughters
Transmit the disorder to only her daughters
Question 17. According to the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA):
Nurse Practitioners (NPs) should keep all genetic information of patients confidential
NPs must obtain informed consent prior to genetic testing of all patients
Employers cannot inquire about an employee’s genetic information
All of the above
Question 18. Which of the following would be considered a “red flag” that requires more investigation in a patient assessment?
Colon cancer in family member at age 70
Breast cancer in family member at age 75
Myocardial infarction in family member at age 35
All of the above
Question 19. Your 2-year-old patient shows facial features, such as epicanthal folds, up-slanted palpebral fissures, single transverse palmar crease, and a low nasal bridge. These are referred to as:
Variable expressivity related to inherited disease
Dysmorphic features related to genetic disease
De novo mutations of genetic disease
Different penetrant signs of genetic disease
Question 20.In order to provide a comprehensive genetic history of a patient, the NP should:
Ask patients to complete a family history worksheet
Seek out pathology reports related to the patient’s disorder
Interview family members regarding genetic disorders
All of the above
NR 511 Week 4
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5
Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 2: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 3: Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 4: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 6: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 7: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 9: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 10: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 11: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 12: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 13: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 14: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 15: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 16: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 17: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 18: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
d. Epithelial cells
Question 19: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
20%
30%
d. 50%
Question 20: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 21: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 22: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 24: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 25: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 26: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 27: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 28: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 29: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Ergotamine
b. Timolol
Topiramate
Question 30: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?
Failure to treat a condition
b. Failure to diagnose correctly
c. Ordering the wrong medication
d. Failure to manage care
Question 2: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 3: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 4: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Metranidazole
Ceftriaxone
Diflucan
d. Doxycycline
Question 5: Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 6: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 7: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 8: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 9: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 10: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 11: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 12: In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?
Commitment
Consensus
Certification
d. Collaboration
Question 13: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 14: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 15: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 16: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?
Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 17: Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above
Question 18: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 19: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 20: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 21: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
4
8 d
10
d. 15
Question 22: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 23: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 24: Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
“L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
Question 25: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 26: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 27: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 28: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question 29: A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
a. Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
d. All of the above
Question 30: The clinician should Question: the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
Low-dose aspirin
Thiazide diuretics
Ethambutol
d. All of the above
Question 31: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 32: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
a. Autonomy
Beneficence
Justice
d. Veracity
Question 33: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
20%
30%
d. 50%
Question 34: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 35: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above
Question 36: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question 37: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.
Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound .
Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Timolol
Ergotamine
d. Topiramate
Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
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The Swift Corporation has 5,000 sales representatives and employees in the United States who drive company cars. The company’s risk manager has recommended to the firm’s management that the company should implement a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a partial retention program to the Swift Corporation.
Identify the factors that the Swift Corporation should consider before it adopts a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
If a partial retention program is adopted, what are the various methods the Swift Corporation can use to pay for physical damage losses to company cars?
Identify two risk-control measures that could be used in the company’s partial retention program for physical damage losses.
Computer assembly programming
Use SPIM to write a MIPS-32 assembly program that performs the followings: a) Print your first and last name on the first line. b) Prompt the user to enter an integer (positive or negative) using the prompt message: “Enter an integer (0 to exit): “ c) If the user does not enter a 0 the program continues to prompt for more integers until a zero is entered by the user. d) After the user entered the number 0 it prints: i) Their sum is: (the sum is displayed) ii) The smallest is: (the smallest number is displayed) iii) The biggest is: (the biggest number displayed) e) The program ends. Perform two test runs using the exact same data set shown in the samples below (except for the name which should be your name)
Calculate the Macaulay and Modified Duration of the following bonds and explain what the durations mean. Assume the par value of all bonds = $1,000 and the bonds have semi-annual coupon payments.
The purpose of this assignment is to allow the students to understand and practice the measurement of present value, future value, and interest rate using Microsoft® Excel®.
Assignment Steps
Resources: Microsoft® Office® 2013 Accessibility Tutorials, Microsoft® Excel®, Time Value of Money Calculations Template
Calculate the following time value of money problems using Microsoft® Excel®:
If we place $8,592.00 in a savings account paying 7.5 percent interest compounded annually, how much will our account accrue to in 9.5 years?
What is the present value of $992 to be received in 13.5 years from today if our discount rate is 3.5 percent?
If you bought a stock for $45 dollars and could sell it fifteen years later for three times what you originally paid. What was your return on owning this stock?
Suppose you bought a house for $3,250,000 to make it a nursing home in the future. But you have not committed to the project and will decide in nine years whether to go forward with it or sell off the house. If real estate values increase annually at 1.5%, how much can you expect to sell the house for in nine years if you choose not to proceed with the nursing home project?
If your daughter wants to earn $215,000 within the next twenty-three years and the salaries grow at 4.45% per year. What salary should she start to reach her goal?
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Optimal Strategy with a Nonzero-Sum Game
Competency
This competency will allow you to demonstrate your ability and skill in analyzing nonzero-sum games and synthesizing optimal strategies within them.
Instructions
During the city’s mayoral race one of the candidates hires G&B Consulting. This candidate is a challenger from the same party as the incumbent mayor and is vying to be put on the ticket in the general election. She believes that the nomination will likely come down to what stance she takes on a proposed tax bill. The bill is for a tax increase that would subsidize education grants. Staying within traditional party lines would be advantageous to gaining support from the core constituency, but going against party lines on the issue would help sway swing voters and independents. The issue is bound to come up at an upcoming debate and she wants the help of G&B Consulting to determine an optimum strategy.
According to John Holland’s theory, most people are one of six personality types: Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and Conventional.
Briefly describe each of these.
Asset portfolio construction
Assignment Details
Assignment Description
Key Assignment Draft
Part 1 Tasks
In general terms, discuss how the following should be taken into consideration when constructing an investment portfolio:
Age
Income
Debt level and assets
Marital status
Parental status
Risk tolerance
Time horizon
General economic conditions
Part 2 Tasks
Task 1
Discuss the efficient market hypotheses, and answer the following question:
Does this hypothesis support active trading or buying a passive stock index fund?
Task 2
Discuss several pieces of legislation that were enacted to protect against unethical investing practices.
Task 3
To illustrate your knowledge of portfolio construction, design a portfolio based on the following scenario:
Robert and Susan Jenkins have inherited $200,000. They are aggressive investors with a joint annual income of $100,000, no debt, and an additional $500,000 in assets other than the $200,000 inheritance.
Design 2 separate $200,000 portfolios based on the following scenarios:
The couple has 3 children between the ages of 9 and 17 years old, and they will use this money to pay for their college education.
The couple will use the money to help fund retirement in 35 years.
When designing your portfolios, be sure to keep the following in mind:
Each portfolio should contain at least 3 common stocks, 1 American Depositary Receipt (ADR) that you researched, and 3 bonds.
Leaving a portion of the portfolio in cash is an option if you feel that is it appropriate.
Charts and graphs should be used where appropriate.
Portfolio models should be based on the Jenkins’ demographic profile and time horizon.
Be sure to include the following in your discussion:
Reasons for your investment choices
Stock and bond investment risk and return factors
The security market line
Beta and standard deviation
Bond duration and interest rates
Please submit your assignment.
For assistance with your assignment, please use your text, Web resources, and all course materials.
Design a stock portfolio to minimize risk and maximize return.
Examine international investment opportunities.
Explain the Efficient Market Hypothesis.
Other Information
Instructor’s Comments:
This submission should be in APA essay format containing specific recommendations, assumptions made and reasoning used. REMEMBER: the project is to be based on the scenario in the Unit 4 and 5 IP project description —- no class member’s submission will be identical because you might all make different assumptions in your decision making process while making recommendations! ALSO – students often forget to add a chart or graph visually illustrating the portfolios designed. SEE EXAMPLES of portfolio illustrations in the UNIT 4 learning material area.
The primary thing is to illustrate learning in each of subject areas AND you can use some creativity as it relates to your understanding of the scenario to ensure that you develop a robust plan for your client
Create a Movies class that determines the cost of a ticket to a cinema,
based on the moviegoer’s age. Assume that the cost of a full-price
ticket is $10. Assign the age to a private data member. Use a public
member function to determine the ticket price, based on the follow-
ing schedule:
Age Price
Under 5 Free
5 to 17 Half price
18 to 55 Full price
Over 55 $2 off
Need help with the following questions at www.homeworknest.com
Chris and Karen are married and own a three-bedroom home in a large midwestern city. Their son, Christian, attends college away from home and lives in a fraternity house. Their daughter, Kelly, is a senior in high school. Chris is an accountant who works for a local accounting firm. Karen is a marketing analyst and is often away from home several days at a time. Kelly earns extra cash by babysitting on a regular basis.The family’s home contains household furniture, personal property, a computer that Chris uses to prepare business tax returns on weekends, and a laptop computer that Karen uses while traveling. The Swifts also own three cars. Christian drives a 2007 Ford; Chris drives a 2012 Pontiac for both business and personal use; and Karen drives a 2014 Toyota and a rental car when she is traveling. Although the Swifts have owned their home for several years, they are considering moving because of the recent increase in violent crime in their neighborhood.
Describe briefly the steps in the personal risk management process.
Identify the major pure risks or pure loss exposures to which Chris and Karen are exposed with respect to each of the following:
Personal loss exposures
Property loss exposures
Liability loss exposures
With respect to each of the loss exposures mentioned above, identify an appropriate personal risk management technique that could be used to treat the exposure.
Homeworknest.com answers to the following questions
The Swift Corporation has 5,000 sales representatives and employees in the United States who drive company cars. The company’s risk manager has recommended to the firm’s management that the company should implement a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a partial retention program to the Swift Corporation.
Identify the factors that the Swift Corporation should consider before it adopts a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
If a partial retention program is adopted, what are the various methods the Swift Corporation can use to pay for physical damage losses to company cars?
Identify two risk-control measures that could be used in the company’s partial retention program for physical damage losses.
ECON312 week 3 Homework 2018
Question 1
Maryland farmers turn from tobacco to flowers
Maryland tobacco farmers will be subsidized if they switch from growing tobacco to growing crops such as flowers and organic vegetables. How does offering farmers a payment to exit tobacco growing influence the opportunity cost of growing tobacco? What is the opportunity cost of using the equipment owned by a tobacco farmer?
Offering farmers a payment to exit tobacco growing _______ the opportunity cost of growing tobacco.
The opportunity cost of using the equipment owned by a tobacco farmer is _______.
increases; the next best alternative forgone, which could be the production of flowers and organic vegetables
increases; the implicit cost of using the tobacco equipment
decreases; the explicit cost of using the tobacco equipment
decreases; the sum of the implicit and explicit costs of using the tobacco equipment
does not change; the next best alternative forgone, which could be the production of flowers and organic vegetables
Question 2
Perfect competition is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
firms produce an identical product.
no restrictions on entry into or exit from the industry.
buyers and sellers are well informed about prices.
a large number of buyers and sellers.
considerable advertising by individual firms.
Question 3
Which of the following illustrates economies of scale, diseconomies of scale, and constant returns to scale?
Liza’s average total cost changes from $4.50 to $2.20 when she increases salad production from 7 to 9 an hour.
Sam’s average total cost changes from $1.30 to $2.80 when he increases smoothie production from 5 to 8 gallons an hour.
Tina’s average total cost remains at $3 when she increases pizza production from 12 to 13 an hour.
Sam faces economies of scale; Liza faces diseconomies of scale; Tina faces constant returns to scale.
Sam faces economies of scale; Tina faces diseconomies of scale; Liza faces constant returns to scale.
Tina faces economies of scale; Sam faces diseconomies of scale; Liza faces constant returns to scale.
Liza faces economies of scale; Sam faces diseconomies of scale; Tina faces constant returns to scale.
Question 4
Jennifer owns a pig farm near Salina, Kansas. Last year she earned $39,000 in total revenue while incurring $38,000 in explicit costs. She could have earned $27,000 as a teacher in Salina. These are all her revenue and costs. Therefore Jennifer earned an
economic profit of $1,000.
accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $65,000.
None of the above answers is correct.
accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $26,000.
accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $38,000.
Question 5
The main source of economies of scale is
reductions in the price of factors of production.
the ability to hire less labor.
increasing average costs.
decreasing marginal product.
greater specialization of both labor and capital.
Question 6
Jennifer’s Bakery Shop produces baked goods in a perfectly competitive market. If Jennifer decides to produce her 100th batch of cookies, the marginal cost is $120. She can sell this batch of cookies at a market price of $110. To maximize her profit, Jennifer should
produce this batch of cookies because their MR exceeds their MC.
produce this batch of cookies because they will help lower her average fixed cost.
not produce this additional batch.
charge $120 for this batch.
shut down.
Question 7
Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average total cost equals
$10.00.
$1,200.
$300.
$2,400.
$12.00.
Question 8
As a typical firm increases its output, its marginal cost
is constant.
increases at first and then decreases.
is negative at first and then positive.
decreases.
decreases at first and then increases.
Question 9
To produce more output in the short run, a firm must employ more of
its fixed resources.
Firms cannot produce more output in the short run.
its variable resources.
all its resources.
the least costly resources regardless of whether they are fixed or variable.
Question 10
The market demand curve in a perfectly competitive market is ________ and the demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm’s output is ________.
The above table has the total revenue and total cost schedule for Omar, a perfectly competitive grower of rutabagas. Omar’s total profit is maximized when he produces ________ bushels of rutabagas.
7
5
6
3
8
Question 12
If concerns about mad-cow disease impose economic losses on the perfectly competitive cattle ranchers, exit by the ranchers combined with no further changes in the demand for beef will force the price of beef to
fluctuate, with the trend being lower prices.
probably change, but more information about the market supply of beef is needed to answer the question.
decrease.
not change.
increase.
Question 13
Quantity of labor (workers)
Total product
(lawns mowed per week)
0
0
1
30
2
55
3
75
4
80
5
82
Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. Decreasing marginal returns first occur with the
third worker.
second worker.
first worker.
fourth worker.
fifth worker.
Question 14
The above figure illustrates a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is $10 a unit, to maximize its profit (or minimize its loss) the firm should
produce 30 units.
produce more than 30 units and less than 40 units.
shut down.
produce 40 units.
produce between 10 and less than 30 units.
Question 15
Quantity of labor (workers)
Total product
(dogs groomed per week)
0
0
1
40
2
100
3
150
4
190
5
220
6
240
Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average fixed cost equals
$2,400.
$6.00.
$10.00.
$7.50.
$600.
Question 16
When an economist uses the term “cost” referring to a firm, the economist refers to the
price of the good to the consumer.
explicit cost of producing a good or service but not the implicit cost of producing a good or service.
implicit cost of producing a good or service but not the explicit cost of producing a good or service.
cost that can be actually verified and measured.
opportunity cost of producing a good or service, which includes both implicit and explicit cost.
Question 17
Quantity of labor (workers)
Total product
(dogs groomed per week)
0
0
1
40
2
100
3
150
4
190
5
220
6
240
Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 6 workers, her average fixed cost equals
$7.50.
$2.50.
$6.00.
$600.
$10.00.
Question 18
U.S. Steel Lays Off 756
With a drop in the demand for steel pipe and tube, U.S. Steel Corporation will idle plants in Ohio and Texas and lay off 756 workers.
Source: The Wall Street Journal , January 6, 2015
As U.S. Steel responded to the fall in demand, how did its marginal cost change?
What can you say about minimum AVC in the plants that closed?
As U.S. Steel responded to the fall in demand, its marginal cost ______.
The minimum average variable cost in the plants that closed must have been ______.
decreased; greater than the market price
decreased; less than the market price
decreased; equal to average fixed cost
increased; less than the market price
increased; greater than the market price
Question 19
The law of decreasing returns states that as a firm uses more of a
fixed input and a variable input, the marginal product of the fixed input and the marginal product of the variable input both decrease.
fixed input, with a given quantity of variable inputs, the marginal product of the fixed input eventually decreases.
variable input, with a given quantity of fixed inputs, the marginal product of the variable input eventually decreases.
variable input, output will begin to fall immediately.
variable input, total output will increase indefinitely.
Question 20
GM cuts jobs at its Australian manufacturing unit
GM will cut 500 jobs, or about 12% of its workforce, at its Australian plant because of a sharp fall in demand for its locally-made “Cruze” small car.
Source: The Wall Street Journal , April 8, 2013
As GM cuts its workforce, how will the marginal product and average product of a worker change in the short run?
Suppose that before the cuts the marginal product of GM workers is below their average product.
As the number of workers decreases, the marginal product of a GM worker ______ and the average product of a GM worker ______ in the short run.
does not? change; does not change
decreases; increases
increases; decreases
increases; increases
decreases; decreases
Question 21
Output (pizzas per hour)
Total cost
(dollars)
0
20
1
35
2
49
3
61
4
71
5
79
6
85
Paulette owns a pizza parlor. Her total cost schedule is in the above table. Her total variable cost of producing four pizzas per hour is
Some amount, but more information is needed to determine this total variable cost.
$49.
$20.
$71.
$51.
Question 22
Airlines seek new ways to save on fuel as costs soar
Fuel is an airline’s biggest single expense. In 2008, the cost of jet fuel rocketed. Airlines tried to switch to newer generation aircraft, which have more fuel-efficient engines.
Source: The New York Times , June 11, 2008
Explain how a technological advance that makes airplane engines more fuel efficient changes an airline’s average variable cost, marginal cost, and average total cost.
A technological advance that makes an airplane engine more fuel efficient ______ an airline’s average variable cost and ______ an airline’s marginal cost.
The table above gives costs at Jan’s Bike Shop. Unfortunately, Jan’s record keeping has been spotty. Each worker is paid $100 a day. Labor costs are the only variable costs of production. What is the total fixed cost of producing 64 bikes?
$200
$500
$300
$400
$600
Question 24
California’s commercial drone industry is taking off
Customers are finding ever more creative ways to use drones, and 3E Robotics Inc., America’s largest producer of consumer drones, expects sales to soar.
Source: Los Angeles Times, June 13, 2015
Explain what is happening in the market for commercial drones.
How would you expect the price of a drone to change in the short run and the long run?
How would you expect the economic profit of a drone producer such as 3D Robotics to change in the short run and in the long run?
In the short run, the equilibrium price of a drone _______ and the economic profit of drone producers _______.
falls; decreases
rises; increases
rises; remains unchanged
falls; remains unchanged
Question 25
Coffee king Starbucks raises its prices
Starbucks will raise its price because the wholesale price of milk has risen by nearly 70% in the past year. There’s a lot of milk in those Starbucks lattes, noted John Glass, CIBC World Markets restaurant analyst.
Source: USA Today, July 24, 2007
Is the cost of milk a fixed cost or a variable cost?
Describe how the increase in the price of milk changes Starbucks’ short-run cost curves.
The cost of milk is a ______ cost. An increase in the cost of milk shifts the ______ curves upward.
variable; total cost, total variable cost, and total fixed cost
fixed; average total cost, average fixed cost, total cost, and total fixed cost
fixed; total cost and average total cost
variable; average total cost, average variable cost, total cost, total variable cost, and marginal cost
Question 26
The long run is a time period that is
five years or longer.
long enough to change the amount of labor employed but not to change the size of the plant.
long enough to change the amount of labor employed.
long enough to change the size of the firm’s plant and all other inputs.
None of the above answers describes the long run.
Question 27
A perfectly competitive firm is producing 50 units of output, which it sells at the market price of $23 per unit. The firm’s average total cost is $20. What is the firm’s total revenue?
$1,150
$1,000
$150
$23
$20
Question 28
Metropolitan Museum completes round of layoffs
The museum cut 74 jobs and 95 other workers retired. The museum also laid off 127 other employees in its retail shops. The cut in labor costs is $10 million, but the museum expects no change in the number of visitors.
Source: The New York Times, June 22, 2009
Explain how the job cuts and shop closings will change the museum’s short-run average cost curves and marginal cost curve.
A cut in labor but no change in output increases the marginal product of labor.
What is the effect on the marginal cost curve?
A rightward movement along the marginal cost curve occurs.
The marginal cost curve shifts upward.
A leftward movement along the marginal cost curve occurs.
The marginal cost curve shifts downward.
Question 29
Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. The marginal product of the fourth worker is ________ lawns mowed per week.
25
5
20
80
320
Question 30
Output (gallons of ice cream per hour)
Total cost (dollars)
0
1
1
2
2
3
3
5
4
8
5
11
The Jerry-Berry Ice Cream Shoppe’s total cost schedule is in the above table. Based on the table, the marginal cost of producing the fourth gallon of ice cream is
$5.
$3.
$8.
$2.
$32.
ECON312 Week 2 Homework 2018
Question 1
The price of cotton clothing falls. As a result,
the demand for cotton clothing decreases.
both the demand for cotton clothing increases and the quantity demand of cotton clothing increases.
the quantity demanded of cotton clothing increases.
the quantity demanded of cotton clothing decreases.
the demand for cotton clothing increases.
Question 2
If a higher price for wheat decreases the quantity of corn being produced, which of the following describes what has occurred?
The quantity of wheat supplied increased and the supply of corn decreased.
The supply of wheat increased and the supply of corn decreased.
The quantity of wheat supplied increased and quantity of corn supplied decreased.
The supply of wheat decreased and the supply of corn decreased.
The supply of wheat increased and the quantity of corn supplied decreased
Question 3
If both producers and consumers believe that a product’s price will rise in the future, then at the present, demand ________ and supply ________.
increases; increases
increases; decreases
decreases; decreases
does not change; does not change
decreases; increases
Question 4
You are just about to finish college and are about to start a high paying job. Because of this new job, what is the most likely outcome in the market for cars?
Your demand for cars will decrease.
The market supply of cars will increase.
Your demand for cars will increase.
The demand and the supply for cars will decrease.
The market supply of cars will decrease.
Question 5
Many Americans are selling their used cars and buying new fuel-efficient hybrids. Other things remaining the same, in the market for used cars, ______ and in the market for hybrids ______.
Supply increases and the price falls; demand increases and the price rises
Demand decreases and the price rises; supply increases and the price falls
Both demand and supply decrease and the price might rise, fall, or not change; demand increases and the price rises
Demand decreases, supply increases, and the price falls; supply in-creases and the price fall
Question 6
If the price of a one good increases and the quantity demanded of a different good decreases, then these two goods are
substitutes.
normal goods.
inelastic goods.
complements.
inferior goods.
Question 7
Which figure above shows the effect if research is published claiming that eating pizza is healthy?
Figure B
Figure C
Figure A
Figure D
Both Figure A and Figure D
Question 8
If consumers buy a large number of plug-in electric cars, the equilibrium price of electricity will ________ and the equilibrium quantity of electricity will ________.
rise; increase
fall; increase
not change; increase
rise; decrease
fall; decrease
Question 9
Which of the following describes the law of demand? When other things remain the same, as
the quantity demanded of bread increases, the price of bread falls.
more people decide to eat pizza, the demand for pizza increases.
your income increases, you’ll buy more hamburgers.
the price of peanut butter increases, the quantity demanded of jelly decreases.
the price of gas falls, the quantity demanded of gas increases.
Question 10
In a recession, consumers have less income to spend. As a result, if dining out is a normal good, then which of the following would happen to the demand curve for dining out?
The demand curve would shift rightward.
The demand curve would not shift but the price of dining out would fall.
The demand curve would shift leftward.
The demand curve would not shift but the price of dining out would rise.
The effect on the demand curve is unknown.
Question 11
Computer chips are a normal good. Suppose the economy slips into a recession so that income falls. As a result, the demand for computer chips ________ so that the price of a computer chip ________.
decreases; rises
decreases; does not change
increases; falls
decreases; falls
increases; rises
Question 12
If income increases and the demand for bus rides decreases,
consumers are behaving irrationally.
bus rides are an inferior good.
bus rides must be a complement good with some other good.
bus rides are a substitute good.
bus rides are a normal good.
Question 13
Which figure above shows the effect of a technological advance in the production of pizza?
Figure A
Figure B
Figure C
Figure D
Both Figure A and Figure D
Question 14
Suppose over the next several years the productivity of firms producing electric cars improves dramatically. The advance in productivity leads to
an increase in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts leftward.
a decrease in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts rightward.
an increase in the supply electric cars so that the supply curve shifts rightward.
no change in the supply of electric cars, only a change in the quantity supplied of electric cars.
a decrease in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts leftward.
Question 15
If good weather conditions result in a larger than normal crop of peaches, then the
equilibrium price of peaches falls, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches decreases.
equilibrium price of peaches falls, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches increases.
equilibrium price of peaches rises, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches increases.
demand curve for peaches shifts leftward.
increase in the supply of peaches induces a greater demand for peaches, so that the equilibrium price rises and the equilibrium quantity increases.
Question 16
People eat at restaurants less often when their incomes fall because of a recession. Eating at restaurants must be
a complement to other goods.
an inelastic good.
an inferior good.
a normal good.
a substitute for other goods.
Question 17
Which of the following increases the supply of a product?
some producers going bankrupt and leaving the industry
an increase in the expected future price of the product
a higher price for the product
lower prices for the resources used to produce the product
a decrease in productivity
Question 18
If a 30 percent price increase generates a 20 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then demand is
perfectly inelastic.
inelastic.
perfectly elastic.
unit elastic.
elastic.
Question 19
Suppose the San Francisco 49ers lower ticket prices by 15 percent and as a result the quantity of tickets demanded increases by 10 percent. This set of results shows that San Francisco 49ers tickets have
an elastic demand.
a unit elastic demand.
an inelastic supply.
an elastic supply.
an inelastic demand.
Question 20
In the above figure, the movement from point a to point b reflects
a decrease in the cost of the tomato sauce used to produce pizza.
a decrease in income if pizza is a normal good.
an increase in the number of producers of pizza.
an increase in the supply of pizza.
an increase in the price of pizza.
Question 21
If the automobile workers’ union successfully negotiates a wage increase for its members, how does the wage hike affect the supply of automobiles?
The quantity supplied decreases.
The supply and quantity supplied decreases.
The quantity supplied increases.
The supply decreases.
The supply increases.
Question 22
In the above figure, the shift in the demand curve from D to D1 can be the result of
a decrease in income if pizza is a normal good.
an increase in the price of a sub sandwich, a substitute for pizza.
an increase in the price of soda, a complement to pizza.
an increase in the price of pizza.
a change in quantity demanded.
Question 23
Patrick lives near two gas stations, Exxon and Shell. If Exxon decreases the price of gas, we predict that the quantity of gasoline demanded at Shell will
increase because Exxon and Shell gas are substitutes.
decrease because Exxon and Shell gas are substitutes.
not change Exxon and Shell are different brands of gasoline.
increase because Exxon and Shell gas are complements.
decrease because Exxon and Shell gas are complements.
Question 24
Pizza is a normal good. Which figure above shows the effect of a decrease in consumers’ incomes?
Figure A
Figure B
Figure C
Figure D
Both Figure B and Figure C
Question 25
Suppose improvements in technology cause the supply of natural gas to increase and at the same time the demand for natural gas increases. What are we sure of?
Equilibrium price decreases.
Both equilibrium price and quantity increase.
Equilibrium price increases.
Equilibrium quantity decreases.
Equilibrium quantity increases.
Question 26
Consider the market for smart phones. Which of the following shifts the demand curve rightward?
an increase in the price of smart phones
a decrease in the price of smart phones
a decrease in the number of smart phone buyers
an increase in the supply of smart phones
an increase in the price of land-line phone service, a substitute for smart phones
Question 27
Price
(dollars per gallon)
Quantity demanded
(gallon per gasoline)
Quantity supplied
(gallon per gasoline)
3.73
337,562
443,074
3.63
396,398
428,008
3.65
412,031
412,031
3.62
417,899
392,665
The table above shows the situation in the gasoline market in Tulsa, Oklahoma. If the price of a gallon of gasoline is $2.20, then
There is neither a surplus nor a shortage, but the market is NOT in equilibrium.
the gasoline market in Tulsa is in equilibrium.
Without more information we cannot determine if there is a surplus, a shortage, or an equilibrium in the gasoline market in Tulsa.
there is a shortage of gasoline in Tulsa.
there is a surplus of gasoline in Tulsa.
Question 28
If a 10 percent price increase generates a 10 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then demand is
elastic.
perfectly elastic.
perfectly inelastic.
inelastic.
unit elastic.
Question 29
The law of supply reflects the fact that
suppliers have an incentive to use their resources in the way that brings the biggest return.
the demand curve is downward sloping.
higher prices are more attractive to consumers because they signal a higher quality product.
people buy more of a good when its price falls.
businesses can sell more goods at lower prices.
Question 30
In the above figure, an increase in cost of the cheese used to produce pizza
Question 1. The country of Uncoordinated requires 5 units of labor to produce one unit of corn and 10
units of labor to produce one unit of housing. Uncoordinated has 100 total units of labor
available. Uncoordinated has Leontief preferences (right-angle indifference curves) with the bend at equal shares of housing and corn. The country of Gifted requires 1 unit of labor to produce one unit of corn and 1 unit of labor to produce one unit of housing. Gifted has 10 units of labor available and Leontief preferences (right-angle
indifference curves) with the bend at 2 units of corn for every unit
of housing.
The country of Gifted requires 1 unit of labor to produce one unit of corn and 1 unit of labor to produce one unit of housing. Gifted has 10 units of labor available and Leontief preferences (right-angle indifference curves) with the bend at 2 units of corn for every unit of housing.
a)
Find the autarky levels of output for both countries.
b)
Identify which country has the comparative advantage in the production of each of the
goods.
c)
Identify which country has the absolute advantage in the production of each of the
goods.
d)
Develop a scheme of international trade that leaves both countries better off. In other
words, show how specialization and trade can generate higher levels of
consumption.
e)
Is the scheme developed in (d) the only possible welfare improving trade outcome?
Why or why not?
2)
How would a vacation to Disneyland by Russian tourists be classified in by the BOP
accounts? What if the same vacation were taken by U.S. tourists?
1)
Explain how the Stolper-Samuelson theorem indicates that free trade will (likely) worsen income inequality in the US,but (likely) narrow it for Mexico.
2)
Explain how international factor flows (capital or labor) can substitute for international trade.
3)
Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events.
Imposition of a tariff on a small, perfectly competitive market
Imposition of a tariff on a small, imperfectly competitive market
Imposition o
f a tariff on a large, perfectly competitive market
4)
Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events.
a.
Imposition of a quota on a small, perfectly competitive market
Imposition of a quota on a small, imperfectly competitive market
5)
If th
e US is a large importing country and imposes a tariff on the import of a good, what will
the welfare effect on the exporting country be?
HR MANAGEMENT DISCUSSION
Watch the video titled “Fruit Guys ─ Strategy,”* also located in the Learn section of Week 3 of your Blackboard course. Identify two or three (2-3) businesses that could use the five (5) questions the Fruit Guys used to determine effectiveness. Provide a rationale for your answer. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
Considering the Impact of Competition on HRM Within a Real Business (10 Points)
Pick an organization that you are familiar with and do a competitive environmental scan for it. Then answer and discuss the following questions:
How does the competitive environment for the company affect the organization’s HR function?
Which strategy would be best suited to address the effects discussed?
Provide a rationale for your answers. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
*Note: Flash Player must be enabled in your browser to view this video.
HR MANAGEMENT Assisgnment 1
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company, and a female employee came to you upset because she felt a male coworker was creating a hostile work environment by repeatedly asking her out on dates even after she said “no”. What would you do?
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
Formulate the conversation you would have with the employee, based the concepts found in Chapter 2 in your textbook.
Summarize the conversation you would have with the employee’s male co-worker, based on the concepts found in Chapter 2 of your textbook.
Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
magine you are the HR manager at a company, and a female employee came to you upset because she felt a male coworker was creating a hostile work environment by repeatedly asking her out on dates even after she said “no”. What would you do?
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
Formulate the conversation you would have with the employee, based the concepts found in Chapter 2 in your textbook.
Summarize the conversation you would have with the employee’s male co-worker, based on the concepts found in Chapter 2 of your textbook.
Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
Week 5 discussion
Discuss the pros and cons of firewall deployments by answering the following questions:
• What are the relevant issues surrounding firewall deployments How does one balance security requirements with usability requirements?
Summarize your thoughts in a Microsoft Word document checking for spelling and grammar, then submit it directly (cut & paste) into the discussion thread. Respond to at least two other students’ views to engage in a meaningful debate regarding their posts or to defend your post.
Required Resources
• Textbook and Internet
• Handout: Firewall Implementation Planning
Submission Requirements
• Format: Please enter directly into the Discussion Question window
• Citation Style: Follow APA
Define public community health.
HA560-1: Identify the role of assessment in public health.
HA560-5: Evaluate information used to make public health decisions.
PC-5.1: Use language that is clear, concise, and organized.
This is Part 1 to the assignments throughout this course. All of your assignments tie into each other, so read ahead to Units 4, 6 & 8 to understand what is expected of you for each assignment.
Instructions:
Answer the following questions concerning the role of assessment of public health:
Define public community health. How does this differ from personal health What are the benefits of public health assessments? What are the disadvantages, if any? Give an example of a potential conflict within the community that could arise as a result of public health assessments. How can public health advocates and policy makers prevent and/or manage such a conflict?
How can public health assessments be used to form public policy?
Choose one health concern and cite legislation that has been passed to address this concern. Discuss how this legislation has affected or could affect your
You may choose one of the following or one of your own choosing:
Smoking in public places
Accessibility for physically handicapped populations
CIS110 Week 10 Technical Paper Object-oriented Programming (OOP) / Event-Driven Programming (EDP) versus Procedural Programming (PP)
Identify at least two (2) advantages to using OOP as compared to using only PP.
Create one (1) original example of a class with at least one (1) attribute and one (1) method. Identify what the class in question represents, the attributes the class stores, and the purpose of the related method. Next, examine the relationship between the class, attributes, and methods that you have identified.
Describe at least one (1) feature of object-oriented programming that Visual Logic lacks.
Identify at least one (1) advantage to using event-driven programming, as compared to using purely procedural programming.
Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note:Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Conduct some independent research
Researchers are increasingly looking for answers as allergic diseases continue to rise in the population. The predominant explanation, coined the “hygiene hypothesis” by Professor David Strachan in 1989, states that a lack of early childhood exposure to microbes and other infectious agents increases susceptibility to allergic diseases by suppressing the natural development of the immune system. The idea was widely reported by the media that developed societies, like the United States, have become “too clean”.
Read the following article about the hygiene hypothesis to learn more, then answer the questions below in your initial post:
Bradford, A. (2016). What is the Hygiene Hypothesis? Live Science. Accessed at http://www.livescience.com/54078-hygiene-hypothesis.html on September 14, 2016.
Conduct some independent research on the hygiene hypothesis. What contradictory evidence against the hypothesis can you find?
Have any new hypotheses been proposed to explain the increase in allergic conditions? How does it support the original hygiene hypothesis?
Do you think the hygiene hypothesis needs to be renamed? Why or why not?
Find an article on the Internet, outline
Find an article on the Internet, outline a security breach or cyberattack. Provide a link to the article and suggest a control that would mitigate against that attack. Clearly explain why that control would be an effective mitigation strategy.
HIEU Lecture Quiz 5
According to “Christendom,” which of the following is NOT true of serfs and peasants under manorialism?
Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Byzantine and Islamic Civilizations,” before the advent of Islam, which best describes the people living on the Arabian peninsula?
Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Christendom,” another name for medieval Western Europe is
Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Byzantine and Islamic Civilizations,” which of the following was the major religion in the Latin West and in the Byzantine Empire?
Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Christendom,” the lord-vassal relationship
Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False, According to “Byzantine and Islamic Civilizations,” once Islam got started it spread in the East at the same time that Christianity was spreading in the West.
Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Christendom,” one way in which the “barbarian” influence is evident today is in
Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Christendom,” the most influential figure of early medieval Western Europe was
Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Christendom,” one of the influences from the classical world that shaped the medieval West was
Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Byzantine and Islamic Civilizations,” which of the following codified Roman law and was considered one of Justinian I’s greatest contributions to Western civilization?
This course has suggested that when we “pivot the center” to make diverse groups of people the subject of our historical analysis, we can obtain a new perspective on important events in American history. By pivoting the center of post-war history to emphasize the shared history of non-white Americans, we have traced a “wide civil rights movement” that emphasizes cooperation and coalitions between groups fighting for equality in the United States up until the present day.
How does pivoting the center to the experience of non-white Americans give us a new perspective on the relationship between World War II and the Civil Rights movement? In what ways did the experience of non-white Americans during and after World War II motivate a new focus on obtaining civil rights? How did the success of the African American civil rights movement in overturning Jim Crow segregation in the Southern states inspire other groups such as Mexican Americans, Asian Americans, women, gay Americans, and Native Americans to fight for equal access to the rights and privileges of their country? What were the most significant changes that these groups were able to make to their rights and opportunities?
Identify the impact of government policies on diverse groups of people in American society. From the lists below of government policies and groups of people that were affected by them, choose FIVE combinations (e.g. the impact of the New Deal on African Americans) to identify the impact of the policy on the particular group. For each combination you choose write ONE paragraph identifying the policy, explainingits impact on the particular group, and expanding on the long-term implications of this policy for this group. You can use each group or policy more than once to make combinations. Each identification is worth 10 points.
Government policies:
1924 Immigration Act
The New Deal
World War II
1948 Perez v Sharp Decision
Civil Rights Act 1964
Groups of people:
African Americans
Women
Mexican Americans
Asian Americans
White ethnic Americans (eg Italians, Poles, Russians, Jews)
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8 complete solutions correct answers key
More than 3 different versions
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” what factors listed below contributed to European expansion?
Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” there were important links between the Renaissance and the Reformation. Which of the following was part of that connection?
Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following best represents the significance of the Peace of Augsburg of 1555?
Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” Prince Henry the Navigator:
Question 5
According to “Reformation in Europe,” Reformation in France was characterized by
Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Age of Discovery,” one of the most important economic theories that contributed to European expansion was mercantile capitalism.
Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” the early Jesuits viewed themselves as
Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” which of the following most accurately reflects the history of the Catholic Church prior to 1650?
Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” there were two major developments that strengthened the movement in the 1500s. They were
Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” while historians disagree over which events were most important, most agree that the changes in the Catholic Church in the 16th century were almost exclusively a reaction to the Protestant Reformation.
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT included in the discussion of Luther’s teachings in the lecture presentation on the Protestant Reformation?
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following contributed to the papal crisis of credibility?
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following does NOT accurately describe Martin Luther?
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT part of the context for reform?
According to “Reformation in Europe,” who started the teachings of the Reformation in Switzerland?
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT true of John Wycliffe and Jan Hus?
According to “The Age of Discovery,” which of the following was an effect of European expansion?
According to “Catholic Reformation,” Cardinal Cisneros of Spain believed that the key to improving the quality of the clergy was
Supplemental Assignment 2 Instructions
ou will take an active part (e.g., spend half a day volunteering/helping out) in a community outreach activity (not a university or church activity unless it is an activity that reaches out to the community) of your choosing, which will familiarize you with the needs of the community. Some examples of activities include volunteering at a shelter, a camp, a recreation center, a home for girls or boys, a soup kitchen, a clothing bank, a detoxification center, a tutoring center for younger children, a vocational rehabilitation center, Habitat for Humanity, a minority community center, etc. After the completion of the activity, you will document your experience by writing a paper. The paper will be written in current APA format and will include one title page, one abstract page, two full pages of text, and one reference page. The paper will explain in detail: (1) the experience (what was observed, how it affected you), (2) what was learned from the project (what the community’s needs are, what ethics are in place, how you can help make a difference), and (3) a discussion of two course concepts that relate to your observations. For number three (3), cite two empirical studies from the research literature that address each one of the two course concepts discussed relating to sociocultural diversity that you observed in the outreach activity. Make sure to cite each of these concepts in correct APA format.
Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health
Read the “Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health” article. (link below)
In this quantitative study, the authors attempted to investigate the possible relationship between two spirituality variables (religious coping styles and spiritual well-being) and two psychological variables (anxiety and depression). Also studied were differences between those who self-disclosed a spiritual/religious identity and those who did not. Their data analysis concluded that individuals who reported a high use of religious coping styles also reported high levels of spiritual well-being.
The authors felt a limitation of their study was in defining ‘spirituality.’ State how that can be an obstacle in doing religious counseling.
The authors state, “Spiritual well-being can clearly incorporate God into ones’ life while also incorporating self-reliance.” Is this not a seeming contradiction? Give your thoughts on this.
Journal Article Critique Grading Rubric
Criteria
Points Possible
Points
Earned
Length
0 to 45 points
The critique contains at least 3 pages of text as well as a title page, abstract page, and reference page (that only includes the citation of the article chosen).
Form
0 to 70 points
· The student will chose a scholarly journal article from the References section of the textbook.
· The critique includes a succinct abstract detailing an in-depth summation of the article.
· The first 1½ pages address the content of the article (The Summary—this will be your first heading), and second 1½ pages address your critical thoughts on the content (The Critique—this will be your second heading).
· The Christian worldview is integrated in the critique. (If you leave this piece out, or are too ‘peripheral’ in your analysis, points will be deducted).
Current APA Style
0 to 40 points
The paper is in current APA format.
Mechanics
0 to 45 points
· The critique is free of grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors.
· The chosen article comes from the References section of the textbook. (If not, it is an automatic ‘F’).
· The chosen article is scholarly and not from a newspaper, magazine, newsletter, book/article review, or editor’s comments on an edition. (If not, it is an automatic ‘F’).
· The critique is at least 3 full pages of text.
Total
Journal Article Critique
You will summarize and critique 1 scholarly journal article from the ‘References’ section of the course textbook. You must use a journal article—no book or article reviews, books, magazine articles, newspaper articles, newsletters, or editor’s comments/summary of an edition will be accepted. The Journal Article Critique must be at least 3-4 pages, not including the title, abstract, and reference pages, and must be in current APA format. You must integrate a biblical worldview.
Ro, M. (2002) Moving Forward: Addressing the health of Asian American and Pacific Islander women. American Journal of Public Health, 92, 516-519.
PSYC 341 Week 6 Essay
Examine McCrae and Costa’s 5-factor model of personality. Pick 1 of the factor’s listed (extraversion, neuroticism, openness, agreeableness, or conscientiousness) and describe 1 person in Scripture that you would consider to be high in that area and 1 person in Scripture that you would consider to be low in that area. Please use the same factor for both people and support your stance with Scripture.
SPSS ASSIGNMENT
The following fiveresearch questions can be answered using one of the eighttests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samplest-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed.The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A)SPSS output, and B)Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable):Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.
DB forum 3 psyc 351
Topic: Counseling, Disability, and Advocacy
Please read the article “Lived employment experiences of college students and graduates with physical disabilities in the United States” found in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 5, and then answer the below prompt:
Scenario: Ruth is a 24-year-old woman who, due to a tragic car accident at the age of 9, is now paralyzed from the waist down and is in a wheelchair. She graduated from Liberty University with her bachelor’s degree in psychology and now lives in Baltimore, Maryland with her close friend as a roommate. Ruth has been looking for a job in the area since they moved there 6 months ago, but has not yet had any luck finding a job. This is frustrating for her because she wants to be able to provide her side of the rent for the apartment, but without a job, her roommate has had to contribute to the rent, food, utilities, etc. Due to her situation, Ruth finds she is discouraged, depressed, and feeling worthless. She comes to you for counseling.
As a counselor, how would you help Ruth with this challenge? As part of your assistance, would you offer vocational counseling also? In your initial conversation, Ruth discloses that she has encountered discrimination based on disability as two potential employers rejected her application for employment based strictly on her wheelchair status, stating that bringing her in as an employee would put an undue burden on their business in terms of special accommodation for her disability (e.g., parking, bathroom [stalls, sinks], ramps into the building). How would you address this disclosure?
Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday, and submit your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday.
Examine McCrae and Costa’s 5-factor model of personality. Pick 1 of the factor’s listed (extraversion, neuroticism, openness, agreeableness, or conscientiousness) and describe 1 person in Scripture that you would consider to be high in that area and 1 person in Scripture that you would consider to be low in that area. Please use the same factor for both people and support your stance with Scripture.
Discussion Board Forum- PSYC 351
Topic: Stages of Displacement – The Immigration Experience of Latinos- MUST BE OVER 250 words
Read the “Stages of Displacement – The Immigration Experience of Latinos” article found in the Reading & Study folder.
In this qualitative study, the authors attempted to investigate the following research question: What are the displacement stages of Latinos immigrating to the United States? Their data analysis concluded 5 distinct stages of displacement for Latino immigrants: 1. Seeking Opportunities, 2. Emotional Reactions, 3. Adjustment, 4. Rationalization, and 5. Acknowledgement.
Assignment: Write 1 theme the authors found for each stage. Although there is more than 1 theme per stage, cite only 1 per stage for this assignment. State how you as a counselor, counseling a Latino client who shares his or her immigration experience with you, would use your client’s disclosure to develop the therapeutic alliance. Connect your response to the article.
CSIA 413 Project #4- Red Clay Renovations IT Audit Policy & Plans
Project #4: IT Audit Policy and Plans
Company Background & Operating Environment
Red Clay Renovations is an internationally recognized, awarding winning firm that specializes in the renovation and rehabilitation of residential buildings and dwellings. The company specializes in updating homes using “smart home” and “Internet of Things” technologies while maintaining period correct architectural characteristics. Please refer to the company profile (file posted in Week 1 > Content > CSIA 413 Red Clay Renovations Company Profile.docx) for additional background information and information about the company’s operating environment.
The corporate board was recently briefed by the Chief Information Officer concerning the company’s IT Security Program and how this program contributes to the company’s risk management strategy. During the briefing, the CIO presented assessment reports and audit findings from IT security audits. These audits focused upon the technical infrastructure and the effectiveness and efficiency of the company’s implementation of security controls. During the discussion period, members of the corporate board asked about audits of policy compliance and assessments as to the degree that employees were (a) aware of IT security policies and (b) complying with these policies. The Chief Information Officer was tasked with providing the following items to the board before its next quarterly meeting:
(a) Issue Specific Policy requiring an annual compliance audit for IT security policies as documented in the company’s Policy System
(b) Audit Plan for assessing employee awareness of and compliance with IT security policies
Are employees aware of the IT security policies in the Employee Handbook?
Do employees know their responsibilities under those policies?
(c) Audit Plan for assessing the IT security policy system
Do required policies exist?
Have they been updated within the past year?
Are the policies being reviewed and approved by the appropriate oversight authorities (managers, IT governance board, etc.)?
Your Task Assignment
As a staff member supporting the CISO, you have been asked to research this issue (auditing IT security policy compliance) and then prepare an “approval draft” for a compliance policy. You must also research and draft two separate audit plans (a) employee compliance and (b) policy system audit. The audit policy should not exceed two typed pages in length so you will need to be concise in your writing and only include the most important elements for the policy. Make sure that you include a requirement for an assessment report to be provided to company management and the corporate board of directors.
For the employee compliance assessment, you must use an interview strategy which includes 10 or more multiple choice questions that can be used to construct a web-based survey of all employees. The questions should be split between (a) awareness of key policies and (b) awareness of personal responsibilities in regards to compliance.
For the policy system audit, you should use a documentation assessment strategy which reviews the contents of the individual policies to determine when the policy was last updated, who “owns” the policy, who reviewed the policy, and who approved the policy for implementation.
Research:
Review the weekly readings including the example audit assessment report.
Review work completed previously in this course which provides background about the IT Policy System and specific policies for the case study company.
Find additional resources which discuss IT compliance audits and/or policy system audits.
Write:
Prepare briefing package with approval drafts of the three required documents. Place all three documents in a single MS Word (.doc or .docx) files.
Your briefing package must contain the following:
Executive Summary
“Approval Drafts” for
o Issue Specific Policy for IT Security Policy Compliance Audits
o Audit Plan for IT Security Policy Awareness & Compliance (Employee Survey)
o Audit Plan for IT Security Policies Audit (Documentation Review)
As you write your policy and audit plans, make sure that you address security issues using standard cybersecurity terminology (e.g. 5 Pillars of IA, 5 Pillars of Information Security). See the resources listed under Course Resources > Cybersecurity Concepts Review for definitions and terminology.
Use a professional format for your policy documents and briefing package. Your policy documents should be consistently formatted and easy to read.
Common phrases do not require citations. If there is doubt as to whether or not information requires attribution, provide a footnote with publication information or use APA format citations and references.
You are expected to write grammatically correct English in every assignment that you submit for grading. Do not turn in any work without (a) using spell check, (b) using grammar check, (c) verifying that your punctuation is correct and (d) reviewing your work for correct word usage and correctly structured sentences and paragraphs.
Submit For Grading
Submit briefing package in MS Word format (.docx or .doc file) for grading using your assignment folder.
WARNING: YOU MUST PARAPHRASE INFORMATION USED IN THIS ASSIGNMENT. Copy/Paste is only allowed for the names and designators of security controls and/or control families. All other information used in this assignment must be rewritten into your own words.
Company Background & Operating Environment
Red Clay Renovations is an internationally recognized, awarding winning firm that specializes in the renovation and rehabilitation of residential buildings and dwellings. The company specializes in updating homes using “smart home” and “Internet of Things” technologies while maintaining period correct architectural characteristics. Please refer to the company profile (file posted in Week 1 > Content > CSIA 413 Red Clay Renovations Company Profile.docx) for background information and information about the company’s operating environment. In addition to the information from the company profile, you should:
Use the Baltimore field office as the target for the System Security Plan
Use Verizon FiOS as the Internet Services Provider (seehttp://www.verizonenterprise.com/terms/us/products/internet/sla/ )
Policy Issue & Plan of Action
A recent risk assessment highlighted the need to formalize the security measures required to protect information, information systems, and the information infrastructures for the company’s field offices. This requirement has been incorporated into the company’s risk management plan and the company’s CISO has been tasked with developing, documenting, and implementing the required security measures. The IT Governance board also has a role to play since it must review and approve all changes which affect IT systems under its purview.
The CISO has proposed a plan of action which includes developing system security plans using guidance from NIST SP-800-18 Guide for Developing Security Plans for Federal Information Systems. The IT Governance board, after reviewing the CISO’s proposed plan of action, voted and accepted this recommendation. In its discussions prior to the vote, the CISO explained why the best practices information for security plans from NIST SP 800-18 was suitable for the company’s use. The board also accepted the CISO’s recommendation for creating a single System Security Plan for a General Support System since, in the CISO’s professional judgement, this type of plan would best meet the “formalization” requirement from the company’s recently adopted risk management strategy.
Your Task Assignment
As a staff member supporting the CISO, you have been asked to research and then draft the required system security plan for a General Support System. In your research so far, you have learned that:
A general support system is defined as “an interconnected set of information resources under the same direct management control that shares common functionality.” (See NIST SP 800-18)
The Field Office manager is the designated system owner for the IT support systems in his or her field office.
The system boundariesfor the field office General Support System have already been documented in the company’s enterprise architecture (see the case study).
The security controls required for the field office IT systems have been documented in a security controls baseline (see the controls baseline attached to this assignment).
Section 13 of this document will take you the most time to research and write because it requires the most original writing on your part. You must write a description for EACH CONTROL CATEGORY (managerial, operational, and technical). Then, paste in the table from the Security Controls Baseline. THEN, write a descriptive paragraph explaining how these specific controls will work together to protect the Red Clay Renovations IT Infrastructure for the Baltimore Field Office.
URLs for Recommended Resources For This Project
Title
Type
Link
Service Level Agreement (SLA) Internet Dedicated Services | Verizon Enterprise
Review the information provided in the case study and in this assignment, especially the information about the field offices and the IT systems and networks used in their day to day business affairs.
Review NIST’s guidance for developing a System Security Planfor a general support IT System. This information is presented in
NIST SP 800-12 R1https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-12r1.pdfPay special attention to Chapter 2 and Section 5.4
NIST SP 800-18.http://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/Legacy/SP/nistspecialpublication800-18r1.pdfPay special attention to the Sample Information System Security Plantemplate provided in Appendix A.
Review the definitions for IT Security control families as documented in NIST SP 800-12 R1 Chapter 10.https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-12r1.pdf
Review the definitions for individual controls as listed in Appendix FSecurity Control Catalog in NIST SP 800-53 Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations.http://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-53r4.pdf You should focus on those controls listed in the security controls baseline provided with this assignment.
Write:
Use the following guidance to complete the System Security Plan using the template from Appendix A of NIST SP 800-18.
Sections 1 through 10 will contain information provided in the assigned case study. You may need to “interpret” that information when writing the descriptions. “Fill in the blanks” for information about the company or its managers which is not provided in the case study, i.e. names, email addresses, phone numbers, etc.). Make sure that your fictional information is consistent with information provided in the case study (name of company, locations, etc.).
Section 11 should contain information about the field office’s Internet connection Do not include the table. Use the business Internet Services Provider listed at the top of this assignment file. Describe the system interconnection type in this section and service level agreement.
Section 12 should contain information derived from the case study. You will need to identify the types of information processed in the field office and then list the laws and regulations which apply. For example, if the case study company processes or stores Protected Health Information, then this section must include information about HIPAA. If the company processes or stores credit card payment information, then this section must include information about the PCI-DSS requirements.
Section 13 of the SSP will take the most research and writing time. You MUST provide the required descriptive paragraphs for the three categories AND the explanations as to how the security controls within the control families will be used to secure the IT infrastructure. You MUST use the selected security control families and security controls as provided security controls baseline.
Create 3 sub sections (13.1 Management Controls, 13.2 Operational Controls, and 13.3 Technical Controls). You must provide a description for each category (see the definitions provided in Annex 11.B Minimum Security Controls in NIST SP 800-100 Information Security Handbook: A Guide for Managers).
Using the information provided in the security controls baseline, place the required control families and controls under the correct sub section.
iii. Use the exact names and designators for the security control families and individual security controls. BUT, you MUST paraphrase any and all descriptions. Do NOT cut and paste from NIST documents.
Section 14: use the due date for this assignment as the plan complete date.
Section 15: leave the approval date blank. You will not have any other text in this section (since the plan is not yet approved).
Use a professional format for your System Security Plan. Your document should be consistently formatted throughout and easy to read.
Common phrases do not require citations. If there is doubt as to whether or not information requires attribution, provide a footnote with publication information or use APA format citations and references.
You are expected to write grammatically correct English in every assignment that you submit for grading. Do not turn in any work without (a) using spell check, (b) using grammar check, (c) verifying that your punctuation is correct and (d) reviewing your work for correct word usage and correctly structured sentences and paragraphs.
Submit For Grading
Submit your System Security Plan in MS Word format (.docx or .doc file) for grading using your assignment folder.
CSIA 413 6380 Cyber Security Policy Plans And Programs
Project #2: Manager’s Deskbook
Company Background & Operating Environment
Red Clay Renovations is an internationally recognized, awarding winning firm that specializes in the renovation and rehabilitation of residential buildings and dwellings. The company specializes in updating homes using “smart home” and “Internet of Things” technologies while maintaining period correct architectural characteristics. Please refer to the company profile (file posted in Week 1 > Content > CSIA 413 Red Clay Renovations Company Profile.docx) for additional background information and information about the company’s operating environment.
Policy Issue & Plan of Action
The Manager’s Deskbook contains issue specific policies and implementation procedures which are required to mitigate risks to the company and to otherwise ensure good governance of the company’s operations. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) and key CISO staff members held a kick-off meeting last week to identify issue specific policies which should be added to the company’s policy system in the IT Governance category. The policies will be disseminated throughout the company by incorporating them into the Manager’s Deskbook. The required issue specific policies are:
Data Breach Response Policy
Preventing / Controlling Shadow IT Policy
Management and Use of Corporate Social Media Accounts Policy
For the purposes of this assignment, you will create a policy recommendations briefing package (containing an Executive Summary and draft policies) and submit that to your instructor for grading.
Note: In a “real world” environment, the policy recommendations briefing package would be submitted to the IT Governance board for discussion and vetting. After revisions and voting, a package containing the accepted policies would be sent to all department heads and executives for comment and additional vetting. These comments would be combined and integrated into the policies and sent out for review again. It usually takes several rounds of review and comments before the policies can be sent to the Chief of Staff’s office for forwarding to the Corporate Governance Board. During the review & comments period, the policies will also be subjected to a thorough legal review by the company’s attorneys. Upon final approval by the Corporate Governance Board, the policies will be adopted and placed into the Manager’s Deskbook. This entire process can take 9 to 12 months, if not longer.
Your Task Assignment
As a staff member supporting the CISO, you have been asked to research and then draft an issue specific policy for each of the identified issues (three separate policies). These policies are to be written for MANAGERS and must identify the issue, explain what actions must be taken to address the issue (the company’s “policy”), state the required actions to implement the policy, and name the responsible / coordinating parties (by level, e.g. department heads, or by title on the organization chart).
After completing your research and reviewing sample policies from other organizations, you will then prepare an “approval draft” for each issue specific policy.
The purpose of each issue specific policyis to address a specific IT governance issue that requires cooperation and collaboration between multiple departments within an organization.
Each issue specific policyshould be no more than two typed pages in length (single space paragraphs with a blank line between).
You will need to be concise in your writing and only include the most important elements for each policy.
You may refer to an associated “procedure” if necessary, e.g. a Procedure for Requesting Issuance of a Third Level Domain Name (under the company’s Second Level Domain name) or a Procedure for Requesting Authorization to Establish a Social Media Account.
Your “approval drafts” will be combined with a one page Executive Summary (explaining why these issue specific policies are being brought before the IT Governance Board).
Research:
Review NIST’s definition of an “Issue Specific Policy” and contents thereof in NIST SP 800-12 Section 5.3. This document provides information about the content of an issue specific policy (as compared to comprehensive system and enterprise security policies).
Review the weekly readings and resource documents posted in the classroom. Pay special attention to the resources which contain “issues” and “best practices” information for:
Data Breach Response
Preventing / Controlling Shadow IT
Social Media
Review NIST guidance for required / recommended security controls (see NIST SP 800-12, NIST SP 800-53, and NIST SP 800-100). Some suggested control families are:
Access Control (AC) control family (for Social Media policy)
Incident Response (IR) control family (for Data Breach policy)
System and Services Acquisition (SA) control family (Domain Name, Shadow IT, Website Governance)
Find and review additional authoritative / credible sources on your own which provide information about IT security issues (related to data breaches / responses, shadow IT, and/or social media use) which require policy solutions.
URLs for Recommended Resources
Title
Type
Link
NIST SP 800-100 Information Security Handbook: A Guide for Managers
PDF
https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-100
NIST SP 800-12: An Introduction to Information Security
Prepare briefing package with approval drafts of the three IT related policies for the Manager’s Deskbook. Your briefing package must contain the following:
Executive Summary
“Approval Drafts” for
o Data Breach Response Policy
o Preventing / Controlling Shadow IT Policy
o Management and Use of Corporate Social Media Accounts Policy
As you write your policies, make sure that you address IT and cybersecurity concepts using standard terminology.
Use a professional format for your policy documents and briefing package. Your policy documents should be consistently formatted and easy to read.
Common phrases do not require citations. If there is doubt as to whether or not information requires attribution, provide a footnote with publication information or use APA format citations and references.
You are expected to write grammatically correct English in every assignment that you submit for grading. Do not turn in any work without (a) using spell check, (b) using grammar check, (c) verifying that your punctuation is correct and (d) reviewing your work for correct word usage and correctly structured sentences and paragraphs.
Submit For Grading
Submit your Manager’s Deskbook briefing package in MS Word format (.docx or .doc file) for grading using your assignment folder. (Attach the file.)
CIS 207 Information System Overview We interact with information systems every day. For example, libraries have systems that enable you to search for, reserve, and check out books; utilities maintain systems that enable customer service representatives to answer questions about your bill; and your grocery store checkout station is connected to multiple systems that enable the store executives to determine staffing levels, inventory levels, advertising, and promotion efforts.
Select an information system you use on a regular basis.
Create an overview that explains the following:
The type of the information system
The evolution of the selected type of information system. (e.g. the evolution of student financial aid systems in general)
How the information system affected jobs and careers. (e.g. before financial aid systems were developed and which jobs supported the function of financial aid that do not exist today due to technology)
The names of the components used and a description of the purpose or role of each. (Hint: Use information system components you learned so far.)
The benefits this system evolution has brought to you, the organization implementing the change, and other people or organizations within the community
Present your recommendation in one of the following ways:
A 2-page Microsoft® Word document
A 12- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with detailed speaker notes and appropriate animations
Note: You can include diagrams developed with Microsoft® Visio®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, or another software application approved by your Instructor if you feel it will enhance your recommendation.
Information System Overview
Individual: Information System Overview
Coms 101 persuasive speech
**** Please note My persusive speech is on music and how it can effect us spiritually and our minds. the file is just an example on how it should be set up
Sally Student
Course Title Section ____
October 12, 2015
Organization: Problem-Cause-Solution
Audience analysis: The audience is college age and older, from all around the country, and predominantly Christian. They tend toward conservative Christian values and beliefs and have a concern with what God requires of His people. Since all are online college students at a Christian university, their common needs will be college related and spiritually related. They will mostly likely provide a friendly reception, especially if they feel their needs can be met by listening.
Topic: The problem I aim to address is that of sleep deprivation in America and how it hinders people from fulfilling God’s purpose of leading healthy lives.
General Purpose: To persuade
Specific Purpose: The persuade my audience members that sleep deprivation is a serious problem and that they should avoid it by managing their time and becoming good stewards of the bodies God has given them.
Introduction:
Attention-Getter
(Alarm clock) We all know this familiar sound. How do you feel when your alarm clock goes off in the morning? Tempted to press snooze several times before finally getting up? If so, you are not alone.
Motive for Listening
Getting the right amount of sleep is vitally important. Without it, you are unlikely to reach your full potential and to achieve your goals with excellence.
III. Credibility Statement
As a Christian, college student, (former) working wife, and now pregnant mother, I personally understand the issue of sleep deprivation and how it can have detrimental effects on the body. I also understand how difficult it can be
to have time for everything in the day and how this takes discipline.
Thesis Statement
Sleep deprivation, as a common problem in America today, can have detrimental effects on society, but God calls his people to counter this problem in our own lives by utilizing good time management and discipline.
Preview Statement
I will validate this statement by discussing how sleep deprivation is a common problem, how the problem exists because people fail to deem it as important, and that a solution should be based around a Godly view of our bodies that urges us to be disciplined to manage our time better.
Transition: Let’s take a closer look at this important topic.
Body:
Main Point 1.Sleep deprivation is a common problem with detrimental effects.
Adults need 7–9 hours of sleep per night but the average American adult only gets about 6.9 hours (Drake, Kryger, Phillips, 2005).
Sleep deprivation causes cognitive and mood problems. A test by University of Pennsylvania that showed subjects who had gone 2 weeks with less than 6 hrs of sleep per night were just as impaired as people who had gone 48 hrs consecutively without sleep. (Epstein, 2010).
Sleep deprivation can also cause obesity. A University of Chicago study showed how sleep deprivation changes hormone secretion so that appetites increase, feeling of being full decreases, and the body’s response to sugar is altered. (Epstein, 2010).
Transition: This brings me to my second point.
Main Point 2.Despite these negative effects, Americans generally do not take their need for sleep very seriously.
Adults report the main reason they don’t get the sleep they need is that they are too busy. They know it’s a problem but they have trouble practicing healthy sleeping habits. (Key Findings, APA).
Adults wouldn’t have as much trouble getting more sleep if they simply would move good sleeping habits toward the top of their individual priority lists. I know from personal experience that if I fail to make something a priority and don’t see it as important, I likely will not do it well.
Transition: This brings me to my third and final point.
III. Main Point 3. The solution to the problem of sleep deprivation is to understand that God values our health and wants us to take care of the bodies He has given us.
1 Corinthians 6:19–20 reads, “Do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit…you are not your own…so glorify God in your body.” (ESV) As Christians, we must make it a priority to be good stewards of the body God has entrusted us with.
With this as our motivation, we understand that we must be good stewards of our time during the day so that we can be good stewards of our sleeping time at night.
Time management is key. This involves deliberately planning out your day, limiting potential distractions, saying no to non-essential tasks, and being disciplined enough to stick to your schedule. (Mayo Clinic, 2012)
Transition: This brings me to my conclusion.
Conclusion:
Summary
We see that Americans have a sleep deprivation problem. If we fail to get the sleep we need, we seriously risk doing harm to our bodies. This sleep problem exists largely because we refuse to make healthy sleeping habits our norm and to recognize that God expects us to take care of our bodies. The solution to this problem is to understand that getting enough sleep is our spiritual duty and to schedule our lives to be sure we are being faithful to God by practicing good sleep habits.
Call to Action
Take care of your body. Get the sleep your body needs in order for you to be as effective as you can be. Use your time deliberately and wisely.
III. Refocus Audience Attention:
I encourage you to analyze your own sleep habits. Make realistic goals for your day and give yourself enough time to get the sleep you need so that you are better able to glorify God with your body.
Drake, C., Kryger, M., & Phillips, B. (2005). Summary of Findings – Sleep Habits.
National Sleep Foundation, 1, 7.
Epstein, L. (2010, June 18). The Surprising Toll of Sleep Deprivation – Newsweek and
The Daily Beast. The Daily Beast. Retrieved from http://www.thedailybeast.com/newsweek/2010/06/18/the-surprising-toll-of-sleep-deprivation.html
Key Findings. American Psychological Association (APA). Retrieved from http://www.apa.org/news/press/releases/stress/key-findings.aspx
Time management: Tips to reduce stress and improve productivity. (2012, June 20).
Mayo Clinic. Retrieved from http://www.mayoclinic.com/health/time-management/wl00048
EFFECT OF SLAVE TRADE IN AFRICA
Though colonialism may have officially ended, the effects of colonialism are still very much present today. This is true in modern-day Africa.
Review the following resources for additional information on the slave trade in Africa:
Origins of African Slaves: Slave Trade Routes
Lasting Effects of Slavery on Africa
African Countries and Independence Dates
Select 1 of the following countries from which the most slaves originated:
Democratic Republic of the Congo
Ghana
Ivory Coast
Use this template to complete your paper:
For your selected country, identify the former colonial ruling country.
Identify your selected country’s date of independence from the colonial ruling country, and discuss the length of time the slave trade operated there.
Discuss how the depopulation and fractured familial relationships inherent in the slave trade have affected your chosen country. Be sure to support your discussion with relevant examples.
o Are these effects still felt today? If so, how? Provide examples.
Based on your review of this information, what conclusions can you draw about the slave trade and its effects on your selected country?
Based on your key findings and conclusions, what recommendations do you have to help improve the conditions in the country now? Make sure your recommendations:
o include specific interventions or strategies to address the issues and constraints identified
o are feasible (politically and operationally)
o are realistic (short- and long-term)
Utilize at least 2 credible sources to support the arguments presented in the paper. Make sure you cite them appropriately within your paper, and list them in APA format on your Reference page.
Your paper should be 4–5 pages in length, not counting the Title page and Reference page. In accordance with APA formatting requirements, your paper should include a Title and Reference page, should be double-spaced, and include a running head and page numbers.
References
Boddy-Evans, A. (2017, September 18). Chronological list of African independence. Retrieved from https://www.thoughtco.com/chronological-list-of-african-independence-4070467
Pruitt, S. (2016, May 3). What part of Africa did most slaves come from? HISTORY. Retrieved from http://www.history.com/news/ask-history/what-part-of-africa-did-most-slaves-come-from
Ross, W. (2007, March 29). Slavery’s long effects on Africa. BBC News. Retrieved from http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/africa/6504141.st
PSY 370 Assignment 2 LASA I—Amphetamine Use and Abuse
PSY 370 Assignment 2 LASA I—Amphetamine Use and Abuse
Aaliyah continues to struggle with balancing her work hours and her schoolwork. She has been drinking coffee to help her stay awake, but it is no longer working. She has an exam coming up and needs to stay up to study.
Aaliyah decides to take an amphetamine to stay awake to study for the exam. She promises herself that she will only take it this one time for the exam. The drug allows her to stay awake and alert while she is studying for the exam. She also feels that she is learning the material better as a result of the amphetamine. When the grades are in, Aaliyah receives an A on her work.
As the semester continues, Aaliyah turns to amphetamines more and more often to help her stay awake to complete her schoolwork. Soon, Aaliyah finds that one pill no longer keeps her awake as long as she needs.
She starts taking more than one pill at a time. She knows that taking amphetamines so often is not good for her health, and she finds she experiences an increase in headaches when she takes them, but she continues to take them because they are helping her be successful in school and at work.
Based on the case study, prepare a paper that addresses the following:
Examine the change in amphetamine use and abuse in the U.S. from the 1950s to the present.
Explain to which schedule amphetamines belong and why they are on the Schedule of Controlled Substances.
Explain the effects Aaliyah might be experiencing as a result of her regular amphetamine use. Be sure to include:
o Acute effects, chronic effects, and withdrawal
o Effects on physiology (brain and body), behavior, mood, and toxicity
Give at least three indications from the case study suggesting there may be a problem with Aaliyah’s substance use. That is, describe at least three likely behaviors that Aaliyah is likely to exhibit if she is misusing amphetamines.
Determine whether Aaliyah has a substance use disorder. Include a discussion of DSM criteria. Use the template to help you make the assessment.
Write a 4-5-page paper in Word format. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.
Examined the change in amphetamine use and abuse in the U.S. from the 1950s to the present.
24
Explained why amphetamine is on the Schedule of Controlled Substances and to which schedule it belongs.
20
Explained the acute, chronic, and withdrawal effects of amphetamines on physiology, behavior, mood, and toxicity.
40
Described at least 3 behaviors Aaliyah is likely to exhibit if she is misusing amphetamines.
40
Used DSM criteria to determine whether Aaliyah has a substance use disorder.
32
Style (4 points): Tone, audience, and word choice Organization (12 points):Introduction, transitions, and conclusion
Usage and Mechanics (12 points): Grammar, spelling, and sentence structure
APA Elements (16 points): In text citations and references, paraphrasing, and appropriate use of quotations and other elements of style
44
Total:
200
HHS 497 Week 2 Assignment Theory and Research Related to Social Issue
HHS 497 Week 2 Assignment Theory and Research Related to Social Issue
By now, you have had the opportunity to explore some of the fundamental elements of your social issue of interest. In this written assignment, you will now focus your attention on identifying and analyzing the scope of scholarly literature that addresses the social issue. Specifically, you will access the Ashford University Library, in addition to other scholarly content from previous coursework that might be pertinent (e.g., textbooks, research articles, etc.), to find sources that examine theoretical perspectives and relevant research that pertain to your selected topic.
This assignment will require that you develop a research-based report demonstrating theory and research methodology related to your social issue.
In your paper
• Describe two to three theories that relate to your topic area in some manner. To accommodate the broad
spectrum of social issues that might be explored, aim to find theories that attempt to explain some the following areas:
o Thereason(s)forwhythesocialissueexistsorpersists
o Factorsthatcontributetoit
o Social, environmental, political, or economic considerations that underlie it o Emergingalternativeviewpointsthatclarifytheissue
Critically evaluate the theories described, taking into account their benefits and limitations, as well as how health and human service organizations might use them to better understand the scope of the issue.
Describe two to three examples of research studies that have explored the issue. These studies must come from their original source; do not rely on literature reviews that summarize research conducted by others. Studies can examine any area related to the issue with the exception of interventions, as this will be addressed in the Week Three assignment. Examples include:
o Exploring the social issue’s impact on a specific group
o Identifying relationships between variables (Trochim, 2006) related to the issue
o Examining social attitudes and viewpoints through survey research (Trochim, 2006)
o Identifyingemergingtrends
o Exploring lived experiences or personal accounts using qualitative data (Trochim, 2006)
Analyze pertinent aspects related to the research studies, such as core aims/objectives, research methods used, findings, and implications for future research and/or practice.
The Theory and Research Related to Social Issue Paper
Must be three to four double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and
formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate title page with the following:
o Titleofpaper
o Student’sname
o Course name and number o Instructor’sname
o Datesubmitted
Must use at least five scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
o TheScholarly,PeerReviewed,andOtherCredibleSourcestableoffersadditionalguidanceon
appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.
Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the
HHS 497 Week 1 Assignment Background of Social Issues
HHS 497 Week 1 Assignment Background of Social Issues
Background of Social Issues. Due by Day 7. Throughout the course of your degree program, you have had the opportunity to examine various topical issues that are addressed by professionals in the health and human services field. To demonstrate your mastery of the program learning outcomes, you will synthesize your knowledge of various content areas related to a social issue of your choosing, and use this to develop an original intervention (i.e., strategy, technique, or application) to address this particular topic in your Final Paper. To facilitate in the development of this final assignment, you will prepare and submit the first of four written assignments, which will involve a thorough overview of your proposed social issue.
More specifically, your task will involve addressing the following content areas:
Identify a social issue that health and/or human service organizations address in some capacity and
discuss its current impact on group(s) affected by it. When selecting an area of focus, take into account broad topics that have been exhaustively scrutinized at the scholarly level, such as homelessness, mental health, aging, substance abuse, child welfare, etc. A good place to begin your search on an area of interest is the HHS A to Z Index.
Describe the historical underpinnings of this issue. Factors to consider include: where and how it originated, pertinent events and their dates, and its current status.
Discuss specific factors contributing to the social issue. Consider environmental, social, political, and economic reasons that have attempted to explain why this issue persists.
Evaluate the impact of this social issue on the delivery of health and human service efforts by reviewing the scholarly literature and relevant professional/governmental resources for evidence of formal responses in the form of policy implementation, legislation, or Acts related to this social issue. What impact has this had on how health and/or human service organizations provide support in terms of direct practice with clients and within communities?
At minimum, your submission must include three scholarly sources (excluding the required course readings), two of which must come from the Ashford University Library (e.g., articles, professional critiques, research reports, etc.). The third source can come from either the library or from a professional website ending in .gov.
The Background of Social Issues Paper
Must be three to four double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and
formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate title page with the following:
o Titleofpaper
o Student’sname
o Course name and number o Instructor’sname
o Datesubmitted
Must use at least three scholary sources (excluding the required course readings), two of which must come from within the Ashford University Library (e.g., articles, professional critiques, research reports, etc.). The third source can come from either the library or from a professional website ending in .gov).
o The Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources table offers additional guidance on appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.
Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the
Ashford Writing Center.
ETH 321 Assignment Week 3 Team Assignment Sexual Harassment Education for Managers
The purpose of this assignment is to define sexual harassment in the workplace and its negative effect on employees and the business, to analyze the requirements for a sexual harassment claim, to develop methods that a business can adopt to reduce or eliminate sexual harassment claims and litigation, and to assess liability based on the form of business entity.
Read the following scenario. High-profile sexual harassment scandals, such as allegations against Bill Cosby, Harvey Weinstein of the Weinstein Company, and Bill O’Reilly and Roger Aisles of Fox News, are changing the landscape of workplace sexual harassment claims and litigation.
Conduct a roundtable discussion (in person, web conference, or via e-mail, text, etc.) with your Learning Team members regarding sexual harassment as a growing ethical and legal concern for businesses today. Each Learning Team member must be prepared to discuss each topic. Assign a group moderator to keep the discussions on track. Your discussion should last at least 45 minutes to one hour and include the following:
Define sexual harassment and discuss applicable law (such as the Civil Rights Act of 1964). How does the state law in your state address sexual harassment?
Discuss a recent sexual harassment claim in the news and whether media coverage is beneficial or detrimental to reporting and reducing sexual harassment claims in the workplace. Should sexual harassment claims be addressed publicly or handled privately?
Explain the ethical and legal considerations of a business protecting its employees (the accuser, the accused, and other employees in the company) while a workplace sexual harassment investigation is underway. Does your answer change if the allegation is a widely known scandal-making front page news?
Compare the sexual harassment liability of a business entity that is a sole proprietorship with an entity that is a corporation.
Recommend risk management procedures a business can implement to avoid or reduce sexual harassment claims from occurring in the workplace.
Which of the following is NOT included in the stages of the Universal Model of Leadership?
Pathogenic.
Unitive.
Reactive.
Creative.
Integral.
Which of the following items is NOT on the path from Patriarchy to Partnership?
CEO creating whole systems.
Participative management.
Engagement.
Total quality management.
Self-managed teams
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship of structure to higher leadership performance?
To attain higher effectiveness, you must reach higher performance.
When we see extraordinary leadership, we see well-honed capability arising on a higher-order platform of competence.
Since performance determines structure, if you want to evolve to a higher order structure, you must reach higher performance.
To perform more masterfully, your Inner Operating System (IOS) must evolve to a higher order mental-emotional structure.
When you see extraordinary leadership, what’s the best question to ask to understand what makes the leader extraordinary?
What are they doing that makes them extraordinary?
What operating system is that leader running to achieve such mastery?
Is this leader practicing competency, or consciousness?
Is this leader best at the inner game or the outer game?
Which of the following is the best method for a leader to manage unproductive conflict?
Send team members to conflict resolution training.
Hold a team building off-site to help the team work better together.
Ask each team member the question, “What would you do to resolve this conflict if you had freedom to act?” Then facilitate a discussion to resolve the conflict.
Ignore the conflict and give direction to the team.
6.Which of the following statements describes “Collaborator?”
Foster high-performance teamwork among team members who report to him/her.
Engage others in a manner that allows the parties involved to discover common ground.
Take interest in and form warm, caring relationships.
7.“Competence, fair treatment, commitment, engagement, listening, acting on suggestions, and providing inspiration, meaning, and direction.” These leadership expectations are
Implicit
Useful
Explicit
Required
Which of the following statements describes “Caring Connection?”
Take interest in and form warm, caring relationships.
Engage others in a manner that allows the parties involved to discover common ground.
Foster high-performance teamwork among team members who report to him/her.
Which of the following statements describes the Leadership Practice 2: Distilling Vision?
It requires attention to the trail, to the minute, subtle, and detailed clues our life is leaving as we live it (or as it lives us).
It is the practice of opening to a deeper knowing, a higher perception, a calling, an inner voice that says, “Stay with this,” or, “Do this now,” or, “This is who you are, what you stand for, what you need to move toward in your leadership.”
It requires that we distill and refine a collective sense of purpose and through honest dialogue.
It is the willingness to be authentic, to speak and act in ways that express and embody our vision of greatness.
It takes courage to engage in the authentic dialogue needed to forward the vision, find leverage, and implement fundamental structural change.
It is to continue to give ourselves over to the pull of purpose, distill it into vision, and then deal with the anxieties that inevitably arise.
Which of the following is NOT one of the six systems of organizational effectiveness?
Leadership.
Metrics.
Training and Education.
Delivery.
Communication.
Which of the following is NOT a Promise of Leadership?
Ensure that business performance is improved.
Set the right direction and create meaningful work.
Ensure that processes and systems facilitate focus and execution.
Engage all stakeholders and hold them accountable.
Which of these statements defines the strength of Egocentric Leadership?
This is the ability to take up membership, to work and live co-relationally with others and within organizations.
At this stage of leadership, we can defer impulse gratification long enough to plan and organize to meet our needs.
This is the minimum level required to create lean, engaged, innovative, visionary, agile, high-involvement, high-fulfillment organizations and to evolve adaptive organizational designs that can thrive.
This interior evolution is what enables leaders to see the whole system in a way that honors huge diversity, with many opposites in tension, and to engage it in a way that moves toward creative resolution.
Leaders at this level function as global visionaries and enact world service for the universal good.
The best metaphor the authors created for describing our relationship to Unity is that we are like waves on the ocean, not separate from the ocean. Which of the following statements best supports this metaphor?
We realize that we were always one with the Ocean, that we were never separate, and that all waves are one; we are all each other.
Some waves appear friendly; other waves may appear to threaten our ability to get what we want, and so we fear them.
We are separate waves and we experience ourselves on a journey across the ocean.
As separate waves, we experience the ups and downs of wave life.
Developing leadership effectiveness is…
An important task for the training staff.
Rarely a leadership priority.
The most important priority of executive leadership.
Less important than recruiting leaders.
Which of the following statements describes the Creative Mind”?
It creates an oscillating pattern of performance over time, the natural tendency of which is to seek equilibrium and return to normal.
It is about forming an organization that we believe in, accomplishing outcomes that matter most, and enhancing our collective capacity to achieve a desired future.
It is about establishing hierarchical, patriarchal structures, dynamics, and cultures.
Which of the following statements describes the Internal Operating System of the Creative Mind?
We develop new assumptions that are structured from the inside-out, not dependent on outside validation.
We believe that “my future is in your hands.”
Our beliefs depend on outside validation.
Which of the following statements is true about a company’s Leadership System?
The training staff must work very hard to help the leadership system to be effective. They must work hard to get leaders into leadership training programs to improve their leadership competencies.
The leadership system is the central organizing system and the collective effectiveness of the leaders in the system is critical to the organization’s health and success.
The CEO must be able to control and direct individual leaders and the leadership system for them to succeed.
Which of the following statements describes the Leadership Practice 1: Discerning Purpose?
It is to continue to give ourselves over to the pull of purpose, distill it into vision, and then deal with the anxieties that inevitably arise.
It is the practice of opening to a deeper knowing, a higher perception, a calling, an inner voice that says, “Stay with this,” or, “Do this now,” or, “This is who you are, what you stand for, what you need to move toward in your leadership.”
It takes courage to engage in the authentic dialogue needed to forward the vision, find leverage, and implement fundamental structural change.
It requires attention to the trail, to the minute, subtle, and detailed clues our life is leaving as we live it (or as it lives us).
It requires that we distill and refine a collective sense of purpose and through honest dialogue.
It is the willingness to be authentic, to speak and act in ways that express and embody our vision of greatness.
Which of the following statements about “Playing on Purpose or Playing Not to Lose” is true?
There is no safe way to be great, and there is no great way to be safe.
The safe paths have all been taken.
The paths left to us require risk.
Leadership is inherently risky.
All of the above.
Which of these statements defines the strength of Creative Leadership?
Leaders at this level function as global visionaries and enact world service for the universal good.
This is the minimum level required to create lean, engaged, innovative, visionary, agile, high-involvement, high-fulfillment organizations and to evolve adaptive organizational designs that can thrive.
This is the ability to take up membership, to work and live co-relationally with others and within organizations.
At this stage of leadership, we can defer impulse gratification long enough to plan and organize to meet our needs.
This interior evolution is what enables leaders to see the whole system in a way that honors huge diversity, with many opposites in tension, and to engage it in a way that moves toward creative resolution.
Which of the following is one of the three core reactive types?
Body.
Soul.
Heart.
Which of the following is the formula for the Leadership Quotient?
LQ = LE/LI
LQ = L1/L2
LQ = L2/L1
LQ = LI/LE
Which of the following statements best describes the relevance of the inner game and outer game to leadership behavior?
In high-pressure leadership roles, the outer game is the only game.
The inner game runs the outer game.
Most efforts at developing leaders only target the inner game, or consciousness.
The outer game (competence) is all that is essential to leadership.
Which of the following statements accurately describes Reactive Mind?
Reactive Leadership is well-equipped to lead transformation into high-performing cultures and structures.
Reactive mind is correlated to Leadership effectiveness.
To evolve beyond Reactive Leadership, we must first see it and know it deeply.
Reactive mind was formed to separate from the prevailing culture.
To fulfill the Leadership Imperative, which of the following ideas will make us LESS likely to succeed?
We need to work individually and collectively.
We need to work on specific skills and do so whenever we have the time.
Our efforts need to be long-term and systemic.
We need to integrate the inner and outer game of leadership.
We need to rethink how we develop leaders.
Which of the following statements accurately describes Integral Leaders?
It is built for complexity, designed for leading change within complex systems amid volatile, ambiguous, and rapidly changing environments.
The leader is capable of working effectively with people of all types and with people at every stage of Leadership Development.
The Leader has the ability to hold large conflicts, opposite visions, and redundant polarities in tension without reacting to them, trying to problem-solve them, or turning them into win-lose battles.
The Leader is in full possession of the entire array of gifts, strengths, and competencies that are required to lead effectively.
All of the above.
How do we describe the Leadership System?
It is the central organizing system.
It is one of the eight core systems within organizations.
It only consists of the CEO and the Board of Directors.
To achieve high performance, leaders must achieve high scores on their competency evaluations.
All leaders can accelerate their progress toward effectiveness by:
Asking
Learning
Managing expectations
All of the above
“Fiscal responsibility, accountability, strategy, and execution.” These leadership expectations are:
Useful
Required
Implicit
Explicit
Which of these statements defines the strength of Reactive Leadership?
This is the ability to take up membership, to work and live co-relationally with others and within organizations.
This is the minimum level required to create lean, engaged, innovative, visionary, agile, high-involvement, high-fulfillment organizations and to evolve adaptive organizational designs that can thrive.
Leaders at this level function as global visionaries and enact world service for the universal good.
At this stage of leadership, we can defer impulse gratification long enough to plan and organize to meet our needs.
This interior evolution is what enables leaders to see the whole system in a way that honors huge diversity, with many opposites in tension, and to engage it in a way that moves toward creative resolution.
Assignment 3: Cultural Activity Report
Due Week 9 and worth 100 points
As a way of experiencing the Humanities beyond your classroom, computer, and textbook, you are asked to do a certain type of “cultural activity” that fits well with our course and then report on your experience. Your instructor will require you to propose an activity and get instructor approval before you do it and report on it (students should look for any instructions in that respect). Every effort should be made to ensure that this is a hands-on experience (not a virtual one), that this activity fits the HUM 112 class well, and that the activity is of sufficient quality for this university course. The two (2) key types of activities are a museum visit or a performance. Note: This must not be a report on the same activity (and certainly not the same report) as done for another class, like HUM 111. For instance, one might go to the same museum as done for HUM 111, but this HUM 112 report will focus on entirely different works and displays.
Visit a museum or gallery exhibition or attend a theater, dance, or musical performance before the end of Week 9. The activity (museum or performance) should have content that fits our course well. Have fun doing this.
Write a two to three (2-3) page report (500-750 words) that describes your experience.
o Clearly identify the event location, date attended, the attendees, and your initial reaction upon arriving at the event.
o Provide specific information and a description of at least two (2) pieces.
o Provide a summary of the event and describe your overall reaction after attending the event.
o Use at least the class text as a reference (additional sources are fine, not necessary unless required by your content). Your report should include connections you make between things observed in your activity and things learned in the course and text.
Note: Submit your cultural activity choice to the instructor for approval before the end of Week 5 (earlier is even better). Look for guidance from the instructor for how or where to make your proposal. You may also seek advice from your instructor (provide your town / state or zip code) for a good activity in your general area.
Visiting a Museum
It makes sense to approach a museum the way a seasoned traveler approaches visiting a city for the first time. Find out what is available to see. In the museum, find out what sort of exhibitions are currently housed in the museum and start with the exhibits that interest you.
If there is a travelling exhibition, it’s always a good idea to see it while you have the chance. Then, if you have time, you can look at other things in the museum.
Every effort should be made ahead of time to identify a museum that has items and works one can easily connect to our HUM 112 class and book. Since HUM 112 covers from 1600 AD to the present, it makes more sense to focus on items from this time frame. In general, museums with fine arts work better than history museums.
Any questions about whether a museum-visit activity fits the course and assignment well enough will be decided by the instructor when the student seeks approval for the activity. Any alternative activity outside the normal ones listed here, such as for those limited by disability or distance, will be determined by the instructor. Normally, we do not expect students to travel over an hour to get to an approved activity.
Make notes as you go through the museum and accept any handouts or pamphlets that the museum staff gives you. While you should not quote anything from the printed material when you do your report, the handouts may help to refresh your memory later.
The quality of your experience is not measured by the amount of time you spend in the galleries or the number of works of art that you actually see. The most rewarding experiences can come from finding two or three (2 or 3) pieces of art or exhibits which intrigue you and then considering those works in leisurely contemplation. Most museums have benches where you can sit and study a particular piece.
If you are having a difficult time deciding which pieces to write about, ask yourself these questions: (1) If the museum you are visiting suddenly caught fire, which two (2) pieces of art or exhibits would you most want to see saved from the fire? (2) Why would you choose those two (2) particular pieces?
Attending a Performance
Check your local colleges to see if there are any free or low-cost performances or student recitals. Student performances are generally of almost the same quality as professional performances, but typically cost much less. However, performances of high school level or lower will not meet this requirement.
Try to do a quality performance that fits the class subject matter well. Sorry—but this is not for pop music or rock music, rap, country music, gospel music, comedy routines, your kid’s dance recital, your international friend’s wedding, high school plays, renaissance fairs, etc. Instead, think of college level or professional recitals, string quartets, symphony orchestras, opera, jazz, some stage dramas, etc.
Any questions about whether a performance activity fits the course and assignment well enough will be decided by the instructor when the student seeks approval for an activity. Any alternative activity outside the normal ones listed here, such as for those limited by disability or distance, will be determined by the instructor. Normally, we do not expect students to travel over an hour to get to an approved activity.
Unlike visiting a museum, where you can wear almost anything, people attending performances are often expected to “dress up” a bit.
Take a pen or pencil with you and accept the program you are offered by the usher; you will probably want to take notes on it during or after the performance.
Turn off your cell phone before entering the auditorium. Do not use your phone to record the music or to take pictures or videos. To play it safe, turn the phone off.
Most long musical performances have at least one (1) intermission. If the lights start blinking, it is the sign that the performance is about to begin.
Look for very specific things (such as a particular piece of music or the way certain instruments sounded at a specific time) which tend to stand out as either enjoyable or not enjoyable. Be sure to take notes of the things which you find enjoyable as well as the things which are not enjoyable.
Note: If a student is unable to attend a cultural event in person due to circumstances beyond the student’s control, then the instructor will recommend an alternate event / activity for the student to “attend” online. The “virtual” event / activity is usually only for students who, due to their physical location, cannot possibly attend an event / activity in person; typically, these students are stationed overseas or have no means of transportation. Experience shows most museums and activities are modest in cost and manageable for students, and you will often see students from other universities there on similar course projects. If you are facing financial hardship, keep in mind that many museums have a free day each week and performance discounts are often available for students and veterans, among others. Feel free to ask your instructor to help with finding low-cost options. If you believe that you have a legitimate reason for attending a “virtual” activity, you must contact the instructor no later than Week 5 for your request to be considered.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA Style format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. (Note:Students can find APA style materials located in the Additional Resources section of their Student Center within their course shell for reference)
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Explain the importance of situating a society’s cultural and artistic expressions within a historical context.
Examine the influences of intellectual, religious, political, and socio-economic forces on social, cultural, and artistic expressions.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in the study of world cultures.
Write clearly and concisely about world cultures using proper writing mechanics
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic / organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric here.
Future of the Juvenile Justice System Proposal Presentation
Imagine you are a juvenile justice consultant creating a proposal that will be presented to the state legislature concerning the future of the juvenile justice system.
Create a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation including speaker notes that details your proposal. Address recommendations for all aspects of the system, including the following:
Community involvement
Law enforcement
Courts and sentencing
Corrections
Include a justification for the system based on history, trends, causation theories, and potential for reform.
Format any citations in your presentation consistent with APA guidelines.
A psychology instructor asks students in an introductory class to complete
Listed below are several of the research situations noted in the chapter as well as some others. You are to rank order these situations in terms of how seriously they violate the ethical agreements discussed in the chapter and to explain the reasons for your rankings.
A psychology instructor asks students in an introductory class to complete questionnaires that the instructor will analyze and use in preparing a journal article for publication.
After a field study of deviant behavior during a riot, law enforcement officials demand that the researcher identify those persons who were observed looting. Rather than risk arrest as an accomplice after the fact, the researcher complies.
After completing the final draft of a book reporting a research project, the author discovers that 25 of the 2,000 survey interviews were falsified by interviewers but chooses to ignore that fact and publish the book anyway.
A Ph.D. candidate gains access to an underground mine as a researcher-employee by telling management that he has a BA degree and wants to get some practical experience before going on for a degree in metallic engineering.
A college instructor wants to test the effect of unfair berating on exam performance. She administers an exam to both sections of a course. The overall performance of the two sections is essentially the same. The grades of one section are artificially lowered and the instructor berates the students for performing so badly. She then administers the same final exam to both sections and discovers that the performance of the unfairly berated section is worse. The hypothesis is confirmed, and the results are published.
In a study of sexual behavior, the investigator wants to overcome subjects’ reluctance to report what they might regard as deviant behavior. To get past their reluctance, subjects are asked, “Everyone masturbates now and then; about how often do you masturbate?”
A researcher discovers that 85 percent of students smoke marijuana regularly at a school. Publication of this finding will probably create a furor in the community. Because no extensive analysis of drug use is planned, the researcher decides to ignore the finding and keep it quiet.
To test the extent to which people may try to save face by expressing attitudes on matters they are wholly uninformed about, the researcher asks for their attitudes regarding a fictitious issue.
A research questionnaire is circulated among students as part of their university registration packet. Although students are not told they must complete the questionnaire, the hope is that they will believe they must, thereby ensuring a higher completion rate.
A researcher promises participants in a study a summary of the results. Later, due to a budget cut, the summary is not sent out.
A professor rewrites a thesis of one of his or her graduate students into an article and lists himself/herself as the sole author.
A panel of reputable social scientists is pressing for Congressional approval of a National Data Service, which would combine all data on particular individuals into one master data file. The advantages of such a center would be reduced duplicity of efforts and an increased number of variables per individual.
For each of the above issues, identify what you believe to be the one or two ethical principles that are most apparent in the situation. Explain why.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i
j.
k.
l.
Place each situation in one of the following three groups: (please mark X under the chose answer)
Minor ethical violation
Moderate ethical violation
Severe ethical violation
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i
j.
k.
l
Explain the criteria that you used in your rankings.
3.
Development of Criminal Behavior
Some researchers and theorists believe that an interaction of both psychological factors (e.g., biology, personality, and cognitive) and sociological factors can explain criminal behavior. Which psychological and sociological factors do you believe have the most influence on the development of criminal behavior, and why? Do you believe that psychological factors or sociological factors have more of an influence over behavior, or is it a combination of the two? Please be sure to provide an example of a criminal case to support your discussion.
Your initial post should be at least 250 words in length. Support your claims with examples from the required material(s) and/or other scholarly resources, and properly cite any references.
Assignment 2: LASA 1: Violence And Drugs In Centervale
You have been working as a police officer for the Centervale Police Department for two years. You are on your nightly patrol in your marked police vehicle with your partner, Edward, who has been on the force for seven years. You receive a call on the radio to respond to a domestic abuse situation requiring backup. Your partner and you are second to respond to the call. You arrive at the scene, which is in a neighborhood with a bad reputation. Upon arrival, you witness a couple, Abby and Bobby, standing outside their house, yelling obscenities at each other.
The couple refuses to calm down and speak with the officers, Christina and David, who are already on the scene. The girlfriend, Abby, is slurring her speech and seems unaware of the trickle of blood running down the side of her head. The boyfriend, Bobby, has extremely bloodshot eyes and does not appear to have slept in days. Moreover, Bobby’s speech is accelerated, and he’s breathing rapidly as if he has just sprinted from the drugstore down the block. You notice that Bobby’s hands and face have scratches all over them.
Also, the front door is open.
Your partner, Edward, has known this couple as they have been in trouble with the law before. He steps in between Abby and Bobby and begins to gather information from Abby, while you call for an ambulance.
As Edward speaks with the couple, you begin to walk around the yard, observing what you can. You look in through the front door, and while there is only one light on in the house, you observe what appears to be a bong and a baggie of marijuana on the coffee table in the front room of the house. Because Edward is standing with Abby and there are two other officers outside with Bobby, you decide to enter the house to take a closer look.
You discover that there is indeed a bong and a baggie of marijuana on the table. Looking under the couch next to the coffee table, you discover a shotgun as well. You begin to wonder what other illegal items might be in the house, when you hear a yell from outside and run out to discover that Bobby is being handcuffed and put in a police car. Apparently, Bobby tried to use a weapon on Abby in front of Edward and the other officers.
He is quoted as saying, “Just because the cops are here doesn’t mean I won’t finish what I started!” as he reached for his waistband.
As Bobby is being driven away, Abby breaks down into tears and cries out after her boyfriend, “Don’t worry, baby! I’ll come bail you out as soon as I can turn a little profit with the goods!”
You tell your partner what you observed in the house. After the paramedics declare that Abby’s head injury is nothing more than a bad scratch, your partner and you drive Abby down to the police precinct for further questioning, leaving Christina and David at the scene to secure it until more investigation can be done.
What You Need to Do . . .
Utilizing APA guidelines and citing relevant case law and specific details from external sources, present a 4- to 6-page research paper that explains what you need to do next with respect to the evidence left behind at the scene. In addition, consider what you need to do with any other evidence you may discover at the precinct from Abby and Bobby or on their persons. As you consider your next steps, address the following issues:
Do you have probable cause to arrest Abby for any crime? Explain.
What information, if any, must you list on an affidavit to secure a search warrant for Abby and Bobby’s house?
What actions (or inactions) taken by officers Christina and David were relevant with respect to the evidence you discovered on the scene?
What is the scope of your warrant?
Should you search Abby and Bobby upon their arrival at the precinct? What do you expect to discover on their persons and at the crime scene? How will you obtain evidence that may or may not be found on Abby and Bobby’s person? For instance, they may have drugs in their pockets, or Bobby may have another weapon on his person.
Submission Details:
Save the document as M3_A2_Lastname_Firstname.doc. All CJA papers should be submitted using APA format, i.e., Times New Roman 12, double spaced with title page and reference page. See the APA manual for an examples.
By the due date assigned, submit your document to the Submissions Area.
This assignment is worth 300 points. Download this rubric and carefully read it to understand the expectations.
Assignment 1 Grading CriteriaMaximum Points
Determined probable cause. 16
Established what information must be provided on an affidavit to secure a search warrant. 20
Determined which actions or inactions of other police officers were relevant with respect to the evidence discovered on the scene.24
Identified the scope of the warrant. 24
Determined whether to search Abby and Bobby upon their arrival at the precinct. 24
Predicted what is expected to be found on their persons or at the scene. 32
Explained steps to obtain the evidence found at the scene and at the precinct. 16
Writing components. 44
Culture Paper revision.
Throughout the course, you will be learning about the components of culture, and the importance of a multicultural awareness when working in the field of education. Whatever career field you may end up in, developing a mindset of diversity and inclusion will be essential for your success and the success of your learners. As such, the cumulative assignment for this course will ask you to develop a Vision Statement for your career, imagining what being culturally aware may look like in your projected career position. Consider this a real-world exercise in inclusion, as the mindsets this assignment seeks to help you explore will be essential to the practical application of this course’s content. The assignment will be completed as follows. At the end of each lesson beginning in Lesson 2, you will submit one of six components of a PowerPoint, google slides or Prezi (or other visual presentation of your choice) that outlines what actions you will take and what environment you hope to create for your learners or employees through the lens of six major course components you have explored in this course:
Lesson Vision Statement Component
Lesson 2 Types of Learners and Hidden Curriculum
Lesson 3 Learning Environment, and the Concepts of Space, Place, and Material Culture
Lesson 4 The Achievement Gap and Cultural Bias
Lesson 5 Culture as a Disability and Interpreting Cultural Conflict in Learning Environments
Lesson 6 Pop Culture and Core Rituals
Lesson 7 Culturally Responsive Teaching
Each slide of the presentation should address each one of the above course concepts and explain how these concepts and theories will be applied in your work setting to create an environment for students’ and/or employees’ success. In the notes field of each slide, you are required to explain your reasoning for each point of the vision statement, referencing course material as well as seeking outside opinions from experts in the form of personal interviews and/or outside research articles.
Assignment 2: LASA 1: Gender Perception in Nonverbal Communication
Assignment 2: LASA 1: Gender Perception in Nonverbal Communication
In this assignment, you will explore the role of nonverbal communication in interactions between genders.
Using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet, research the differences in nonverbal communication between genders.
Once you have an understanding, observe a small group of people, which can be comprised of friends, family, or a group of strangers. The small group should have three to six people and be composed of both male and female members. Observe the group for 15–30 minutes, looking for the types of interactions taking place and how each person uses nonverbal communication to make oneself understood. Pay special attention to nonverbal signals and gestures (body language, facial expressions, eye contact, hand gestures, space, tone, appearance, etc.).
** Understand when doing your observations that you must protect the privacy of the people you observe. Anything you discover as part of your observation that does not relate directly to the objective of the assignment needs to be kept confidential. There are three different roles that you, as the observer, may have as defined below (Patton, 1986). In your paper, please discuss the type of observation you did and what you learned from that aspect.
Full participant observation: You took part in the conversation and were part of the “observation.”
Partial observation: You were sometimes part of the conversation, but mostly stayed on the outer edge of it.
Onlooker: You were an outsider and simply observed another group’s interactions. (this is recommended for the assignment)
Note the number of people in the group and briefly describe the interactions that you observed (who is doing most of the talking, number of people involved, the way members are seated, clothes, and the topic of conversation, if you know it, etc.). Create a matrix to present your observations (an example of a completed matrix is shown below—you will create your own to fit your specific observations).
GenderBody languageFacial ExpressionsEye ContactHand GesturesSpaceToneAppearance1FLeaning towards the maleSmiling – seemed flirtatiousTrying to catch the eye of the maleNALeaning into the table toward the manHigh pitchedLots of make-up, hair fixed, a dress with heels2FPlaying with hairBiting lipRolling eyes at other femalePlaying with hairSlouched and pushed awayNA – not talkingSome make-up, hair in high pony, jeans and t-shirt3MLegs turned toward F2Gaze at F2Trying to catch the eyes of F2NASitting at opposite side of table, so more spaceInquisitiveJeans, polo shirt, flip flops, relaxed
Based on your observations on how nonverbal cues are regulating the flow of conversation, write an analysis including answers to the following questions. Be sure to use terms and concepts from the textbook, research, and module readings.
What do you think is the topic of conversation? Describe the topic of conversation.
Assess how each member’s body posture and movements convey his or her status and attitude.
Deduce which nonverbal signals are responsible for showing emotion and feeling. Examine how these nonverbal signals help to explain what is going on.
Differentiate between the gestures used by males vs. females—conclude if there is a noticeable difference.
Compare what the research says in relation to what you observed.
Identify any inconsistencies in the person’s nonverbal communication with what he or she was talking about (ex: shaking head “yes” and saying “no”).
Examine what type of observation you did in reference to this assignment (types are listed above).
What did you find most challenging about interpreting nonverbal behaviors in this setting?
How does this assignment help you to better understand nonverbal communication and gender?
By the due date assigned, submit your matrix and your analysis in Word format in a single file to the Submissions Area. Include your matrix as the final page following your reference list. Write a 4–5-page paper (not counting title and references pages or the matrix) in Word format. Apply APA standards for writing, formatting, and citation to you work.
Assignment 2 Grading CriteriaMaximum PointsDocumented observation information with: place, time, date, length, and type of participant observation completed.28Work presented an in-depth analysis of the function of nonverbal cues observed.28Work provided an appraisal of what the challenges were in interpreting nonverbal behavior.28Analyzed if there was a difference in how each gender used nonverbal communication. Explained how this helped you to understand how gender impacts communication better.28Documented existing research and compared to what was observed.20Matrix provided visual organization of nonverbal codes observed.24Wrote in a clear, concise, and organized manner; displayed accurate spelling, grammar, and punctuation.44Total:200
Sci/163 Addiction paper
Choose and research one of the following addictions:
– Alcohol
– Drug
– Smoking
– Eating Disorder
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you answer the following:
Define addiction. What are the general warning signs of addiction? Explain the addiction you selected – define that particular addiction and the warning signs for that addiction. How does this addiction physically affect the individuals involved? In what way does the addiction affect work and relationships? What are the long-term health problems associated with the addiction, if any? How would you confront the addiction to bring attention to the problem? Explain. Does the addicted individual blame his or her addiction on anyone? Why? Do they take personal responsibility for their addiction? What treatments are available for the individuals? Would this work for all types of addictions? Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Include any references consulted as in-text citations and references in APA format. Include at least 2 peer-reviewed article in addition to the textbook.
Management Theories and the Workplace
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is to increase learners’ comprehension of management roles, viewpoints, and theories.
Assignment Steps
Resources: Ch. 2 of Management: A Practical Introduction, sample leadership theory table.
Select three theories from the textbook.
Summarize the theory and viewpoint(s) in a table. Please use the sample leadership theory table provided.
Develop a 1,050-word report including the following:
Briefly discuss an overview of management.
Include the roles managers play.
Examine the development of management theories, including how these theories reflected the changing business environment.
Compare and contrast the three management theories you included in your leadership theory table.
Include in-text citations and at least one reference.
Evaluate which of the three management theories works best for your work environment or an organization with which you are familiar.
Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
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Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)
Activity 2.
What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)
What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words
Activity 3.
How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.
How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.
Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each
Activity 5.
Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words
Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words
Activity 6.
What is positioning? 1 sentence
What is market mix? 20-40words
Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words
Activity 7.
What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.
How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.
Activity 8.
How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples
What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples
Activity 9.
What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence
What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples
Activity 10
From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples
What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence
Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.
Question 2
List five examples of basic marketing activities.
Question 3.
Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words
Question 4.
Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words
Summative Assessment 2.
Project
The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.
The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns
The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.
Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :
Conduct market research
Develop product knowledge
Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
Clearly describe the goals that you have set
How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
What resources will you required (including team members)
Set realistic timeline for your campaign
Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
Review marketing activities
1000-2000words
Production/Operation
Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text
Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management
(TCO 1) Historians and political scientists are different because historians _____ and political scientists _____. (Points : 2)
A) Historians look for generalizations, while political scientists are reluctant to generalize
B) Historians are somewhat more reluctant to generalize, while political scientists look for generalizations
C) Historians are much more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists are
D) Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, while political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations
(TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)
A) Political scientists often train politicians
B) Politicians often train political scientists
C)Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter
D) Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable
(TCO 1) Voting for someone who is charismatic but whose policies might not benefit you would be considered _____ behavior. (Points : 2)
A) irrational
B) rational
C) legitimate
D) selfish
(TCO 1) _____ is the use of public office for private gain.(Points : 2)
A) Sovereignty
B) Corruption
C) Authority
D) Legitimacy
(TCO 1) The notion that we acknowledge the rightful roles of our leaders or our laws is known as _____. (Points : 2)
A) sovereignty
B) authority
C) legitimacy
D) monarchy
(TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____
A) scholarship
B) theory
C) power
D) culture
(TCO 1) The term for measuring with numbers is _____. (Points : 2)
A) quantify
B) hypothesis
C) qualify
D) empirical
(TCO 4) The English common law stressed the rights of free and equal men and was developed on the basis of precedent set by earlier judges, known today as _____. (Points : 2)
A) judge-made law
B) judicial precedent
C) example by trial
D) court-generated
(TCO 4) Which of the following issues is a civil concern? (Points : 2)
A) Extortion
B) Theft
C) Divorce
D) Trafficking
(TCO 4) The concept of judicial review falls under which article of the U.S. Constitution?(Points : 2)
A) Article I: The Legislative Branch
B) Article III: The Judicial Branch
C) Article VI: Debts, Supremacy, Oaths
D) Judicial review is not mentioned in the U.S. Constitution.
(TCO 4) Who nominates and approves federal judges in the U.S. court system? (Points : 2)
A) The President and the Senate
B) The Senate and the House
C) The President and Speaker of the House
D) The Senate and the Secretary of State
(TCO 4) Which of the following was an argument against granting the U.S. Supreme Court the power of judicial review? (Points : 2)
A) Many feared that such a power would give the Court a double check and compromise its neutrality.
B) Some thought that such power would create untrustworthy judges.
C) The founding fathers argued that judicial review would lead to undue indictments by the Court.
D) Drafters of the Constitution feared that few laws would ever be set in stone.
(TCO 4) Examine the ideal role of American judges. (Points : 2)
A) Judges should intervene frequently, interpreting the law according to their expertise and ensuring a fair trial
B) Judges should act as umpires, passively watching the legal drama and ruling only on disputed points of procedure
C) Judges should not intervene unless attorneys object, at which point they may either overrule or sustain the objection
D) Judges should take an active role, questioning witnesses, eliciting evidence, and commenting on procedure.
(TCO 4) In Lombard v. Louisiana (1963), the Warren Court supported _____, ruling that blacks who had refused to leave a segregated lunch counter could not be prosecuted. (Points : 2)
A) boycotts
B) sit-ins
C) picket lines
D) protests
(TCO 5) Why do the responsibilities of legislative and executive powers often overlap? (Points : 2)
A) Separation of powers is rarely clear-cut
B) Separation of powers is rare among industrialized nations
C) Separation of powers is absolute
D) Separation of powers grants obtuse levels of power to the executive branch.
(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)
A) Every four years
B) Every six years
C) Every eight years
D) When the cabinet is voted out or resigns
(TCO 5) Because of the separation of powers inherent in a presidential system, some scholars think that executivelegislative _____ is common in systems like that used in the United States. (Points : 2)
A) cooperation
B) stagnation
C) deadlock
D) insolvency
(TCO 5) Who directly calls forth the leader of the largest party to take office with a cabinet and become the prime minister? (Points : 2)
A) The voters
B) Parliament
C) The monarch
D) The House of Commons
DEVRY POLI330 Week 8 Final Exam 2
(TCO 5) When it comes to electing officials, which factor matters the most to voters in both presidential and parliamentary elections? (Points : 2)
A) Party affiliation
B) Political ideologies
C) Money invested in campaign
D) Personality
(TCO 5) Who receives the most attention in both parliamentary and presidential systems? (Points : 2)
A) Head of state
B) Chief executive
C) The legislature
D) Voting citizens
(TCO 5) Describe how the United States expands its cabinet. (Points : 2)
A) The president can create a new department at his or her will
B) Congress must agree on the new department and provisions for its funds must be made
C) In order for a new department to be developed, a former one must be deleted
D) New departments are no longer developed
(TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____ to describe their critique of capitalism and the inequitable distribution of wealth among nations. (Points : 2)
A) Marxism
B) laissez-faire
C) public-choice
D) Keynesian
(TCO 7) How do Keynesian economic policies differ from the traditional laissezfaire policies developed by Adam Smith? (Points : 2)
A) Laissez-faire policies advocate for “cutthroat” capitalism, while Keynesian policies seek to spread wealth equally among a nation’s citizens
B) Laissez-faire policies advocate for increased spending and stimuli for government-run businesses, while Keynesian economics argues for a hands-free approach
C) Keynesian policies advocate for increased government control of economics, while traditional laissez-faire economics argues for a hands-free approach
D) The more liberal laissez-faire economies distribute wealth more evenly among society, while Keynesian economics tends to distribute wealth among the top one percent
(TCO 7) What event is largely considered responsible for deterring Johnson’s War on Poverty? (Points : 2)
A) Great Society
B) Vietnam War
C) Middle-class entitlements
D) Tax expenditures
(TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)
A) The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily
B) Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class
C) Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others
D) Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system
(TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)
A) Many would be left without enough to support them
B) Caps to these program would undermine the welfare state
C) It can cost them votes
D) Both are primary social safety nets
(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)
A) Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States
B) Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States
C) The United States allocates about the same to welfare
D) Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare
(TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points :2)
A) Citizens will default on their mortgages
B) Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest
C) Ultimately, the government will profit
D) Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior
(TCO 9) What is the most common response to serious domestic unrest? (Points : 2)
A) Revolution
B) Coup d’état
C) Military takeover
D) UN diplomatic action
(TCO 9) Riots triggered by police beating youths, protests against globalization, and labor strikes against austerity are all examples of _____. (Points : 2)
A) purely traditional violence
B) issue-oriented violence
C) violence carried out by civilian institutions of government
D) coups
(TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)
A) They will almost assuredly turn to violence
B) Not much will happen
C) The people will organize themselves, regardless
D) They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness
(TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)
A) They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism
(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.
a monarchy
a republic
institutionalization
a state
Question 2
(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.
corrupt; one
corrupt; a few
corrupt; many
legitimate; many
Question 3
(TCO 2) Which of the following descriptions best depicts a federal system of government?
The central government maintains all the power.
The first-order subdivisions maintain all the power.
Federal systems exist where there are no governments.
Federal systems have divided power between a central government and first-order governments.
Question 4
(TCO 2) In a single-member district election, the winner receives a minimum of _____.
a plurality of the votes
50% of the votes
two-thirds of the votes
three-fourths of the votes
Question 5
(TCO 2) If the Green Party receives 15% of the vote in a proportional system, which of the following is likely to happen?
The Green Party would receive no seats.
The Green Party would try to form a coalition with other parties.
The Green Party would attempt to gerrymander districts to its advantage.
The Green Party would demand a recount of the votes.
Question 6
(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?
High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits
Question 7
(TCO 2) The concept of basic law originated in which country?
Britain
France
Germany
United States
Question 8
(TCO 2) Which type of regime has a free media, competitive elections, and protected civil liberties?
Democratic
Transitional
Authoritarian
Totalitarian
Question 9
(TCO 2) The mass media in totalitarian states _____.
show the system is functioning well under wise leaders, but practice a mildly critical attitude toward the official ideology
question the system, but still push the official ideology
show the system is functioning well under wise leaders, and sell the official ideology
question the system only in times of crisis, otherwise selling the official ideology
Question 10
(TCO 2) What are features of an all-encompassing ideology?
An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in black-and-white terms, and acceptance of an imperfect society
An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in black-and-white terms, and claims of a perfect society
An eclectic sense of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in complex terms, and claims of a perfect society
An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in complex terms, and claims of a perfect society
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation
Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process. Address the following in your multimedia presentation:
Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?
Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.
Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.
Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.
Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab
For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document
POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.
Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.
Electoral College Simulation Exercise
Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election. Based on information contained in the chart determine the following
The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis
Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?
Alabama91,159,245749,948
Alaska3195,227112,878
Arizona111,089,449975,674
Arkansas6554,724478,912
California555,976,0486,350,244
Colorado91,076,1241,055,465
Connecticut7714,368824,202
Delaware3184,348190,229
District of Columbia390,108125,978
Florida294,129,9973,784,259
Georgia161,740,7761,508,254
Hawaii4200,454224,728
Idaho4376,989245,774
Illinois202,529,4272,615,226
Indiana111,257,0701,148,334
Iowa6740,291752,882
Kansas6645,822512,678
Kentucky8997,244878,421
Louisiana81,002,124924,855
Maine4332,427368,399
Maryland101,029,2781,257,722
Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331
Michigan162,414,7772,391,872
Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624
Mississippi6649,442502,292
Missouri101,245,9781,440,356
Montana3259,129174,434
Nebraska5499,927276,321
Nevada6398,727412,012
New Hampshire4340,492332,638
New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209
New Mexico5369,284370,544
New York293,688,4213,828,477
North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476
North Dakota3197,245110,289
Ohio182,829,6872,777,421
Oklahoma7845,779624,552
Oregon7901,244904,100
Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542
Rhode Island4200,440210,402
South Carolina9850,050714,846
South Dakota3230,727154,786
Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385
Texas383,789,4593,598,334
Utah6500,450401,290
Vermont3122,774182,104
Virginia131,547,9941,607,747
Washington121,390,2241,420,462
West Virginia5364,449367,429
Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202
Wyoming3130,757100,527
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________
Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center. Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.
Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:
Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):
Facts of the case
Issues
Rule
Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.
Your assignment must:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.
Rubric:
Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Grid View
List View
Unacceptable Below 70% F
Fair 70-79% C
Proficient 80-89% B
Exemplary 90-100% A
PAD525-A3-1 1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-2 2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-3 3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
PAD525-A3-4 4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists?
Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following did Machiavelli contribute to the study of politics?
Social contract theory
The role of power in politics
The role of wealth in society
The connection between race and politics
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.
irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A political leaders’ ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____.
sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Issues related to a border dispute between the United States and Canada would relate to _____.
sovereignty
authority
legitimacy
monarchy
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A theory that is tested in an attempt to prove or refute with evidence, is known as _____.
scholarship
corruption
a methodology
a hypothesis
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.
reason
balance
theory
rationality
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following is the best example of theory?
People join groups because of an innate desire to be with others who have similar views.
Democratic governments last longer than nondemocratic governments.
Republicans are older than Democrats.
Corruption is rampant in government.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which political science subfield studies the interface of politics and economics?
Public administration
Public policy
Comparative politics
Political theory
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which are both true for most political scientists?
They think practically and seek accuracy.
They seek popularity and are skeptical of power.
They offer single causes and think abstractly.
They are skeptical of power and offer long-term consequences.
POLI330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which of the following best characterizes Aristotle?
He explained both what is and what ought to be.
He neither explained what is nor what ought to be.
He only explained what ought to be.
He only explained what is.
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?
Individuals join and stay in civil society.
Empirical research is important.
Power resided with the proletariat.
Life is nasty and brutish.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) If _____ were alive, he might suggest that poor academic performance in schools could be attributed to a society that does not promote education and provides few resources devoted to schools.
Jean-Jacques Rousseau
Thomas Hobbes
John Locke
Niccolo Machiavelli
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which of the following would most likely be supported by the bourgeoisie?
Conflict for economic gain
Minority rights
Equality for all
A revolt by the proletariat
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?
Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.
The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.
Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.
Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which statement best applies to Adam Smith?
Marxists promoted his views because of concerns of the proletariat.
His views began as conservative, but are now associated with modern liberalism.
His views were once considered liberal, but are now promoted by conservatives.
His views have always been advocated by liberals.
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?
Markets regulate themselves.
Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.
No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.
Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Modern American conservatism would favor government involvement in what activity?
Regulating markets
A progressive tax system
Religious promotion
Protecting organized labor
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.
Marxists
Liberals
Conservatives
Libertarians
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Fascism existed during the 20th century in what country?
Italy
Iceland
Ireland
France
POLI330 Week 3 Quiz Latest 2018
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.
a monarchy
a republic
institutionalization
a state
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.
corrupt; one
corrupt; a few
corrupt; many
legitimate; many
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) The idea that American states serve as “laboratories of democracy” is an advantage of _____ systems of government.
unitary
confederal
federal
proportional
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) In _____, representatives are elected based on their party’s percentage of the vote.
proportional representative systems
majoritarian systems
single-member districts
multimember districts
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) An advantage of a proportional representation system of government would be _____.
a strong two-party system
the ability to draw districts to favor the majority party
representation of minor parties
the ability of the central government to provide benefits to the populations
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?
High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Judicial activism refers to _____.
liberal judges
conservative judges
judicial restraint by judges
willingness to override legislatures
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Though rare, a “true” democracy, is a system in which _____.
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials and personally enact laws
popular accountability is common, but political competition is extremely limited
the wealthy almost always have greater influence than the poor
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) _____ states regularly use organized terror and violence against their citizens to maintain control and achieve their goals.
Authoritarian
Transitional
Oligarchic
Totalitarian
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Describe the purpose of total control as relates to the image of the state.
To reveal the state as a genuine and open entity
To excuse the state’s invasive and/or violent political measures
To convey to the citizens a perception of only everyday order
To convey to visitors a perception of nearly perfect order
POLI330 Week 4 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Explain which individuals have the most influence on politics via interest groups.
Women
The elderly
A wide variety of people
Rich individuals
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why did the 2010 healthcare reform bill contain no provision for public insurance options?
The insurance industry blocked the Democrats’ efforts for a public option.
The people had no desire for a public option.
Democrats were not interested in a public option.
Farmers, heavily invested in the insurance industry, blocked them
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) A great deal of legislation originates in _____.
economic downturns
corporate boardrooms
specialized agencies
secret
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Some interest groups maintain a low profile by promoting their objectives without _____ them.
lobbying for
fully funding
advertising
openly debating
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) By welcoming new groups into their ranks, parties _____.
rob those groups of their individual interests and concerns
give groups a pragmatic and psychological stake in the overall political system
establish a monocultural dependence on the party system
enhance political hegemony by disenfranchising voters outside of these groups
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) The American electoral system is based on the British “first past the post” (FPTP) system, named so because _____.
third parties can“post” to earn representation
major parties are subject to intense scrutiny by third parties
it resembles a horse race; even a nose better wins
it tends to promote more equal representation
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Which of the following is an advantage to having less powerful, less centralized parties?
Fluid and flexible parties may be better able to process demands from a wider range of citizens.
Multiple party platforms possess greater persuasive abilities over the general public.
Parties can form a stronger organizational identity based around a single, cohesive ideology.
Third parties can effectively shoot for power grabs at legislative seats.
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why do Americans vote so little?
Typically, given the enormous number of immigrants the United States plays host to, most U.S.nonvoters are poorly versed in the tradition of voting, and are therefore are largely unengaged by most elections.
Typically, more than half of U.S. nonvoters say they that while they are interested in and satisfied with candidates, they still feel that their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.nonvoters say they are uninterested in or dissatisfied with candidates, feeling their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.voters find it impossible to convince others to vote, despite the fact that nonvoters are most likely to vote if convinced by those close to them.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) What was the relationship between African American voting rates and Barack Obama’s run for president?
African American voting rates rose to those of white voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates unexpectedly remained far below those of white voters as African American income and education levels remained steady.
African American voting rates rose to those of Hispanic voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates fell unexpectedly below those of white voters despite African American income and education levels rising.
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why is it that in most of the world, cities have higher turnouts than rural areas?
Partly because those who live rurally tend to feel less enfranchised
Partly because urbanites have higher education levels on average
Partly because people who have lived in the same place are less likely to vote than are transients or newcomers
Partly because men tend to vote more than women
POLI330 Week 5 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Which of the following statements best defines feudalism?
A political structure in which power is dispersed evenly
A system of political power dispersed among layers
A political structure in which power rests with church leaders
A system of political power distributed to the working class
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Countries with limits on government have usually had feudal pasts, which suggests what about the dispersion of power?
Equal distribution of power is the only effective political structure.
Power must be distributed by the working class.
Power should be concentrated among the lower classes.
Dispersion of power is good and concentration of power is bad.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system?
Every 4 years
Every 6 years
Every 8 years
When the cabinet is voted out or resigns
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Because of the separation of powers inherent in a presidential system, some scholars think that executive-legislative _____ is common in systems like that used in the United States.
cooperation
stagnation
deadlock
insolvency
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Describe how the election process in a parliamentary system slightly resembles presidential elections in the United States.
Party chiefs run as candidates for prime minister.
Citizens vote directly for the each new prime minister.
Citizens vote for a party member with the knowledge that the next prime minister will be the head of the largest party.
The prime minister is appointed for a 4-year term and can be reappointed one time.
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Distinguish the process that a parliamentary system uses to oust a chief executive from the one available in the U.S. presidential system.
Parliamentary systems rely on impeachment and presidential ones rely on constructive no confidence.
Parliamentary systems use constructive no confidence and presidential systems have the option of impeachment.
The prime minister can dissolve parliament and the president can resign from office.
Parliamentary systems can hold a vote of no confidence and presidential ones have the option of impeachment.
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Which of the following issues is a civil concern?
Extortion
Theft
Divorce
Trafficking
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) International law consists of _____ and established customs recognized by most nations.
treaties
ratification
amendments
cease-fires
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges?
Judicial Ratings Bureau
Federal Bureau of Judicial Review
American Bar Association
Office of Legal Assessment
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison.
The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.
The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.
The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.
The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.
POLI330 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Radicals use the term “political economy” instead of _____ to describe their critique of capitalism and the inequitable distribution of wealth among nations.
Marxism
laissez-faire
public choice
Keynesian
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) How do Keynesian economic policies differ from the traditional laissez-faire policies developed by Adam Smith?
Laissez-faire policies advocate for “cutthroat” capitalism, and Keynesian policies seek to spread wealth equally among a nation’s citizens.
Keynesian economics advocates for increased government control of economics, and traditional laissez-faire argues for a hands-free approach.
Smithian policies advocate for increased spending and stimuli for government-run businesses, and Keynesian economics argues for a hands-free approach.
The more liberal Smithian economies distribute wealth more evenly among society, and Keynesian economics tends to distribute wealth among the top 1%.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) During the 1970s, critics developed this new term to describe inflation with stagnant economic growth.
Growth Slope
Quagmire
Stagflation
Recession
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____.
doubled
greatly decreased
slightly increased
rapidly increased
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) The _____ administration simplified the Food Stamp program by eliminating the provision that recipients buy the stamps at a discount with their own money.
Kennedy
Johnson
Ford
Carter
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Medical costs consume nearly _____% of the U.S.gross domestic product, most of it paid through government and private health insurance.
11
18
22
26
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Many Americans think the federal budget goes primarily toward welfare, which is _____.
absolutely true
somewhat exaggerated
not at all the case
slightly offensive
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations?
Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.
Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.
The United States allocates about the same to welfare.
Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) What was the poverty line in 2012?
$14,505
$17,060
$23,050
$26,750
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Investigate what historically happens to conservatives when firms are supposedly “too big to fail.”
Conservatives argue for expensive bail-out packages.
Most conservatives suggest letting the free market run its course.
Most argue against expensive stimulus packages.
They switch parties.
POLI330 Week 3 Quiz
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.
a monarchy
a republic
institutionalization
a state
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.
corrupt; one
corrupt; a few
corrupt; many
legitimate; many
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) The idea that American states serve as “laboratories of democracy” is an advantage of _____ systems of government.
unitary
confederal
federal
proportional
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) In _____, representatives are elected based on their party’s percentage of the vote.
proportional representative systems
majoritarian systems
single-member districts
multimember districts
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) An advantage of a proportional representation system of government would be _____.
a strong two-party system
the ability to draw districts to favor the majority party
representation of minor parties
the ability of the central government to provide benefits to the populations
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?
High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Judicial activism refers to _____.
liberal judges
conservative judges
judicial restraint by judges
willingness to override legislatures
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Though rare, a “true” democracy, is a system in which _____.
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials and personally enact laws
popular accountability is common, but political competition is extremely limited
the wealthy almost always have greater influence than the poor
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) _____ states regularly use organized terror and violence against their citizens to maintain control and achieve their goals.
Authoritarian
Transitional
Oligarchic
Totalitarian
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Describe the purpose of total control as relates to the image of the state.
To reveal the state as a genuine and open entity
To excuse the state’s invasive and/or violent political measures
To convey to the citizens a perception of only everyday order
To convey to visitors a perception of nearly perfect order
POLI330 Week 4 Quiz
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Explain which individuals have the most influence on politics via interest groups.
Women
The elderly
A wide variety of people
Rich individuals
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why did the 2010 healthcare reform bill contain no provision for public insurance options?
The insurance industry blocked the Democrats’ efforts for a public option.
The people had no desire for a public option.
Democrats were not interested in a public option.
Farmers, heavily invested in the insurance industry, blocked them
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) A great deal of legislation originates in _____.
economic downturns
corporate boardrooms
specialized agencies
secret
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Some interest groups maintain a low profile by promoting their objectives without _____ them.
lobbying for
fully funding
advertising
openly debating
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) By welcoming new groups into their ranks, parties _____.
rob those groups of their individual interests and concerns
give groups a pragmatic and psychological stake in the overall political system
establish a monocultural dependence on the party system
enhance political hegemony by disenfranchising voters outside of these groups
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) The American electoral system is based on the British “first past the post” (FPTP) system, named so because _____.
third parties can“post” to earn representation
major parties are subject to intense scrutiny by third parties
it resembles a horse race; even a nose better wins
it tends to promote more equal representation
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Which of the following is an advantage to having less powerful, less centralized parties?
Fluid and flexible parties may be better able to process demands from a wider range of citizens.
Multiple party platforms possess greater persuasive abilities over the general public.
Parties can form a stronger organizational identity based around a single, cohesive ideology.
Third parties can effectively shoot for power grabs at legislative seats.
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why do Americans vote so little?
Typically, given the enormous number of immigrants the United States plays host to, most U.S.nonvoters are poorly versed in the tradition of voting, and are therefore are largely unengaged by most elections.
Typically, more than half of U.S. nonvoters say they that while they are interested in and satisfied with candidates, they still feel that their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.nonvoters say they are uninterested in or dissatisfied with candidates, feeling their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.voters find it impossible to convince others to vote, despite the fact that nonvoters are most likely to vote if convinced by those close to them.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) What was the relationship between African American voting rates and Barack Obama’s run for president?
African American voting rates rose to those of white voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates unexpectedly remained far below those of white voters as African American income and education levels remained steady.
African American voting rates rose to those of Hispanic voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates fell unexpectedly below those of white voters despite African American income and education levels rising.
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why is it that in most of the world, cities have higher turnouts than rural areas?
Partly because those who live rurally tend to feel less enfranchised
Partly because urbanites have higher education levels on average
Partly because people who have lived in the same place are less likely to vote than are transients or newcomers
Partly because men tend to vote more than women
POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz
POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists?
Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following did Machiavelli contribute to the study of politics?
Social contract theory
The role of power in politics
The role of wealth in society
The connection between race and politics
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.
irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A political leaders’ ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____.
sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Issues related to a border dispute between the United States and Canada would relate to _____.
sovereignty
authority
legitimacy
monarchy
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A theory that is tested in an attempt to prove or refute with evidence, is known as _____.
scholarship
corruption
a methodology
a hypothesis
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.
reason
balance
theory
rationality
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following is the best example of theory?
People join groups because of an innate desire to be with others who have similar views.
Democratic governments last longer than nondemocratic governments.
Republicans are older than Democrats.
Corruption is rampant in government.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which political science subfield studies the interface of politics and economics?
Public administration
Public policy
Comparative politics
Political theory
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which are both true for most political scientists?
They think practically and seek accuracy.
They seek popularity and are skeptical of power.
They offer single causes and think abstractly.
They are skeptical of power and offer long-term consequences.
The Politics and Administration Dichotomy
The Politics and Administration Dichotomy
The issues of politics and administration dichotomy first raised by Woodrow Wilson continue to generate debate among scholars of public administration in modern time. While some think Wilson’s idea was useful, others reject the idea as impossible. In a 2-3 page paper, and in your opinion, is that distinction practical and workable? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using such a dichotomy today as a way to advance that field of study? Support your case with examples.
Korea Unification
Assignment 1-1050 words
How can a culture that produces exquisite art still be at war? Well, I suppose that the two have little to do with each other.
Of course, one has to question whether or not war is really a matter of the Korean Peninsula per se. Rather, Korea seems to have been caught in the global cold war. Right on the front lines of the conflict between the United States and China and the Soviet Union, Korea was pulled apart more by global forces than by internal politics.
After the fall of the Soviet Union, after the money used to support North Korea is gone, we are left with a tense situation on the Korean Peninsula itself.
So what can be done?
Can Korea reunify?
Case Assignment
Please answer the following question:
Given the lessons you learned about German reunification in the last module, what are the most important issues facing efforts towards Korean peninsula reunification?
Please answer this question in three to five pages and turn it in by the end of this module. Do not forget to refer closely to the background information.
Assignment 2-700 word
What role does the United States play in the current Korean conflict?
Review the material in the background information page.
Then write a two to three page paper answering this question:
Why is the United States such an important player in the potential reunification of Korea?
Upload your papers for grading.
The SLP assignments in POL 201 generally call for a detailed analysis of the involvement of US interests in the nation being studied. In addressing SLP questions, such an analysis requires some historical perspective and a balanced and thorough consideration of that involvement
Describe about the organization American Red Cross. At least 300 words!
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