Q1. The poor sometimes remain in severely damaged homes or temporary housing for extended periods of time True of False?
    a. true
b. false

Q2. Emergency operations plans should identify the types of emergency response actions that are most likely to be appropriate but also encourage improvisation. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q3. Population monitoring and assessment identifies the size of the population at risk and is important if the number of people remains constant over time. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q4. Improvised disaster responses are when existing organizations seem incapable of meeting the needs, they expand with new members, extend with new tasks, or new organizations emerge. True of False?
    a. true
b. false

Q5. In the Incident Management System structure there can be multiple incident commanders at every incident scene. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q6. Economic impact losses are difficult to measure because:
    a. Impacts of disasters are due to immigration and emigration.
b. Psychosocial impacts are usually mild and brief
c. Impacts can create conflict as one group’s attempts to solve its problems create problems for others.
d. Not all the information is recorded.

Q7. People in special facilities such as schools, hospitals, nursing homes, and jails have the same patterns of warning and evacuation from those of residents and transients. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q8. People’s susceptibility to death, injury, or illness from extreme levels of environmental hazards is:
    a. Social vulnerability
b. Human vulnerability
c. Structural vulnerability
d. Hazard vulnerability

Q9. Threat detection includes:
    a. Recognizing that a threat exists
b. Assessing preparedness
c. Determining the classification
d. Implementing the recovery

Q10. There are two distinct population groups, residents and transients related to departure timing. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q11. A step in impact zone access control and security is:
    a. Quickly obtain services of victim location specialists
b. Establish traffic control points on major perimeter routes
c. Provide security patrols outside the impact area
d. Maintain a list of available security equipment

Q12. Land-use practices are defined by the ways people use the land. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q13. Among the tools available to local governments for hazard mitigation are:
    a. Zoning
b. Natural disaster regulations
c. Levee piping
d. Overtopping of structures

Q14. In order to protect structures from airborne firebrands, avoid building on sites on top of a slope or near a canyon draw. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q15. During an emergency, specific warnings should be disseminated by expert and credible sources. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q16. Hazard mitigation is most effective when it takes place after disasters. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q17. IMS’s are the hub of the emergency information processing within the jurisdiction. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q18. The Urban Areas Security Initiative’s purpose is to prevent, respond to, and recover from acts of terrorism. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q19. People threatened by disaster have multiple sources of information, but most people consider none of them to be completely credible. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q20. For Hazmat releases before the appropriate monitoring equipment arrives, responders should:
    a. Allow people to move across the release area
b. Prevent entry into the “hot zone.”
c. Send contaminated people to the hospital
d. Rely upon centralized medical facilities for medical treatment.

Q21. Structures can be significantly protected from wind damage by installing stronger than normal connections among the foundation, walls, rafters or roof trusses, and roof decking. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q22. Households who have social vulnerability often occupy the areas most likely to be hit by a disaster and also occupy the oldest, poorest maintained buildings. True of False?
    a. true
b. false

Q23. Information collected through the emergency assessment function forms the basis for the:
    a. Population protection function
b. Severity of impact
c. Immediacy function
d. Duration of impact

Q24. One of the pre-impact conditions is:
    a. Hazard exposure
b. Meteorological exposure
c. Geophysical exposure
d. Airborne exposure

Q25. Emergency classification system organizes a large number of potential incidents into a small set of categories. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q26. Buildings can be vulnerable to environmental hazards because of inadequate designs, inadequate construction materials. True of False?
    a. true
b. false

Q27. Historically, over 60% of disaster casualties reach hospitals in their own vehicles or those of peers or bystanders. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q28. An issue champion who has the expertise and legitimacy to promote emergency planning is a:
    a. Policy entrepreneur
b. Expert
c. Specialist
d. Politician

Q29. People use their own pre-existing beliefs about appropriate protective actions. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q30. In the Incident Management System (IMS), agencies select and train their staff to perform all the duties associated with specific standardized positions. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q31. Emergency assessment activities in the response phase are directed toward mitigation. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q32. Hazard operations actions are implemented only when the need arises and must be able to be implemented rapidly. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q33. Property owners can change their construction practices voluntarily because of risk communication and incentives or change involuntarily because of building code requirements. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q34. There is substantial variation across communities in the relative importance of different warning sources to different:
    a. Age groups
b. Genders
c. Ethnic groups
d. Education levels

Q35. SOPs should contain rules that define the conditions under which each hazard operations action should be used or avoided. True or False?
    a. true
b. false

Q36. Social impacts are primarily reduced by hazard mitigation practices and emergency preparedness practices. True of False?
    a. true
b. false

Q37. A guiding principle for natural hazard mitigation is:
    a. Preventive actions must be decided at the federal level.
b. Private sector participation is vital
c. Long-term efforts and investments in prevention measures are ineffective.
d. Mitigation is only useful for flooding

Q38. The level of compliance to protection action recommendations is contingent upon:
    a. Spontaneous evacuation
b. Receiver characteristics
c. disaster-relevant competencies
d. Federal directives

Q39. The EOC:
    a. Is a facility located in the hazard’s danger area
b. Is important because resources are often tightly concentrated in a jurisdiction
c. Includes only those who have technical knowledge
d. Is used to provide close coordination among organizations at all levels

Q40. Disaster Research Center’s studies of hundreds of emergencies showed no evidence of role abandonment. True or False?
    a. true
b. false